4.2· 90 questions · 1145 marks · 1374 min · 2017–2025· Structured questions
Every Cambridge A Level Thinking Skills Paper 3 question on develop a model, laid out as 133 A4 pages with the mark scheme below. Nothing is left out. Free to read, no account.
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119 / 133Answers below. Sit the paper first if you are practising.
Pastlit
Thinking Skills 9694 · Develop a model — Paper 3
A Level · topical answer key — answer key (teacher use)
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15| Question | Answer | Marks | From |
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| 1 | see sheet | 15 | 9694/31 May/June 2017 |
| 2 | see sheet | 15 | 9694/32 May/June 2017 |
| 3 | see sheet | 15 | 9694/33 May/June 2017 |
| 4 | see sheet | 10 | 9694/31 Oct/Nov 2017 |
| 5 | see sheet | 15 | 9694/32 Oct/Nov 2017 |
| 6 | see sheet | 15 | 9694/32 Oct/Nov 2017 |
| 7 | see sheet | 15 | 9694/33 Oct/Nov 2017 |
| 8 | see sheet | 15 | 9694/33 Oct/Nov 2017 |
| 9 | see sheet | 15 | 9694/31 May/June 2018 |
| 10 | see sheet | 10 | 9694/32 May/June 2018 |
| 11 | see sheet | 15 | 9694/32 May/June 2018 |
| 12 | see sheet | 15 | 9694/32 May/June 2018 |
| 13 | see sheet | 10 | 9694/33 May/June 2018 |
| 14 | see sheet | 15 | 9694/33 May/June 2018 |
| 15 | see sheet | 15 | 9694/33 May/June 2018 |
| 16 | see sheet | 10 | 9694/31 Oct/Nov 2018 |
| 17 | see sheet | 15 | 9694/31 Oct/Nov 2018 |
| 18 | see sheet | 15 | 9694/31 Oct/Nov 2018 |
| 19 | see sheet | 15 | 9694/32 Oct/Nov 2018 |
| 20 | see sheet | 10 | 9694/33 Oct/Nov 2018 |
| 21 | see sheet | 15 | 9694/33 Oct/Nov 2018 |
| 22 | see sheet | 15 | 9694/33 Oct/Nov 2018 |
| 23 | see sheet | 10 | 9694/31 May/June 2019 |
| 24 | see sheet | 10 | 9694/32 May/June 2019 |
| 25 | see sheet | 10 | 9694/33 May/June 2019 |
| 26 | see sheet | 10 | 9694/31 Oct/Nov 2019 |
| 27 | see sheet | 10 | 9694/31 Oct/Nov 2019 |
| 28 | see sheet | 15 | 9694/31 Oct/Nov 2019 |
| 29 | see sheet | 15 | 9694/31 Oct/Nov 2019 |
| 30 | see sheet | 10 | 9694/32 Oct/Nov 2019 |
| 31 | see sheet | 10 | 9694/32 Oct/Nov 2019 |
| 32 | see sheet | 15 | 9694/32 Oct/Nov 2019 |
| 33 | see sheet | 15 | 9694/32 Oct/Nov 2019 |
| 34 | see sheet | 10 | 9694/33 Oct/Nov 2019 |
| 35 | see sheet | 10 | 9694/33 Oct/Nov 2019 |
| 36 | see sheet | 15 | 9694/33 Oct/Nov 2019 |
| 37 | see sheet | 15 | 9694/33 Oct/Nov 2019 |
| 38 | see sheet | 15 | 9694/32 May/June 2020 |
| 39 | see sheet | 10 | 9694/32 May/June 2020 |
| 40 | see sheet | 15 | 9694/32 May/June 2020 |
| 41 | see sheet | 15 | 9694/33 May/June 2020 |
| 42 | see sheet | 10 | 9694/33 May/June 2020 |
| 43 | see sheet | 15 | 9694/33 May/June 2020 |
| 44 | see sheet | 10 | 9694/31 Oct/Nov 2020 |
| 45 | see sheet | 10 | 9694/32 Oct/Nov 2020 |
| 46 | see sheet | 10 | 9694/33 Oct/Nov 2020 |
| 47 | see sheet | 10 | 9694/31 May/June 2021 |
| 48 | see sheet | 15 | 9694/31 May/June 2021 |
| 49 | see sheet | 10 | 9694/32 May/June 2021 |
| 50 | see sheet | 10 | 9694/31 Oct/Nov 2021 |
| 51 | see sheet | 15 | 9694/31 Oct/Nov 2021 |
| 52 | see sheet | 10 | 9694/32 Oct/Nov 2021 |
| 53 | see sheet | 15 | 9694/32 Oct/Nov 2021 |
| 54 | see sheet | 10 | 9694/33 Oct/Nov 2021 |
| 55 | see sheet | 15 | 9694/33 Oct/Nov 2021 |
| 56 | see sheet | 15 | 9694/32 May/June 2022 |
| 57 | see sheet | 15 | 9694/33 May/June 2022 |
| 58 | see sheet | 10 | 9694/31 Oct/Nov 2022 |
| 59 | see sheet | 10 | 9694/32 Oct/Nov 2022 |
| 60 | see sheet | 10 | 9694/33 Oct/Nov 2022 |
| 61 | see sheet | 10 | 9694/31 Oct/Nov 2023 |
| 62 | see sheet | 15 | 9694/31 Oct/Nov 2023 |
| 63 | see sheet | 10 | 9694/32 Oct/Nov 2023 |
| 64 | see sheet | 15 | 9694/32 Oct/Nov 2023 |
| 65 | see sheet | 10 | 9694/33 Oct/Nov 2023 |
| 66 | see sheet | 15 | 9694/33 Oct/Nov 2023 |
| 67 | see sheet | 10 | 9694/31 May/June 2024 |
| 68 | see sheet | 15 | 9694/32 May/June 2024 |
| 69 | see sheet | 15 | 9694/33 May/June 2024 |
| 70 | see sheet | 10 | 9694/33 May/June 2024 |
| 71 | see sheet | 10 | 9694/31 Oct/Nov 2024 |
| 72 | see sheet | 15 | 9694/31 Oct/Nov 2024 |
| 73 | see sheet | 10 | 9694/32 Oct/Nov 2024 |
| 74 | see sheet | 15 | 9694/32 Oct/Nov 2024 |
| 75 | see sheet | 10 | 9694/33 Oct/Nov 2024 |
| 76 | see sheet | 15 | 9694/33 Oct/Nov 2024 |
| 77 | see sheet | 10 | 9694/31 May/June 2025 |
| 78 | see sheet | 15 | 9694/32 May/June 2025 |
| 79 | see sheet | 10 | 9694/32 May/June 2025 |
| 80 | see sheet | 15 | 9694/33 May/June 2025 |
| 81 | see sheet | 10 | 9694/33 May/June 2025 |
| 82 | see sheet | 10 | 9694/31 Oct/Nov 2025 |
| 83 | see sheet | 15 | 9694/31 Oct/Nov 2025 |
| 84 | see sheet | 15 | 9694/31 Oct/Nov 2025 |
| 85 | see sheet | 10 | 9694/32 Oct/Nov 2025 |
| 86 | see sheet | 15 | 9694/32 Oct/Nov 2025 |
| 87 | see sheet | 15 | 9694/32 Oct/Nov 2025 |
| 88 | see sheet | 10 | 9694/33 Oct/Nov 2025 |
| 89 | see sheet | 15 | 9694/33 Oct/Nov 2025 |
| 90 | see sheet | 15 | 9694/33 Oct/Nov 2025 |
4 Square Deal is a game for two players, played over a number of rounds. In each round both players have a 4 × 4 grid onto which numbered tiles are placed. There are 34 tiles, numbered as follows: 0 0 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 3 3 3 3 3 4 4 4 4 4 4 5 5 5 5 5 6 6 6 6 7 7 7 8 8 At the beginning of a round the tiles are placed in a bag. The players then take turns to withdraw two tiles at a time from the bag, at random. At each turn, one of the two tiles must be placed on the player’s own grid and the other one placed on the opponent’s grid. Each player attempts to create rows and columns of four numbers that add up to a total that is a square number, and tries to prevent the other player from doing so. The round continues until both grids are full. A player’s score for the round is the sum of the highest value row and the highest value column. • The value of a row or column that adds up to a total which is a square number is the sum of the squares of the individual numbers. • A row or column that does not add up to a square number has a value of zero. For example, in the grid below, two rows add up to totals which are square numbers: 4 + 1 + 7 + 4 = 16 and 2 + 5 + 0 + 2 = 9. The values of these rows are 42 + 12 + 72 + 42 = 82 points and 22 + 52 + 02 + 22 = 33 points. There are no columns with totals which are square numbers. The player’s score for this round is 82 (highest value row) + 0 (highest value column) = 82 points. 7 3 3 5 4 1 7 4 8 5 2 4 2 5 0 2 The game is normally won by the first player to reach an overall total of 900 points. However, a player whose grid in any round has all four rows and all four columns adding up to totals which are square numbers is said to have made a Square Deal. No points are scored in this round: instead, the player making the Square Deal wins the game immediately. Russell and Gordon are playing a game of Square Deal. Russell’s grid at the end of the first round was as follows: 5 7 0 8 4 6 3 3 1 7 6 2 4 5 8 4 (a) What was Russell’s score in the first round? [3] In a later round, Gordon had a chance of making a Square Deal on the final turn of the round. He knew that the four tiles still in the bag were 0, 2, 4 and 7, and his grid was as follows: 4 6 3 3 4 5 7 5 1 2 1 3 2 6 5 However, when he took two of the tiles from the bag, the best score that he could make on his own grid was 158 points, made up of 74 points for the highest value row and 84 points for the highest value column. (b) Which two tiles did Gordon take from the bag on the final turn of this round? Explain your answer. [3] (c) (i) What is the highest possible score that a player could achieve in a single round? [3] (ii) Draw a completed grid that would produce this score. [2] In the round currently in progress the two grids are as follows: 5 0 3 5 4 4 2 3 8 6 7 2 7 8 6 3 1 7 1 4 3 0 2 5 4 5 2 6 Russell’s grid Gordon’s grid It is Russell’s turn, and he has taken tiles numbered 1 and 5 from the bag. (d) Taking into account the four tiles left in the bag ahead of Gordon’s turn, explain in detail why Russell should place the 1 on his own grid and the 5 on Gordon’s grid and on which squares the tiles should be placed. [4]
15 marks
Mark scheme: 4(a) 249 (points) (12 + 72 + 62 + 22 and 72 + 62 + 72 + 52) 3 If 3 marks cannot be awarded, award 1 mark for each of the following: • Identification of all three lines (and no others) that add up to square number totals: (4,6,3,3) (1,7,6,2) and (7,6,7,5). • Correct calculation of the value of at least one of the three lines: 70, 90 and 159 points respectively. 4(b) 2 and 4 with justification 3 Award 1 mark the correct pair chosen Award 1 mark each for recognition of the following: • 0 would have allowed him to make a Square Deal. • 7 would have produced a column value of 90 points (or “greater than 84”) 4(c)(i) 352 (82 + 82 + 72 + 22 and 82 + 72 + 72 + 32) 3 Award 2 marks for an answer of 340 or more. (340 fails to appreciate that one of the 8s can be used in a row and a column, and is made up of 82 + 82 + 72 + 22 and 72 + 72 + 62 + 52.) Award 1 mark for sight of 181 or identification of (8,8,7,2) as the best possible line OR for a row and a column that each add up to 25. 4(c)(ii) Award 1 mark for any complete grid that does not contain any numbers that 2 would not be allowed (e.g. three 0s, four 1s, one or more 9s etc.). Award 1 mark for any grid (even if incomplete) that would produce 352 or the candidate’s answer to (c)(i) – provided it is more than 158. 4(d) 1 placed in third row of Russell’s grid and 5 placed in bottom row of 4 Gordon’s grid + explanation Award 1 mark for stating (or indicating clearly in some other way) that the 1 should be placed in the third row down (or other suitable description) of Russell’s grid and the 5 should be placed in the bottom row of Gordon’s grid. Award 1 mark each (up to a maximum of 3) for any of the following observations: • The four tiles left in the bag are 3, 4, 4 and 6. OR There is still a 3 in the bag, but no 2 or 8. • (So) placing 5 in Gordon’s bottom row guarantees that his score for the round will be 0. • 1 on Russell’s grid (in third row/second column) guarantees a score for the round (02 + 62 + 12 + 22 = 41). • Unless Gordon takes the 3 from the bag, he will have to place a number in Russell’s last square (4 or 6) that will create a row that scores points (82 + 62 + 72 + 42 = 165) OR a column that is better than the one already in place (52 + 62 + 12 + 42 = 78). SC1: if no other marks can be awarded, award 1 mark for stating that tile 1 should be placed in the third row of Russell’s grid, AND tile 5 can go in either of Gordon’s empty spaces.
3 Richard owns a company which produces a range of different chocolates. He owns a shop where he sells standard boxes of the chocolates. He also has a website through which customers can order boxes containing whatever assortment of chocolates they want. The standard boxes of chocolates come in three sizes: small, medium and large. Richard packs these boxes in the back room, and has a full-time salesperson working in the shop. Every morning Richard checks how many of each type of box he has in stock. He then plans how many of each type to pack during that day. As medium boxes are more popular, his aim is to have in stock equal numbers of small and large boxes and twice this number of medium boxes. He packs boxes such that, if no boxes were sold during the day, he would have boxes in this ratio at the end of the day. He starts work at 09:00 and spends 8 hours packing chocolates each day. It takes Richard 4 minutes to pack a small box of chocolates, 8 minutes to pack a medium box and 10 minutes to pack a large box. If a box of chocolates is ordered on the website it takes Richard 3 minutes, plus 30 seconds for every chocolate to pack the box. The maximum number of chocolates that can be packed into a box for an order through the website is 48. The table shows the website orders and the numbers of boxes in the shop last week. Stock in shop at 09:00 Day Website orders Small Medium Large 1 box of 24 chocolates Monday 17 23 14 1 box of 32 chocolates Tuesday None 15 20 11 Wednesday 1 box of 36 chocolates 12 18 8 Thursday None 4 10 5 Friday None 6 12 7 (a) How long did it take for Richard to pack the boxes for the website orders on Monday? [2] (b) To deliver an order from the website on the next day, Richard needs to have it packed by 11:00. What is the largest number of chocolates that Richard would be able to have delivered on the next day? [3] (c) How many of each type of box did Richard pack on Tuesday? [3] Richard has decided to hire a part-time assistant to help him to pack the chocolates. On any day that the assistant works, she will work for a whole number of hours. Richard expects that it will take the assistant 7 minutes to pack a small box, 9 minutes to pack a medium box and 15 minutes to pack a large box. Neither Richard nor the assistant will start to pack a box if there is not time to complete it during the same day. Richard will continue to complete the website orders himself. (d) If the assistant works for 3 hours during one day and there are no website orders, what is the largest number of boxes that can be packed in the ratio 1 : 2 : 1 (small : medium : large)? [3] On Monday morning this week there were only 6 small, 5 medium and 4 large boxes in stock. (e) Richard assumes that the sales of chocolates last week were typical. He wants to use this information to decide how many hours he should employ the assistant for each week. What is the smallest number of hours that he could employ her for each week, so that the stock of boxes of chocolates at the end of each week remains constant? [4] [Question 4 begins on the next page]
15 marks
Mark scheme: 3(a) 3 minutes for each of the boxes, plus a total of 28 minutes for the 56 2 chocolates. 34 minutes in total. Allow 15 minutes and 19 minutes both given (the times for each box). 1 mark for either 28 minutes for the 56 chocolates or the total time for either box calculated (15 or 19 minutes). 3(b) The total is 4 × 48 + 18 = 210 chocolates. 3 The largest boxes (48 chocolates) take 27 minutes to pack. [1 mark] There are two hours available, so 4 boxes can be packed, (with an extra 12 minutes left). [1 mark] Award 1 mark for an attempt to find a set of at most 5 boxes that can be packed in the 2 hours available. SC1: 234 chocolates in one box. 3(c) To reach the correct proportions requires packing 10 additional medium 3 boxes and 4 additional large boxes, (which will take a total of 120 minutes). [1 mark] Packing 1 small, 2 medium and 1 large box will take a total of 30 = (4 +8 + 8 + 10) minutes. [1 mark] There will be enough time to pack 12 additional sets of 1 small, 2 medium and 1 large, so in total Richard should pack 12 small, 34 medium and 16 large boxes. [1 mark] 3(d) 84 boxes 3 The assistant is considerably slower packing small and large boxes compared to Richard, but only slightly slower packing medium boxes, so the assistant should be assigned to pack medium boxes. (In 3 hours, 20 boxes can be packed.) [1 mark] It will take Richard 140 minutes to pack 10 boxes each of small and large, leaving 340 minutes more packing time. [1 mark] In 340 minutes, 11 sets in the ratio 1 : 2 : 1 can be packed, so in total 20 + 20 + 11 × 4 = 84 boxes. [1 mark] SC1: Has both pack in the ratio 1 : 2 : 1, obtains total of 80 boxes. OR SC1: Assistant only takes 40 minutes, so can only complete 4 sets/16 boxes. 3(e) With Richard working on his own the number of boxes in stock has reduced 4 by 11 small, 18 medium and 10 large boxes over the week. [1 mark] It would be most efficient for Richard to package the small and large boxes and the assistant to package the medium boxes, plus some of the medium boxes that Richard had been packaging. Richard needs 11 × 4 + 10 × 10 = 144 minutes to package the additional small and large boxes. [1 mark] This means that Richard will be able to package 144 ÷ 8 = 18 fewer medium boxes, which will need to be packaged by the assistant (in addition to the 18 other medium boxes that are required). [1 mark] OR (SC1) If assistant only for 11S 18M 10L, 77 + 162 + 150 = 389 minutes, (rounding up to 7 hours). A total of 36 medium boxes will require 36 × 9 = 324 minutes, so the assistant should be employed for 6 hours each week since it must be a whole number of hours. [1 mark for rounding up their answer]
3 Richard owns a company which produces a range of different chocolates. He owns a shop where he sells standard boxes of the chocolates. He also has a website through which customers can order boxes containing whatever assortment of chocolates they want. The standard boxes of chocolates come in three sizes: small, medium and large. Richard packs these boxes in the back room, and has a full-time salesperson working in the shop. Every morning Richard checks how many of each type of box he has in stock. He then plans how many of each type to pack during that day. As medium boxes are more popular, his aim is to have in stock equal numbers of small and large boxes and twice this number of medium boxes. He packs boxes such that, if no boxes were sold during the day, he would have boxes in this ratio at the end of the day. He starts work at 09:00 and spends 8 hours packing chocolates each day. It takes Richard 4 minutes to pack a small box of chocolates, 8 minutes to pack a medium box and 10 minutes to pack a large box. If a box of chocolates is ordered on the website it takes Richard 3 minutes, plus 30 seconds for every chocolate to pack the box. The maximum number of chocolates that can be packed into a box for an order through the website is 48. The table shows the website orders and the numbers of boxes in the shop last week. Stock in shop at 09:00 Day Website orders Small Medium Large 1 box of 24 chocolates Monday 17 23 14 1 box of 32 chocolates Tuesday None 15 20 11 Wednesday 1 box of 36 chocolates 12 18 8 Thursday None 4 10 5 Friday None 6 12 7 (a) How long did it take for Richard to pack the boxes for the website orders on Monday? [2] (b) To deliver an order from the website on the next day, Richard needs to have it packed by 11:00. What is the largest number of chocolates that Richard would be able to have delivered on the next day? [3] (c) How many of each type of box did Richard pack on Tuesday? [3] Richard has decided to hire a part-time assistant to help him to pack the chocolates. On any day that the assistant works, she will work for a whole number of hours. Richard expects that it will take the assistant 7 minutes to pack a small box, 9 minutes to pack a medium box and 15 minutes to pack a large box. Neither Richard nor the assistant will start to pack a box if there is not time to complete it during the same day. Richard will continue to complete the website orders himself. (d) If the assistant works for 3 hours during one day and there are no website orders, what is the largest number of boxes that can be packed in the ratio 1 : 2 : 1 (small : medium : large)? [3] On Monday morning this week there were only 6 small, 5 medium and 4 large boxes in stock. (e) Richard assumes that the sales of chocolates last week were typical. He wants to use this information to decide how many hours he should employ the assistant for each week. What is the smallest number of hours that he could employ her for each week, so that the stock of boxes of chocolates at the end of each week remains constant? [4] [Question 4 begins on the next page]
15 marks
Mark scheme: 3(a) 3 minutes for each of the boxes, plus a total of 28 minutes for the 56 2 chocolates. 34 minutes in total. Allow 15 minutes and 19 minutes both given (the times for each box). 1 mark for either 28 minutes for the 56 chocolates or the total time for either box calculated (15 or 19 minutes). 3(b) The total is 4 × 48 + 18 = 210 chocolates. 3 The largest boxes (48 chocolates) take 27 minutes to pack. [1 mark] There are two hours available, so 4 boxes can be packed, (with an extra 12 minutes left). [1 mark] Award 1 mark for an attempt to find a set of at most 5 boxes that can be packed in the 2 hours available. SC1: 234 chocolates in one box. 3(c) To reach the correct proportions requires packing 10 additional medium 3 boxes and 4 additional large boxes, (which will take a total of 120 minutes). [1 mark] Packing 1 small, 2 medium and 1 large box will take a total of 30 = (4 +8 + 8 + 10) minutes. [1 mark] There will be enough time to pack 12 additional sets of 1 small, 2 medium and 1 large, so in total Richard should pack 12 small, 34 medium and 16 large boxes. [1 mark] 3(d) 84 boxes 3 The assistant is considerably slower packing small and large boxes compared to Richard, but only slightly slower packing medium boxes, so the assistant should be assigned to pack medium boxes. (In 3 hours, 20 boxes can be packed.) [1 mark] It will take Richard 140 minutes to pack 10 boxes each of small and large, leaving 340 minutes more packing time. [1 mark] In 340 minutes, 11 sets in the ratio 1 : 2 : 1 can be packed, so in total 20 + 20 + 11 × 4 = 84 boxes. [1 mark] SC1: Has both pack in the ratio 1 : 2 : 1, obtains total of 80 boxes. OR SC1: Assistant only takes 40 minutes, so can only complete 4 sets/16 boxes. 3(e) With Richard working on his own the number of boxes in stock has reduced 4 by 11 small, 18 medium and 10 large boxes over the week. [1 mark] It would be most efficient for Richard to package the small and large boxes and the assistant to package the medium boxes, plus some of the medium boxes that Richard had been packaging. Richard needs 11 × 4 + 10 × 10 = 144 minutes to package the additional small and large boxes. [1 mark] This means that Richard will be able to package 144 ÷ 8 = 18 fewer medium boxes, which will need to be packaged by the assistant (in addition to the 18 other medium boxes that are required). [1 mark] OR (SC1) If assistant only for 11S 18M 10L, 77 + 162 + 150 = 389 minutes, (rounding up to 7 hours). A total of 36 medium boxes will require 36 × 9 = 324 minutes, so the assistant should be employed for 6 hours each week since it must be a whole number of hours. [1 mark for rounding up their answer]
1 Five days every week, Faridah sells ice cream at the beach from a box on the back of her bicycle. Each morning she cycles from her home to the beach with the ice cream, and some of it melts, the liquid dripping out of the box onto the road as she travels. When she gets to the beach she sells all of her remaining ice cream and then cycles back home. There are two routes that Faridah can take to the beach. The direct route takes 10 minutes but involves cycling through the sunshine. The scenic route takes 25 minutes but stays mainly in the shade. The ice cream melts more quickly on the direct route, and Faridah finds that she loses 60 grams for every minute of the journey, whereas on the scenic route she loses only 20 grams for every minute of the journey. (a) Which route leads to the smaller total loss of ice cream? [2] Faridah is considering buying a better-insulated box for her bicycle. The new box would lead to a loss of only 10 grams per minute on the direct route and only 5 grams per minute on the scenic route. Unfortunately, the new box would be a lot heavier, and each route would now take Faridah twice as long to travel as it did before. Faridah decides that she will always use the route which results in the smaller loss of ice cream. (b) How much ice cream could Faridah save each day by using the better-insulated box? [1] Buying and fitting the new box to her bicycle would cost Faridah $15. She sells every 600 grams of ice cream for $1. (c) How many weeks would it take her to recover this cost from the ice cream that she saves? [2] Faridah decides not to buy the better-insulated box. Iman suggests that she should take the bus to the beach each day and walk home. The bus journey would cost $0.80 and the ice cream loss on the bus journey would be 1 gram per minute. (d) What is the longest possible time that the bus journey could take if Faridah is to make more money than she would by cycling? [2] Faridah decides to continue using her bicycle, because she enjoys the exercise. However, she considers changing to a better-quality ice cream. She can sell every 500 grams of this ice cream for $1, but unfortunately it melts more quickly. She will lose 80 grams per minute on the direct route and 40 grams per minute on the scenic route. Faridah wants to know how much ice cream she would need to start with each day in order to make more money by changing to the better-quality ice cream. She knows that there will be a quantity of ice cream for which she will make the same amount of money, whichever type she takes. (e) What is this quantity? [3] [Question 2 begins on the next page]
10 marks
Mark scheme: Question Answer Marks 1(a) The scenic route loses 20 × 25 = 500 g, whereas the direct route loses 2 60 × 10 = 600 g. Award 1 mark for either of these masses, or for ‘scenic by 100 g’. No marks for unsupported answer. 1(b) With the better-insulated box, the direct route loses 10 × 20 = 200 g, 1 whereas the scenic route loses 5 × 50 = 250 g. So Faridah could save 500 g – 200 g = 300 g. 1(c) It would take 2 days, each day saving 300 g of ice cream, to recoup $1, so it 2 would take 30 days to recoup the $15, which corresponds to 6 weeks. Award 1 mark for 50¢ per day or equivalent. 1(d) In terms of ice-cream saving, the $0.80 bus fare corresponds to 2 600 × 0.8 g = 480 g of ice cream. Currently, Faridah is losing 500 g of ice cream a day, so the bus journey would be an improvement if she lost less than 20 g of ice cream on the journey, which means that the journey would have to take less than 20 minutes. Award 1 mark for comparing the net cost of taking a bus journey (for an arbitrary number of minutes) and the net cost of not; this includes consideration of 0 minutes, which reduces to the equivalence between the bus fare and 480 g of ice cream OR for an algebraic representation: (t/600) + 0.8 = 500/600. 1(e) The total quantity needed is 2300 g 3 1 mark for any comparison of profit from n normal ice-creams on scenic route (500 g lost, $1 for 600 g) with profit from n luxury ice creams on direct route (800 g lost, $1 for 500 g). e.g.: 800 g of luxury gives no money, whereas 800 g of normal yields 50 cents. 1 further mark for any improved comparison of quantities, or a comparison of rates (e.g. every additional 300 g of ice cream would be sold for 10¢ more if it is the better quality ice cream, so 1500 g is needed to compensate for the 50¢ loss). Alternatively: (q – 500)/600 = (q – 800)/500 [2 marks; 1 mark for either side correct]
3 Tickets for next year’s Glastonbourne Music Festival are soon to be released to the general public. They can only be bought by calling the box office, which opens at 8 am on the release date. There are discounted tickets available for the first 100 callers. Sally is keen to buy discounted tickets, and decides to call before 8 am in the hope of being at the front of the queue when the box office opens. She calls at 6 am precisely and is told by an automated message that she is 560th in the queue. She stays on the line, and one minute later she is told that she is 540th. (a) Using this information alone, state when Sally should expect to reach the front of the queue. [1] When Sally reaches the front of the queue, another message informs her that the box office has not opened yet, and that she must try again later. She decides to call again immediately. She assumes that no new people will call the box office, and that everyone else who has already called will also call again immediately after reaching the front of the queue. (b) If this continues until after the box office opens, at what time will Sally be able to buy her tickets? [1] However, when Sally calls for the second time, she is told that she is 588th in the queue. She realises that in fact some new people have called the box office. She assumes that these new callers have joined the queue at a constant rate since her first call. Sally wants to predict, using this new information, when she will be able to buy tickets. She wants to keep her calculations as simple as possible, so she decides to place all her calls precisely at the start of a minute. For example, if she were to arrive at the front of the queue at 7 seconds past 6.49 am, she would place her next call at 6.50 am. If however she were to arrive at 6.49 am exactly, she would place the call immediately, i.e. at 6.49 am. On this basis, Sally predicts that she will be able to buy tickets at 27 seconds past 8.01 am. (c) Show how Sally reached her prediction. [3] Sally wonders if she could avoid waiting unnecessarily in the queue. She uses the information she has so far to work out the best time to call in order to arrive at the front of the queue as soon after 8 am as possible. She will only consider placing the call precisely at the start of a minute. (d) (i) Calculate at what time she should call, and the precise time she will reach the front of the queue. [2] (ii) What is the latest time that she could call and still expect to buy discounted tickets? Show at what time she will arrive at the front of the queue. [2] Sally realises that her assumption that all callers will re-join the queue as soon as they reach the front is unlikely to be realistic. She now assumes that half of the callers will give up and not call again after reaching the front of the queue. So, each time she calls and is told how many people are in the queue, only half of those people will be in the queue the next time she calls. Because of this extra complexity, Sally decides it will be easier for her to rejoin the queue again each time she reaches the front. (e) (i) How many new callers does Sally now calculate are joining the queue every minute? [2] (ii) Will Sally be able to buy discounted tickets? Show what time she should expect to get through to the box office. [4] [Question 4 begins on the next page]
15 marks
Mark scheme: 3(a) 20 people in one minute: 560/20 = 28 minutes. She will reach the front at 1 06:28 am. 3(b) 06:28 – 06:56 – 07:24 – 07:52 – 08:20 1 08:20am 3(c) 3 Time joined Number of people Minutes wait 06:00:00 560 560/20 = 28 06:28:00 588 588/20 = 29.4 06:58:00 618 618/20 = 30.9 07:29:00 649 649/20 = 32.45 She reaches the operator at 08:01:27 AG Award 1 mark for converting 588 into minutes wait or time joined Award 1 mark for 618 seen Award 1 mark for accurate application: implied by sight of 07:29 and 649/20 oe 3(d)(i) Award 2 marks for the correct time (07:28) and the correct time that the front 2 of the queue is reached (08:00:24). If 2 marks cannot be awarded, award 1 mark for either the following: • at 07:28 the queue has 648 people in it, which means a 32.4 minute wait; • at 07:27 the queue has 647 people in it, which means a 32.35 minute wait, arriving at the front at 07:59:21. 3(d)(ii) 100 discounts at 20 per minute suggests that the last ones will go to the 2 caller getting through just before 8.05 am. Joining at 07.33, there will be 653 people in the queue. 653/20 = 32 m 39 s, leading to 08:05:39 seconds: too late. Therefore 07:32 is the latest time, from which she gets to the front at 08:04:36. Award 2 marks for the correct time (07:32) and the correct time that the front of the queue is reached (08:04:36). If 2 marks cannot be awarded, award 1 mark for either of the following: • at 07.32 am the queue has 652 people in it, which means a 32.6 minute wait; • at 07.33 am the queue has 653 people in it, which means a 32.65 minute wait, arriving at the front at 08:05:39. 3(e)(i) Of the 560 callers, only 280 re-join. 2 So 588 – 280 = 308 have joined in the meantime. 308 over 28 minutes: 11 per minute 1 mark for 308 soi 3(e)(ii) 08:03:12 (07:30:00 + 33.2 minutes wait), so Yes 4 If 4 marks cannot be awarded: Award 1 mark for clearly calculating the three components for any case: minutes wait (queue/20), number re-starting (queue/2) and number arriving (minute × (their) 11). Award 1 mark for correctly applying the process iteratively once (implied by 06:28:00 as second time of starting). Award 1 mark for a second iteration applied correctly (implied by either 06:58 or 07:30 AND the number of people in the queue at those times).
4 Strategy is a TV quiz show. Four contestants take part in each edition. Throughout the show every question is presented simultaneously to the contestants, together with four possible answers, A, B, C and D, only one of which is correct. Each contestant has an electronic keypad which allows them to select one of the options. The first part of the show is called Piggyback. It consists of five rounds of 10 questions on specific subjects. Every correct answer selected by a contestant adds $5 to their own prize pot. Before the show begins, the contestants are informed of the five question categories and each of them has to make two strategic decisions: • One category must be nominated “double”. The contestant adds $10 to their prize pot, instead of $5, for every correct answer they select in this round. • A second category must be nominated “piggyback”. The contestant does not take part in this round, but has the same amount of money added to their prize pot for the round as the contestant who adds the most to their prize pot as a result of answering the questions. None of the contestants knows in advance what categories the others have nominated “double” and “piggyback”. This means that a “piggyback” could be worth up to $100 if one or more of the others have nominated the same category “double”. Occasionally all four contestants nominate the same category “piggyback”, in which case the round becomes void and all the piggybacks are wasted. The two contestants with the highest prize pots at the end of Piggyback progress to the second part of the show, called Freeze, taking their prize pots with them. Freeze consists of 10 general knowledge questions. For each question, the first to select an answer freezes the other out of that answer. The other contestant can then choose to pass or select a different answer. During Freeze, every correct answer adds $25 to the contestant’s prize pot, but $10 is deducted for every incorrect answer. A contestant who passes because they have been frozen out of the answer they want to select is not penalized, but if neither contestant selects an answer to a question within 10 seconds, $40 is deducted from both prize pots. The contestant with the higher prize pot at the end of Freeze is the show’s winner and takes their prize pot through to Multiplier, the final part of the show. This consists of 20 general knowledge questions, but with a time limit of only 5 seconds per question. During Multiplier, $20 is deducted from the prize pot for an incorrect answer and $40 is deducted if no answer is selected within 5 seconds. The amount of prize money that the winner takes home is their final prize pot multiplied by the number of correct Multiplier answers. Ben, Jodie, Olivia and Toby were today’s Strategy contestants. The following table details the prize pots they acquired during the Piggyback rounds: Round 1 Round 2 Round 3 Round 4 Round 5 Total History Music Sport Geography Science prize pot Ben $40 $90 $45 $80 $40 $295 Jodie $35 $45 $40 $25 $45 $190 Olivia $80 $40 $35 $80 $45 $280 Toby $35 $90 $45 $35 $35 $240 In Freeze, Olivia was first to select an answer to all but the last of the 10 general knowledge questions. She appeared to make no effort at all to answer the last question. The performances of Ben and Olivia during Freeze are summarized below. Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 Ben pass correct pass incorrect pass pass pass pass correct pass Olivia correct incorrect incorrect correct incorrect correct correct correct incorrect pass Olivia was today’s winner. She went on to answer 12 of the Multiplier questions correctly, but answered 7 incorrectly and failed to answer the other one within the 5-second time limit. (a) What is the largest amount of money that anyone could possibly win on an edition of Strategy? [2] (b) (i) How much was in Ben’s prize pot and how much was in Olivia’s prize pot after today’s ninth Freeze question? [2] (ii) Suggest why Olivia did not attempt to answer the last question. [1] (c) (i) In total, how many questions did Olivia answer correctly today? [2] (ii) How much did Olivia win? [2] (iii) What is the maximum extra amount Olivia could have won if she had selected an answer to the last Freeze question? [2] (d) Deduce which categories were each of today’s four contestants’ “double” and “piggyback” choices. [4]
15 marks
Mark scheme: 4(a) Maximum for Piggyback is 2 × $100 (“double” & “piggyback”) + 3 × $50 = 2 $350 [1 mark] Maximum for Freeze is 10 × $25 = $250 $600 × 20 = $12 000 4(b)(i) Ben’s prize pot: $335 ($295 + 2 × $25 – $10) [1 mark] 2 Olivia’s prize pot: $365 ($280 + 5 × $25 – 4 × $10) [1 mark] 4(b)(ii) If Olivia had selected an incorrect answer and Ben had selected the correct 1 answer, Ben would have won (by $5), whereas not attempting the question was the only way she was guaranteed to win by at least $5. 4(c)(i) In Piggyback, History and Geography must have been her “double” and 2 “piggyback” categories (to be able to add more than $50 to her prize pot). She must have answered 8 questions correctly in one of the two categories and not taken part in the other. Her total number of correct answers in Piggyback was therefore 8 + 8 + 7 + 9 = 32. 32 (in Piggyback) + 5 (in Freeze) + 12 (in Multiplier) = 49 If 2 marks cannot be awarded, award 1 mark for evidence of appreciation that she answered 32 questions correctly in Piggyback OR for an answer of 57 (counting piggyback answers as her own) 4(c)(ii) Her prize pot after the ninth Freeze question was $365, then $325 after she 2 did not attempt the last question. This was reduced by $180 during Multiplier (7 × $20 + 1 × $40) before multiplication by 12. 12 × $145 = $1740 If 2 marks cannot be awarded, award 1 mark for evidence of appreciation that her prize pot was reduced by $180 during Multiplier. 4(c)(iii) If she had answered the last question correctly, $25 would have been added 2 to her prize pot instead of $40 deducted. $65 × 12 = $780 If 2 marks cannot be awarded, award 1 mark for an answer of $300 (which fails to reinstate the deducted $40) OR for sight of $2520 4(d) Any amount over $50 must be due to a “double” or a “piggyback”. Only 4 Olivia recorded over $50 in round 1, so: Olivia: history/round 1 “double”; geography/round 4 “piggyback” [1 mark] Olivia must have piggybacked Ben’s $80 in round 4, so: Ben: geography/round 4 “double”; music/round 2 “piggyback” [1 mark] Ben must have piggybacked Toby’s $90 in round 2, and, of the other rounds, only in round 3 is Toby’s amount equal to the greatest amount, so: Toby: music/round 2 “double”; sport/round 3 “piggyback” [1 mark] “Double” must result in a multiple of $10, and only in round 5 is Jodie’s amount equal to the greatest amount, so: Jodie: sport/round 3 “double”; science/round 5 “piggyback” [1 mark]
3 Tickets for next year’s Glastonbourne Music Festival are soon to be released to the general public. They can only be bought by calling the box office, which opens at 8 am on the release date. There are discounted tickets available for the first 100 callers. Sally is keen to buy discounted tickets, and decides to call before 8 am in the hope of being at the front of the queue when the box office opens. She calls at 6 am precisely and is told by an automated message that she is 560th in the queue. She stays on the line, and one minute later she is told that she is 540th. (a) Using this information alone, state when Sally should expect to reach the front of the queue. [1] When Sally reaches the front of the queue, another message informs her that the box office has not opened yet, and that she must try again later. She decides to call again immediately. She assumes that no new people will call the box office, and that everyone else who has already called will also call again immediately after reaching the front of the queue. (b) If this continues until after the box office opens, at what time will Sally be able to buy her tickets? [1] However, when Sally calls for the second time, she is told that she is 588th in the queue. She realises that in fact some new people have called the box office. She assumes that these new callers have joined the queue at a constant rate since her first call. Sally wants to predict, using this new information, when she will be able to buy tickets. She wants to keep her calculations as simple as possible, so she decides to place all her calls precisely at the start of a minute. For example, if she were to arrive at the front of the queue at 7 seconds past 6.49 am, she would place her next call at 6.50 am. If however she were to arrive at 6.49 am exactly, she would place the call immediately, i.e. at 6.49 am. On this basis, Sally predicts that she will be able to buy tickets at 27 seconds past 8.01 am. (c) Show how Sally reached her prediction. [3] Sally wonders if she could avoid waiting unnecessarily in the queue. She uses the information she has so far to work out the best time to call in order to arrive at the front of the queue as soon after 8 am as possible. She will only consider placing the call precisely at the start of a minute. (d) (i) Calculate at what time she should call, and the precise time she will reach the front of the queue. [2] (ii) What is the latest time that she could call and still expect to buy discounted tickets? Show at what time she will arrive at the front of the queue. [2] Sally realises that her assumption that all callers will re-join the queue as soon as they reach the front is unlikely to be realistic. She now assumes that half of the callers will give up and not call again after reaching the front of the queue. So, each time she calls and is told how many people are in the queue, only half of those people will be in the queue the next time she calls. Because of this extra complexity, Sally decides it will be easier for her to rejoin the queue again each time she reaches the front. (e) (i) How many new callers does Sally now calculate are joining the queue every minute? [2] (ii) Will Sally be able to buy discounted tickets? Show what time she should expect to get through to the box office. [4] [Question 4 begins on the next page]
15 marks
Mark scheme: 3(a) 20 people in one minute: 560/20 = 28 minutes. She will reach the front at 1 06:28 am. 3(b) 06:28 – 06:56 – 07:24 – 07:52 – 08:20 1 08:20am 3(c) 3 Time joined Number of people Minutes wait 06:00:00 560 560/20 = 28 06:28:00 588 588/20 = 29.4 06:58:00 618 618/20 = 30.9 07:29:00 649 649/20 = 32.45 She reaches the operator at 08:01:27 AG Award 1 mark for converting 588 into minutes wait or time joined Award 1 mark for 618 seen Award 1 mark for accurate application: implied by sight of 07:29 and 649/20 oe 3(d)(i) Award 2 marks for the correct time (07:28) and the correct time that the front 2 of the queue is reached (08:00:24). If 2 marks cannot be awarded, award 1 mark for either the following: • at 07:28 the queue has 648 people in it, which means a 32.4 minute wait; • at 07:27 the queue has 647 people in it, which means a 32.35 minute wait, arriving at the front at 07:59:21. 3(d)(ii) 100 discounts at 20 per minute suggests that the last ones will go to the 2 caller getting through just before 8.05 am. Joining at 07.33, there will be 653 people in the queue. 653/20 = 32 m 39 s, leading to 08:05:39 seconds: too late. Therefore 07:32 is the latest time, from which she gets to the front at 08:04:36. Award 2 marks for the correct time (07:32) and the correct time that the front of the queue is reached (08:04:36). If 2 marks cannot be awarded, award 1 mark for either of the following: • at 07.32 am the queue has 652 people in it, which means a 32.6 minute wait; • at 07.33 am the queue has 653 people in it, which means a 32.65 minute wait, arriving at the front at 08:05:39. 3(e)(i) Of the 560 callers, only 280 re-join. 2 So 588 – 280 = 308 have joined in the meantime. 308 over 28 minutes: 11 per minute 1 mark for 308 soi 3(e)(ii) 08:03:12 (07:30:00 + 33.2 minutes wait), so Yes 4 If 4 marks cannot be awarded: Award 1 mark for clearly calculating the three components for any case: minutes wait (queue/20), number re-starting (queue/2) and number arriving (minute × (their) 11). Award 1 mark for correctly applying the process iteratively once (implied by 06:28:00 as second time of starting). Award 1 mark for a second iteration applied correctly (implied by either 06:58 or 07:30 AND the number of people in the queue at those times).
4 Strategy is a TV quiz show. Four contestants take part in each edition. Throughout the show every question is presented simultaneously to the contestants, together with four possible answers, A, B, C and D, only one of which is correct. Each contestant has an electronic keypad which allows them to select one of the options. The first part of the show is called Piggyback. It consists of five rounds of 10 questions on specific subjects. Every correct answer selected by a contestant adds $5 to their own prize pot. Before the show begins, the contestants are informed of the five question categories and each of them has to make two strategic decisions: • One category must be nominated “double”. The contestant adds $10 to their prize pot, instead of $5, for every correct answer they select in this round. • A second category must be nominated “piggyback”. The contestant does not take part in this round, but has the same amount of money added to their prize pot for the round as the contestant who adds the most to their prize pot as a result of answering the questions. None of the contestants knows in advance what categories the others have nominated “double” and “piggyback”. This means that a “piggyback” could be worth up to $100 if one or more of the others have nominated the same category “double”. Occasionally all four contestants nominate the same category “piggyback”, in which case the round becomes void and all the piggybacks are wasted. The two contestants with the highest prize pots at the end of Piggyback progress to the second part of the show, called Freeze, taking their prize pots with them. Freeze consists of 10 general knowledge questions. For each question, the first to select an answer freezes the other out of that answer. The other contestant can then choose to pass or select a different answer. During Freeze, every correct answer adds $25 to the contestant’s prize pot, but $10 is deducted for every incorrect answer. A contestant who passes because they have been frozen out of the answer they want to select is not penalized, but if neither contestant selects an answer to a question within 10 seconds, $40 is deducted from both prize pots. The contestant with the higher prize pot at the end of Freeze is the show’s winner and takes their prize pot through to Multiplier, the final part of the show. This consists of 20 general knowledge questions, but with a time limit of only 5 seconds per question. During Multiplier, $20 is deducted from the prize pot for an incorrect answer and $40 is deducted if no answer is selected within 5 seconds. The amount of prize money that the winner takes home is their final prize pot multiplied by the number of correct Multiplier answers. Ben, Jodie, Olivia and Toby were today’s Strategy contestants. The following table details the prize pots they acquired during the Piggyback rounds: Round 1 Round 2 Round 3 Round 4 Round 5 Total History Music Sport Geography Science prize pot Ben $40 $90 $45 $80 $40 $295 Jodie $35 $45 $40 $25 $45 $190 Olivia $80 $40 $35 $80 $45 $280 Toby $35 $90 $45 $35 $35 $240 In Freeze, Olivia was first to select an answer to all but the last of the 10 general knowledge questions. She appeared to make no effort at all to answer the last question. The performances of Ben and Olivia during Freeze are summarized below. Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 Ben pass correct pass incorrect pass pass pass pass correct pass Olivia correct incorrect incorrect correct incorrect correct correct correct incorrect pass Olivia was today’s winner. She went on to answer 12 of the Multiplier questions correctly, but answered 7 incorrectly and failed to answer the other one within the 5-second time limit. (a) What is the largest amount of money that anyone could possibly win on an edition of Strategy? [2] (b) (i) How much was in Ben’s prize pot and how much was in Olivia’s prize pot after today’s ninth Freeze question? [2] (ii) Suggest why Olivia did not attempt to answer the last question. [1] (c) (i) In total, how many questions did Olivia answer correctly today? [2] (ii) How much did Olivia win? [2] (iii) What is the maximum extra amount Olivia could have won if she had selected an answer to the last Freeze question? [2] (d) Deduce which categories were each of today’s four contestants’ “double” and “piggyback” choices. [4]
15 marks
Mark scheme: 4(a) Maximum for Piggyback is 2 × $100 (“double” & “piggyback”) + 3 × $50 = 2 $350 [1 mark] Maximum for Freeze is 10 × $25 = $250 $600 × 20 = $12 000 4(b)(i) Ben’s prize pot: $335 ($295 + 2 × $25 – $10) [1 mark] 2 Olivia’s prize pot: $365 ($280 + 5 × $25 – 4 × $10) [1 mark] 4(b)(ii) If Olivia had selected an incorrect answer and Ben had selected the correct 1 answer, Ben would have won (by $5), whereas not attempting the question was the only way she was guaranteed to win by at least $5. 4(c)(i) In Piggyback, History and Geography must have been her “double” and 2 “piggyback” categories (to be able to add more than $50 to her prize pot). She must have answered 8 questions correctly in one of the two categories and not taken part in the other. Her total number of correct answers in Piggyback was therefore 8 + 8 + 7 + 9 = 32. 32 (in Piggyback) + 5 (in Freeze) + 12 (in Multiplier) = 49 If 2 marks cannot be awarded, award 1 mark for evidence of appreciation that she answered 32 questions correctly in Piggyback OR for an answer of 57 (counting piggyback answers as her own) 4(c)(ii) Her prize pot after the ninth Freeze question was $365, then $325 after she 2 did not attempt the last question. This was reduced by $180 during Multiplier (7 × $20 + 1 × $40) before multiplication by 12. 12 × $145 = $1740 If 2 marks cannot be awarded, award 1 mark for evidence of appreciation that her prize pot was reduced by $180 during Multiplier. 4(c)(iii) If she had answered the last question correctly, $25 would have been added 2 to her prize pot instead of $40 deducted. $65 × 12 = $780 If 2 marks cannot be awarded, award 1 mark for an answer of $300 (which fails to reinstate the deducted $40) OR for sight of $2520 4(d) Any amount over $50 must be due to a “double” or a “piggyback”. Only 4 Olivia recorded over $50 in round 1, so: Olivia: history/round 1 “double”; geography/round 4 “piggyback” [1 mark] Olivia must have piggybacked Ben’s $80 in round 4, so: Ben: geography/round 4 “double”; music/round 2 “piggyback” [1 mark] Ben must have piggybacked Toby’s $90 in round 2, and, of the other rounds, only in round 3 is Toby’s amount equal to the greatest amount, so: Toby: music/round 2 “double”; sport/round 3 “piggyback” [1 mark] “Double” must result in a multiple of $10, and only in round 5 is Jodie’s amount equal to the greatest amount, so: Jodie: sport/round 3 “double”; science/round 5 “piggyback” [1 mark]
3 Leon is an architect and he uses coloured plastic building blocks to help him model new housing developments. Each building block measures 2 cm by 1 cm by 1 cm. He represents a house by building a ‘shell’ which consists only of the four outside walls of a rectangular box (with no floor and no roof). The base of a model of a Type A house measures 8 cm by 4 cm and the walls are 6 cm high. (a) Use a diagram of the shell, seen from above, to show that 60 blocks are needed to model a Type A house. [1] The base of a model of a Type B house measures 5 cm by 5 cm and the walls are 5 cm high. (b) How many building blocks are needed to model a Type B house? [1] In Leon’s model of the housing development, Parklands, each Type A house has a garden adjacent to it with area 16 square centimetres, and each Type B house has a garden adjacent to it with area 10 square centimetres. Red blocks are used to model Type A houses and blue blocks are used to model Type B houses. The gardens are modelled with green building blocks, covering the entire area of the garden. Building blocks are sold in packets of a single colour, in various quantities, as shown in the following table. Number of blocks Cost per packet 50 $6 200 $22 500 $55 (c) What is the least total cost of the blocks needed for 20 Type A houses and 20 Type B houses, each with their garden? [3] Leon has $200 to spend on red blocks. (d) What is the maximum number of Type A houses (without their gardens) that Leon can model with this money? [2] In Leon’s model, 1 square centimetre represents 4 square metres. (e) In the actual development, what will be the area occupied by 20 Type A houses and 20 Type B houses, all with their gardens? [2] In another housing development, Grasslands, Leon introduces a new type of house, Type C. Each Type C model house has a base area of 50 square centimetres and a garden of 50 square centimetres. The actual area of Grasslands is 30 000 square metres. Leon wants there to be as many houses as possible, but regulations require that they must be built in sets of 10: in every set, 5 must be Type A, 4 must be Type B and 1 must be Type C. Any land not occupied by houses and their gardens will be used for car parking. (f) (i) How many houses of each type will there be in Grasslands? [4] (ii) What area of land will be used for car parking in Grasslands? [2]
15 marks
Mark scheme: 3(a) Suitable diagram with suitable calculation. 1 3(b) 8 for base × 5 for height, so 40 1 3(c) Type A house: 60 Red + 8 Green; Type B house: 40 Blue + 5 Green 3 Number of blocks required = 1200 Red, 800 Blue and 260 Green Cost = (2 × $55 + $22) + (4 × $22) + ($22 + 2 × $6) = $254 ft 1 mark for each brick colour, correctly calculated (3 marks, only awarded if correctly summed): Green bricks cost $34 Red bricks cost $132 Blue bricks cost $88 If no marks awarded for brick costs, award 1 mark for calculating the best cost for a specified number of bricks, greater than 500 (Type A = $156 and Type B = $122). 3(d) $200 = 3 × $55 + 1 × $22 + 2 × $6 + $1 2 OR 2 × $55 + 4 × $22 + $2 OR 1 × $55 +6 × $22 + 2 × $6 + $1 OR 9 × $22 + $2 [1] Number of blocks = 1800 so number of Type A houses = 1800/60 = 30 Award 1 mark for 1800 seen without supporting working 3(e) In the model, 2 Area of Type A plot is 8 × 4 + 16 = 48 cm2 (for 192 m2) Area of Type B plot = 5 × 5 + 10 = 35 cm2 (for 140 m2) Area for 20 of each type = 20 × 83 = 1660 cm2 Actual area = 1660 × 4 = 6640 m2 1 mark for 48 or 35 or 192 or 140 or 1660 soi SC: 1 mark for 26560 m2 3(f)(i) Area of 10 houses = 5 × their 48 + 4 × their 35 + 100 = 480 (cm2) [1] 4 Actual area = 4 × their 480 = 1920 (m2) OR available area = 30 000/4 = 7500 (cm2) [1] Divide 30 000 by their 1920 OR 7500 by their 480 (= 15.625) [1] Number of houses must be a whole number, so 15 × 5 = 75 Type A 15 × 4 = 60 Type B 15 × 1 = 15 Type C ft [1] Award final ft if ratio is calculated using the integer part of 30 000/their area for plot of 10 houses. 3(f)(ii) 75 Type A, 60 Type B and 15 Type C have area 1920 × 15 = 28 800 ft [1] 2 Area left for car parking is 30 000 – 28 800 = 1200 square metres ft [1] OR (0.625/15.625) = proportion unused ft [1] × 30 000 = 1200 square metres ft [1]
2 Trains run from Athos to Ethos, stopping at Banta, Chanta and Danter on the way. A researcher has noticed that there is a pattern in the number of people who get on and off at the different stations. • At Banta, twice as many people get on as get off. • At Chanta, one third of the people on the train get off, and then 30 people get on. • At Danter, 10 more people get off than get on. (Where the number of people getting on or off is variable, that number can be 0 and the pattern still holds.) The researcher assumes that this pattern holds for every train that leaves Athos bound for Ethos. At each stop, those people who are getting off the train do so before anyone gets on. All trains are empty before people get on at Athos. On one occasion, 120 people got on the train at Athos and 24 people got on at Banta. (a) How many people were on the train when it arrived at Ethos? [2] (b) (i) What is the greatest number of people who could have made the whole journey from Athos to Ethos? [2] (ii) What is the least number of people who could have made the whole journey from Athos to Ethos? [1] On another occasion, 150 people got on the train at Athos and 150 people arrived at Ethos. (c) How many people got on the train at Banta? [3] On a third occasion, the number of people on the train between Banta and Chanta was equal to the number of people on the train between Chanta and Danter. (d) How many people were on this train when it arrived at Ethos? [2]
10 marks
Mark scheme: 2(a) 120 + (24 – 12) + (30 – 44) – 10 = 108 2 1 mark for correct processing at Banta (132), or ft from error at Banta, or 118. 2(b)(i) 12 of original people get off at Banta, leaving 108A (+ 24B). 2 At Chanta, (44 get off: 24B +) 20A, leaving 88A (+ 0B + 30C) For greatest number of A to arrive at Ethos, none will get off at Danter, so greatest number who travel Athos to Ethos is 88. 1 mark for 88(A) at Danter with subsequent wrong working OR 1 mark for identifying that the limit is when the maximum number of non-As get off at Chanta. ft clear Banta number from (a)–20 2(b)(ii) All the people who started at Athos who are still on the train at Danter can 1 get off at Danter Least number who travel Athos to Ethos is 0 2(c) 130 people on train before people got on at Chanta (150 + 10 – 30) 3 So 130 = two thirds of people arriving at Chanta So 195 people leave Banta and 195 – 150 = 45 is the reduction at Banta. 45 × 2 = 90 people got on the train at Banta 2 marks for 195 seen or 1 mark for 130 seen OR 3/2x to determine arriving at Chanta OR –150 and double to determine arriving at Banta OR 2 x 2 marks for an algebraic statement: 150 + + 30 − 10 = 150 (oe) 3 2 2 OR 1 mark for ( attempt ) + attempt = 150 3 2(d) Number between Chanta and Danter must be equal to (two thirds of this 2 number) + 30, so number = 90 [1] Number at Ethos = (number between Chant and Danta) −10 = 80
3 A local store has started to make and sell cakes alongside its other products. The cakes each require 150 g flour, 200 g sugar and 2 eggs. Flour and sugar each cost 60¢ per kg and eggs cost 20¢ each. The total cost of making an individual cake is the cost of the ingredients plus $3, which covers all the other standing costs. The store owner expected that he would be able to sell 40 cakes each week. At the end of each week, any unsold cakes are thrown away. (a) Show that the total cost to make 40 cakes is $144.40. [2] In the first week he made 40 cakes, which were priced at $5 each. Only 10 of the cakes were sold. When asked, the customers said that this was because the prices were too high. In the second week 40 cakes were made, but the price was reduced to $4.50. (b) What is the smallest number of cakes that would need to be sold so that the total money received for the cakes was higher than in the first week? [2] In fact 20 cakes were sold in the second week. As a result, the store owner assumes that for every 5¢ by which he reduces the price of a cake, an extra customer will buy a cake. The price must always be a multiple of 5¢. (c) If the store owner’s assumption is correct, what is the maximum profit possible if he makes 30 cakes? [2] (d) What number of cakes should the store owner make if he wants to achieve the maximum profit? [4] In the second week (when 20 cakes were sold at $4.50 each) no customer bought more than one cake, but a number of customers commented that they would have bought a second cake if there were a discount available. Based on these comments, the store owner is considering offering a 10% discount to customers who buy two cakes. This discount would apply to both of the cakes. However, no customer would be allowed to buy more than 2 cakes. (e) (i) If all 20 customers in the second week had bought 2 cakes, what profit would the store owner have made? [2] (ii) If this offer had been in place, how many of the customers would have had to have bought a second cake in order for the shopkeeper to make a profit? [3] [Question 4 begins on the next page]
15 marks
Mark scheme: 3(a) Price of ingredients for a cake is 61¢ soi [1] 2 350 g of sugar or flour is 0.35 × $0.60 = $0.21 2 eggs cost $8 ÷ 20 = $0.40 Total is $0.61, so the total cost of making a cake is $3.61. 40 cakes therefore cost $144.40 to make. AG If 2 marks cannot be awarded, award 1 mark for calculating that the cost to make one cake is $3.61 OR at least one of 3.6 4.8 8.4 or 24.40 for 40. 3(b) In the first week the sales amounted to a total of 10 × $5 = $50 [1] 2 At $4.50 each, 11 would amount to $49.50, so 12 is the smallest number to make more money than in the first week. 1 mark for “greater than 11”. 3(c) The cakes would need to be sold at $4 each [1] 2 which means that there would be a profit of $0.39 on each one. 30 × $0.39 = $11.70 ft cost from (a) 3(d) 19 4 Making one extra cake increases the costs by $3.61, but 5¢ is lost from the profit from all of the other cakes that would have been sold. Therefore, for any given number of cakes, the cost of producing one extra can be thought of as $3.61 + $0.05 × the number of cakes. Number of Total cost for Selling price for cakes one extra extra cake 30 $5.11 $3.95 20 $4.61 $4.45 19 $4.56 $4.50 18 $4.51 $4.55 So it is worth making one extra cake when only 18 are made, but not when 19 are made. 19 cakes gives the best profit of $17.86. If four marks cannot be awarded, award one mark for: • Calculating the profit for a particular number of cakes made. • Calculating the profit for a second case. • Calculating another case which improves on the profit from the first case. Alternatively, solutions involving calculus should be rewarded thus: Finding the price (p) as a function of the number of cakes (x): p = 550 – 5x [1] Finding profit π = (189 – 5x)x oe [1] Differentiating and equating to zero or determining mirror line [1] 19 cakes ft their 3.61 from (a) 3(e)(i) The cakes will all be sold at $4.05 2 Profit of 44¢ per cake [1] 40 × $0.44 = $17.60 Alternatively, $4.05 × 40 soi [1] $162 – $144.40 = $17.60 ft their 3.61 from (a) 3(e)(ii) Producing the 40 cakes cost $144.40. 20 cakes at $4.50 will bring in $90, so 3 an extra $54.40 is required. [1] Since both cakes get the 10% discount, the second cakes effectively cost 80% of $4.50, or $3.60. [1] 15 such cakes would produce $54, so 16 customers would need to take advantage of the offer. OR 1 mark for correct calculation of profit when a second cake is bought by a specified number of the 20 customers
4 Linker is an electronic game in which the player tries to score as many points as possible in three minutes by linking from one letter to another successfully. This is the device used to play Linker. From SCORE A B C D E F A FROM TIME B C To TO D A B C E F D E F SET When the SET button is pressed, digits from 0 to 5 appear in the grid, 0 appears in the SCORE display, 3:00 appears in the TIME display and a letter (A, B, C, D, E or F) appears to the right of the grid in the FROM display. As soon as the player presses one of the TO buttons the game begins and a link is made. The time starts to count down towards 0:00 and the relevant number of points are added to the score. The letter on the button that was pressed now appears in the FROM display ready for the next link to be made. This continues until the TIME display shows 0:00. However, if the sequence of letters entered by the player repeats the same three letters in a row, the game is over. Because of the limited time available to make as many links as possible and the threat of causing the game to end prematurely, players often do not try to score the maximum amount available from every link. For example, suppose a player were to be given the following grid and the letter D in the FROM display: From A B C D E F A 1 2 0 4 5 3 B 0 5 1 3 2 4 C 2 3 4 5 0 1 To D 4 0 2 1 3 5 E 3 1 5 0 4 2 F 5 4 3 2 1 0 If the player were to enter, in order, F D B B F C B B B, the links made and points scored would be: From To (D) F = 2 points F D = 5 points D B = 3 points B B = 5 points B F = 4 points F C = 1 point C B = 1 point B B = 5 points B B = 5 points If the player’s next entry were F, they would score another 4 points, but the game would be over because B B F would have occurred twice in the sequence of the player’s entries. Their final score would be 35 points. If the player’s next entry were B, they would score another 5 points, but the game would be over because B B B would have occurred twice in the sequence of the player’s entries. Their final score would be 36 points. (a) Liam is playing a game of Linker. This is his grid. From A B C D E F A 5 3 2 0 4 1 B 0 4 1 5 3 2 C 3 5 0 2 1 4 To D 1 2 3 4 0 5 E 4 0 5 1 2 3 F 2 1 4 3 5 0 His starting letter in the FROM display was B. His third entry was D, which took his score to 14. Since then he has entered, in order, F E F C. (i) What, in order, were his first two entries? [2] (ii) What is his total score at present? [2] [Question 4 continues on the next page] (b) Inga is about to start a game of Linker. This is her grid. From A B C D E F A 2 4 3 1 0 5 B 3 5 0 4 2 1 C 4 2 1 3 5 0 To D 1 0 5 2 4 3 E 5 3 4 0 1 2 F 0 1 2 5 3 4 Her starting letter in the FROM display is A. Her intended strategy is to score 5 points as often as possible, only scoring less when a 5-point link would end the game. Show how Inga can score a total of 47 points for her first ten links, without causing the game to be over. [2] For each game, the grid that appears on the screen is the following grid, or a rotation of it, with each letter from P to U replaced by a different digit from 0 to 5: From A B C D E F A P T R U S Q B R S P Q T U C T Q U S R P To D U R T P Q S E Q P S R U T F S U Q T P R Each version of the grid that appears on the screen has its own grid code, which is shown in a small display on the side of the device. This code consists of the letter P, Q, R or S, indicating the orientation of the grid, followed by the numerical values of P, Q, R, S, T and U, in order. For example, the grid that Liam is playing with has the grid code Q251043. This means that Q is in the top-left corner and P = 2, Q = 5, R = 1, S = 0, T = 4, U = 3. (c) (i) All the possible grid codes are programmed into the device. How many are there? [1] (ii) Write, in order from left to right, the digits of the top row of the grid with the grid code R403215. [2] (iii) What is the grid code for the game that Inga is about to start? [2] (d) When Kerry plays Linker, he always starts by entering A A A D D D very quickly. This often gives him a reasonable score in a very short time before he settles down to give more thought to the rest of the game. On one occasion, however, he did this and scored a total of 1 point only for his first six links. Draw a grid for which entering A A A D D D will result in a total score of 1 point only. State the code for your grid. [4]
15 marks
Mark scheme: 4(a)(i) C F 2 From B, entries C F D score 5 + 4 + 5 = 14. Award 1 mark for any of the following: • B C (from B, entries B C A score 4 + 5 + 5) • C E (from B, entries C E A score 5 + 5 + 4) • E F (from A, entries E F D score 4 + 5 + 5) • F D (from E, entries F D D score 5 + 5 + 4) 4(a)(ii) 29 2 14 + 3 (D to F) + 3 (F to E) + 5 (E to F) + 4 (F to C) Award 1 mark for either of the following answers: • 15, which fails to include the points already scored • 26, which fails to include the link from D to F 4(b) (She can score 47 points by entering) 2 E C D F A E C E C A OR E C D F A E C A E D Award 2 marks for either answer. E C D F A E C is the limit for scoring consecutive 5s (total 35), then either A E D scores 3 + 5 + 4 or E C A scores 4 + 5 + 3. If 2 marks cannot be awarded, award 1 mark for appreciation that (A) E C D F A E must be the first six entries. 4(c)(i) 2880 (4 × 6 × 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1) 1 4(c)(ii) 3, 4, 1, 0, 5, 2 2 If 2 marks cannot be awarded, award 1 mark for one the following: • 4,1,3,5,2,0 (the top row of grid P403215) • 0,5,4,2,1,3 (the top row of grid Q403215) • 2,0,5,1,3,4 (the top row of grid S403215) • 3,1,2,4,5,0 (right-hand column read upwards or R downwards) 4(c)(iii) S540213 2 Consideration of, for instance, the relative positions of the 2s (the digit in the top left corner), the code letter must be S. The top row of 243105 therefore corresponds to SQUTRP. If 2 marks cannot be awarded, award 1 mark for any code beginning with S that contains the digits 0 to 5 once. OR Award 1 mark for one of the following, which only matches the top row of Inga’s grid with the master grid: • P253041 (with 243105 corresponding to PTRUSQ) • Q325104 (with 243105 corresponding to QUPSTR) • R412530 (with 243105 corresponding to RPTQUS) 4(d) The 1 point must have been scored for the link from A to D, so A to A and D 4 to D must score 0. This must be a grid with a grid code of the form P01 or S01. Award 4 marks for any correct grid with a P01 or S01grid code. e.g. A B C D E F A 0 2 3 1 4 5 B 3 4 0 5 2 1 C 2 5 1 4 3 0 D 1 3 2 0 5 4 E 5 0 4 3 1 2 F 4 1 5 2 0 3 If 4 marks cannot be awarded, award 3 marks for any grid with all the 0s and 1s consistent with a P01 or S01grid code (given) and no digit appearing more than once in any column. e.g. A B C D E F A 0 2 3 1 4 5 B 2 4 0 5 3 1 C 3 5 1 4 2 0 D 1 3 2 0 5 4 E 4 0 5 2 1 3 F 5 1 4 3 0 2 If 3 marks cannot be awarded, award 2 marks for any grid with all the 0s and 1s consistent with a P01 or S01grid code, even if code not stated. i.e. (pto) 4(d) A B C D E F A 0 1 B 0 1 C 1 0 D 1 0 E 0 1 F 1 0 or A B C D E F A 0 1 B 0 1 C 0 1 0 D 1 0 E 1 0 F 1 0 If 2 marks cannot be awarded, award 1 mark for valid code seen OR any grid that contains the following: A B C D E F A 0 B C D 1 0 E F
2 Trains run from Athos to Ethos, stopping at Banta, Chanta and Danter on the way. A researcher has noticed that there is a pattern in the number of people who get on and off at the different stations. • At Banta, twice as many people get on as get off. • At Chanta, one third of the people on the train get off, and then 30 people get on. • At Danter, 10 more people get off than get on. (Where the number of people getting on or off is variable, that number can be 0 and the pattern still holds.) The researcher assumes that this pattern holds for every train that leaves Athos bound for Ethos. At each stop, those people who are getting off the train do so before anyone gets on. All trains are empty before people get on at Athos. On one occasion, 120 people got on the train at Athos and 24 people got on at Banta. (a) How many people were on the train when it arrived at Ethos? [2] (b) (i) What is the greatest number of people who could have made the whole journey from Athos to Ethos? [2] (ii) What is the least number of people who could have made the whole journey from Athos to Ethos? [1] On another occasion, 150 people got on the train at Athos and 150 people arrived at Ethos. (c) How many people got on the train at Banta? [3] On a third occasion, the number of people on the train between Banta and Chanta was equal to the number of people on the train between Chanta and Danter. (d) How many people were on this train when it arrived at Ethos? [2]
10 marks
Mark scheme: 2(a) 120 + (24 – 12) + (30 – 44) – 10 = 108 2 1 mark for correct processing at Banta (132), or ft from error at Banta, or 118. 2(b)(i) 12 of original people get off at Banta, leaving 108A (+ 24B). 2 At Chanta, (44 get off: 24B +) 20A, leaving 88A (+ 0B + 30C) For greatest number of A to arrive at Ethos, none will get off at Danter, so greatest number who travel Athos to Ethos is 88. 1 mark for 88(A) at Danter with subsequent wrong working OR 1 mark for identifying that the limit is when the maximum number of non-As get off at Chanta. ft clear Banta number from (a)–20 2(b)(ii) All the people who started at Athos who are still on the train at Danter can 1 get off at Danter Least number who travel Athos to Ethos is 0 2(c) 130 people on train before people got on at Chanta (150 + 10 – 30) 3 So 130 = two thirds of people arriving at Chanta So 195 people leave Banta and 195 – 150 = 45 is the reduction at Banta. 45 × 2 = 90 people got on the train at Banta 2 marks for 195 seen or 1 mark for 130 seen OR 3/2x to determine arriving at Chanta OR –150 and double to determine arriving at Banta OR 2 x 2 marks for an algebraic statement: 150 + + 30 − 10 = 150 (oe) 3 2 2 OR 1 mark for ( attempt ) + attempt = 150 3 2(d) Number between Chanta and Danter must be equal to (two thirds of this 2 number) + 30, so number = 90 [1] Number at Ethos = (number between Chant and Danta) −10 = 80
3 A local store has started to make and sell cakes alongside its other products. The cakes each require 150 g flour, 200 g sugar and 2 eggs. Flour and sugar each cost 60¢ per kg and eggs cost 20¢ each. The total cost of making an individual cake is the cost of the ingredients plus $3, which covers all the other standing costs. The store owner expected that he would be able to sell 40 cakes each week. At the end of each week, any unsold cakes are thrown away. (a) Show that the total cost to make 40 cakes is $144.40. [2] In the first week he made 40 cakes, which were priced at $5 each. Only 10 of the cakes were sold. When asked, the customers said that this was because the prices were too high. In the second week 40 cakes were made, but the price was reduced to $4.50. (b) What is the smallest number of cakes that would need to be sold so that the total money received for the cakes was higher than in the first week? [2] In fact 20 cakes were sold in the second week. As a result, the store owner assumes that for every 5¢ by which he reduces the price of a cake, an extra customer will buy a cake. The price must always be a multiple of 5¢. (c) If the store owner’s assumption is correct, what is the maximum profit possible if he makes 30 cakes? [2] (d) What number of cakes should the store owner make if he wants to achieve the maximum profit? [4] In the second week (when 20 cakes were sold at $4.50 each) no customer bought more than one cake, but a number of customers commented that they would have bought a second cake if there were a discount available. Based on these comments, the store owner is considering offering a 10% discount to customers who buy two cakes. This discount would apply to both of the cakes. However, no customer would be allowed to buy more than 2 cakes. (e) (i) If all 20 customers in the second week had bought 2 cakes, what profit would the store owner have made? [2] (ii) If this offer had been in place, how many of the customers would have had to have bought a second cake in order for the shopkeeper to make a profit? [3] [Question 4 begins on the next page]
15 marks
Mark scheme: 3(a) Price of ingredients for a cake is 61¢ soi [1] 2 350 g of sugar or flour is 0.35 × $0.60 = $0.21 2 eggs cost $8 ÷ 20 = $0.40 Total is $0.61, so the total cost of making a cake is $3.61. 40 cakes therefore cost $144.40 to make. AG If 2 marks cannot be awarded, award 1 mark for calculating that the cost to make one cake is $3.61 OR at least one of 3.6 4.8 8.4 or 24.40 for 40. 3(b) In the first week the sales amounted to a total of 10 × $5 = $50 [1] 2 At $4.50 each, 11 would amount to $49.50, so 12 is the smallest number to make more money than in the first week. 1 mark for “greater than 11”. 3(c) The cakes would need to be sold at $4 each [1] 2 which means that there would be a profit of $0.39 on each one. 30 × $0.39 = $11.70 ft cost from (a) 3(d) 19 4 Making one extra cake increases the costs by $3.61, but 5¢ is lost from the profit from all of the other cakes that would have been sold. Therefore, for any given number of cakes, the cost of producing one extra can be thought of as $3.61 + $0.05 × the number of cakes. Number of Total cost for Selling price for cakes one extra extra cake 30 $5.11 $3.95 20 $4.61 $4.45 19 $4.56 $4.50 18 $4.51 $4.55 So it is worth making one extra cake when only 18 are made, but not when 19 are made. 19 cakes gives the best profit of $17.86. If four marks cannot be awarded, award one mark for: • Calculating the profit for a particular number of cakes made. • Calculating the profit for a second case. • Calculating another case which improves on the profit from the first case. Alternatively, solutions involving calculus should be rewarded thus: Finding the price (p) as a function of the number of cakes (x): p = 550 – 5x [1] Finding profit π = (189 – 5x)x oe [1] Differentiating and equating to zero or determining mirror line [1] 19 cakes ft their 3.61 from (a) 3(e)(i) The cakes will all be sold at $4.05 2 Profit of 44¢ per cake [1] 40 × $0.44 = $17.60 Alternatively, $4.05 × 40 soi [1] $162 – $144.40 = $17.60 ft their 3.61 from (a) 3(e)(ii) Producing the 40 cakes cost $144.40. 20 cakes at $4.50 will bring in $90, so 3 an extra $54.40 is required. [1] Since both cakes get the 10% discount, the second cakes effectively cost 80% of $4.50, or $3.60. [1] 15 such cakes would produce $54, so 16 customers would need to take advantage of the offer. OR 1 mark for correct calculation of profit when a second cake is bought by a specified number of the 20 customers
4 Linker is an electronic game in which the player tries to score as many points as possible in three minutes by linking from one letter to another successfully. This is the device used to play Linker. From SCORE A B C D E F A FROM TIME B C To TO D A B C E F D E F SET When the SET button is pressed, digits from 0 to 5 appear in the grid, 0 appears in the SCORE display, 3:00 appears in the TIME display and a letter (A, B, C, D, E or F) appears to the right of the grid in the FROM display. As soon as the player presses one of the TO buttons the game begins and a link is made. The time starts to count down towards 0:00 and the relevant number of points are added to the score. The letter on the button that was pressed now appears in the FROM display ready for the next link to be made. This continues until the TIME display shows 0:00. However, if the sequence of letters entered by the player repeats the same three letters in a row, the game is over. Because of the limited time available to make as many links as possible and the threat of causing the game to end prematurely, players often do not try to score the maximum amount available from every link. For example, suppose a player were to be given the following grid and the letter D in the FROM display: From A B C D E F A 1 2 0 4 5 3 B 0 5 1 3 2 4 C 2 3 4 5 0 1 To D 4 0 2 1 3 5 E 3 1 5 0 4 2 F 5 4 3 2 1 0 If the player were to enter, in order, F D B B F C B B B, the links made and points scored would be: From To (D) F = 2 points F D = 5 points D B = 3 points B B = 5 points B F = 4 points F C = 1 point C B = 1 point B B = 5 points B B = 5 points If the player’s next entry were F, they would score another 4 points, but the game would be over because B B F would have occurred twice in the sequence of the player’s entries. Their final score would be 35 points. If the player’s next entry were B, they would score another 5 points, but the game would be over because B B B would have occurred twice in the sequence of the player’s entries. Their final score would be 36 points. (a) Liam is playing a game of Linker. This is his grid. From A B C D E F A 5 3 2 0 4 1 B 0 4 1 5 3 2 C 3 5 0 2 1 4 To D 1 2 3 4 0 5 E 4 0 5 1 2 3 F 2 1 4 3 5 0 His starting letter in the FROM display was B. His third entry was D, which took his score to 14. Since then he has entered, in order, F E F C. (i) What, in order, were his first two entries? [2] (ii) What is his total score at present? [2] [Question 4 continues on the next page] (b) Inga is about to start a game of Linker. This is her grid. From A B C D E F A 2 4 3 1 0 5 B 3 5 0 4 2 1 C 4 2 1 3 5 0 To D 1 0 5 2 4 3 E 5 3 4 0 1 2 F 0 1 2 5 3 4 Her starting letter in the FROM display is A. Her intended strategy is to score 5 points as often as possible, only scoring less when a 5-point link would end the game. Show how Inga can score a total of 47 points for her first ten links, without causing the game to be over. [2] For each game, the grid that appears on the screen is the following grid, or a rotation of it, with each letter from P to U replaced by a different digit from 0 to 5: From A B C D E F A P T R U S Q B R S P Q T U C T Q U S R P To D U R T P Q S E Q P S R U T F S U Q T P R Each version of the grid that appears on the screen has its own grid code, which is shown in a small display on the side of the device. This code consists of the letter P, Q, R or S, indicating the orientation of the grid, followed by the numerical values of P, Q, R, S, T and U, in order. For example, the grid that Liam is playing with has the grid code Q251043. This means that Q is in the top-left corner and P = 2, Q = 5, R = 1, S = 0, T = 4, U = 3. (c) (i) All the possible grid codes are programmed into the device. How many are there? [1] (ii) Write, in order from left to right, the digits of the top row of the grid with the grid code R403215. [2] (iii) What is the grid code for the game that Inga is about to start? [2] (d) When Kerry plays Linker, he always starts by entering A A A D D D very quickly. This often gives him a reasonable score in a very short time before he settles down to give more thought to the rest of the game. On one occasion, however, he did this and scored a total of 1 point only for his first six links. Draw a grid for which entering A A A D D D will result in a total score of 1 point only. State the code for your grid. [4]
15 marks
Mark scheme: 4(a)(i) C F 2 From B, entries C F D score 5 + 4 + 5 = 14. Award 1 mark for any of the following: • B C (from B, entries B C A score 4 + 5 + 5) • C E (from B, entries C E A score 5 + 5 + 4) • E F (from A, entries E F D score 4 + 5 + 5) • F D (from E, entries F D D score 5 + 5 + 4) 4(a)(ii) 29 2 14 + 3 (D to F) + 3 (F to E) + 5 (E to F) + 4 (F to C) Award 1 mark for either of the following answers: • 15, which fails to include the points already scored • 26, which fails to include the link from D to F 4(b) (She can score 47 points by entering) 2 E C D F A E C E C A OR E C D F A E C A E D Award 2 marks for either answer. E C D F A E C is the limit for scoring consecutive 5s (total 35), then either A E D scores 3 + 5 + 4 or E C A scores 4 + 5 + 3. If 2 marks cannot be awarded, award 1 mark for appreciation that (A) E C D F A E must be the first six entries. 4(c)(i) 2880 (4 × 6 × 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1) 1 4(c)(ii) 3, 4, 1, 0, 5, 2 2 If 2 marks cannot be awarded, award 1 mark for one the following: • 4,1,3,5,2,0 (the top row of grid P403215) • 0,5,4,2,1,3 (the top row of grid Q403215) • 2,0,5,1,3,4 (the top row of grid S403215) • 3,1,2,4,5,0 (right-hand column read upwards or R downwards) 4(c)(iii) S540213 2 Consideration of, for instance, the relative positions of the 2s (the digit in the top left corner), the code letter must be S. The top row of 243105 therefore corresponds to SQUTRP. If 2 marks cannot be awarded, award 1 mark for any code beginning with S that contains the digits 0 to 5 once. OR Award 1 mark for one of the following, which only matches the top row of Inga’s grid with the master grid: • P253041 (with 243105 corresponding to PTRUSQ) • Q325104 (with 243105 corresponding to QUPSTR) • R412530 (with 243105 corresponding to RPTQUS) 4(d) The 1 point must have been scored for the link from A to D, so A to A and D 4 to D must score 0. This must be a grid with a grid code of the form P01 or S01. Award 4 marks for any correct grid with a P01 or S01grid code. e.g. A B C D E F A 0 2 3 1 4 5 B 3 4 0 5 2 1 C 2 5 1 4 3 0 D 1 3 2 0 5 4 E 5 0 4 3 1 2 F 4 1 5 2 0 3 If 4 marks cannot be awarded, award 3 marks for any grid with all the 0s and 1s consistent with a P01 or S01grid code (given) and no digit appearing more than once in any column. e.g. A B C D E F A 0 2 3 1 4 5 B 2 4 0 5 3 1 C 3 5 1 4 2 0 D 1 3 2 0 5 4 E 4 0 5 2 1 3 F 5 1 4 3 0 2 If 3 marks cannot be awarded, award 2 marks for any grid with all the 0s and 1s consistent with a P01 or S01grid code, even if code not stated. i.e. (pto) 4(d) A B C D E F A 0 1 B 0 1 C 1 0 D 1 0 E 0 1 F 1 0 or A B C D E F A 0 1 B 0 1 C 0 1 0 D 1 0 E 1 0 F 1 0 If 2 marks cannot be awarded, award 1 mark for valid code seen OR any grid that contains the following: A B C D E F A 0 B C D 1 0 E F
2 Birdnest village school educates children for 5 years. All the children from the village of Birdnest attend the school; they are known as Nesters. Children from other villages also attend; they are known as Cuckoos. To get to school, all of the children walk, cycle or travel by car, because there is no school bus available. Each child uses the same method to get home as they do to get to school. There used to be 5 classes, one for each school year, each with 20 children. It was decided that the number of children in the school will be doubled over time, with an extra class of 20 being added each year for 5 consecutive years, starting with the youngest and working up. All the extra children will be Cuckoos. The local residents are concerned about the number of cars that will be parked near the school at the end of the day, and are trying to work out how many to expect. They assume that: • Each car provides transport for one child only. • There is the same total number of Nesters, year after year. • Each school year has the same proportion of Nesters who travel by car. • Each school year has the same proportion of Cuckoos who travel by car. In years before the expansion began, there were consistently 35 cars parked near the school to collect children at the end of the day. During the first year of the expansion, however, this number increased to 45. (a) How many cars would be parked near the school once the expansion was complete? [1] (b) (i) What proportion of Cuckoos travel by car? [1] (ii) How many Nesters would you conclude were at the school, if you assumed that none of the Nesters travel by car? [1] In fact, some of the Nesters do travel by car. At the beginning of the second year of expansion, it was agreed that all the Nesters in the final year would walk or cycle. As a result, there were 52 cars parked near the school during the second year. (c) How many Nesters are there at the school? [3] At the beginning of the third year of expansion, all final year children, both Nesters and Cuckoos, were told that they must walk or cycle to school. (d) How many cars were parked near the school during the third year of expansion? [2] This policy was continued during the fourth year of the expansion. However, the local residents noticed what they considered to be a large increase in the number of cars parked near the school. They suggested that, during the fifth year of expansion, all the Nesters at the school should walk or cycle, but that no restrictions should be imposed on the Cuckoos. (e) Would this suggested change have resulted in fewer cars being parked near the school than there would have been otherwise? Provide figures to support your answer. [2]
10 marks
Mark scheme: 2(a) An increase of 10 each year would result in a total of 35 + 5 × 10 = 85. 1 2(b)(i) An extra 20 Cuckoos resulted in an extra 10 cars, so 50%. 1 2(b)(ii) If all 35 cars in year zero are from Cuckoos, there are 70 Cuckoos before 1 the expansion. Thus there would be 5 × 20 – 70 = 30. 2(c) Stopping fourth year children resulted in 55 – 52 = 3 fewer cars than with no 3 change, so 3 fifth year Nesters no longer coming by car. [1] This means there were originally 15 Nesters coming by car and 20 outsiders. [1] Hence Cuckoos were 40 of the children. The remaining 60 would be Nesters. [1] 2(d) Half of Cuckoos and quarter of Nesters come by car, but only those not in 2 the last year. The expansion of Cuckoos hasn’t reached the final year yet, so 32 + 60 Cuckoos not in last year. 12 + 46 = 58 1 mark for first step of method: number of Nesters (48) OR Cuckoos (92) not in final year OR 1 mark for method to find number of cars used by those in their final year (N/4 + C/2) SC: 1 mark for 62 (= 12 + 50), ignoring proportion of Cuckoos in last school year Alternatively: There would be 10 extra cars, but 4 final year Cuckoos no longer drive, so 52 + 6 = 58 2(e) There would be 68 cars in both the fourth and fifth year (since the 20 2 Cuckoos from the first year would now reach their last year.) But, if any Cuckoos could come by car, half of the 140, i.e. 70 would, so this is not fewer. 1 mark for 68 or 70 seen. Year of 0 1 2 3 4 5 expansion Nesters 60 60 60 60 60 60 Cuckoos 40 60 80 100 120 140 Cuckoos not in 32 52 72 92 112 112 final year Nesters by car 15 15 12 12 12 12 Cuckoos by 20 30 40 46 56 56 car Total cars 35 45 52 58 68 68
3 Jaspreet owns a business making suits to order – he only makes the suits once a customer has ordered them. Customers can order any number of pairs of trousers, jackets and waistcoats at the following prices: Pair of trousers $40 Jacket $85 Waistcoat $50 If a jacket is bought with a pair of trousers, the price is reduced by $10, meaning that the two items together cost just $115. Last Monday morning Roger ordered two pairs of trousers and one jacket. (a) What was the total price of this order? [1] Jaspreet does not make any of the items himself, but employs two tailors, Harry and Joe, for this. Each of them works for a total of 8 hours each day from Monday to Friday. Only one tailor can work on any one item at any time. When one item is finished the tailor will immediately start work on another, if there are more items still to be made. Each tailor takes a total of 10 hours to make a pair of trousers, 20 hours to make a jacket and 15 hours to make a waistcoat. Each item must be entirely made by one tailor. The tailors were able to start working on Roger’s order at the start of work on Tuesday. Their work was planned so that the order would be completed as quickly as possible. (b) On which day was the order completed? [1] (c) What is the maximum total price of an order that the two tailors would be able to complete within four working days, if they had no other work needing to be done? [3] Priya is organising a large event and wants to know how long an order would take to be completed. The order would be for 5 pairs of trousers, 7 jackets and 3 waistcoats. (d) What is the minimum number of hours in which the work on this order could be completed? Suggest a set of items that each tailor should make. [3] Customers come into Jaspreet’s shop and are measured for the items that they want. He then tells them which day they can come to collect their items. On Monday morning this week, both of the tailors still had work to do on orders from last week. Harry had 4 hours of work left on a waistcoat, while Joe had 3 hours left to work on a jacket. Following this there were two further orders to be completed, the details of which are below: Order Collection day 1 pair of trousers Wednesday 1 waistcoat Friday 1 pair of trousers A customer urgently needs a jacket, a waistcoat and pair of trousers for an event this weekend and asked on Monday morning if his order can be completed to collect on Friday, at the end of the working day. Both of the tailors are willing to work for more hours this week. (e) How many extra hours would Jaspreet need to ask the tailors to work in order to get the order ready to collect before the end of normal working hours on Friday, without completing either of the other orders late? Suggest a set of items that each tailor should make. [3] (f) How many extra hours would be needed to complete the orders on time if Harry was unable to work any extra hours? [1] If an order is not ready on the agreed collection day, Jaspreet reduces the price by 20%. The reduction increases by an additional 10% for each extra weekday that the order is late, as compensation. For example, if an order for which the agreed collection day was Thursday is not ready until Monday, the price will be reduced by 30%. Jaspreet has decided that he will not pay for any additional hours of work from the tailors, but he will make sure that the urgent order is completed by Friday. (g) If he allocates the work in the best possible way, how much money will he lose? [3]
15 marks
Mark scheme: 3(a) Trousers bought with jacket: $115 1 Additional pair of trousers: $40 Total price = $155 3(b) The quickest way to complete the order is for one tailor to make the jacket 1 (20 hours) and one tailor to make the trousers (20 hours in total). Therefore 20 hours are needed in total. 16 hours of work will be completed on Tuesday and Wednesday, so the items will be ready on Thursday. 3(c) Four working days is a total of 32 hours, so each tailor can make either 3 3 pairs of trousers ($120 each, so $240) 1 pair of trousers and 1 jacket ($125 – discount $10 each, so $230) 2 waistcoats ($100 each, so $200) The maximum total price would be $240. If 3 marks cannot be awarded, award 1 mark for (max 2): calculating the income per hour for two of the three items ($4, $4.25, $3.33) OR correctly calculating one of the three options above (120/240, 125/250, 100/200) correctly applying the discount (115/230) SC: 2 marks for an answer of $250 for 1 trousers and 1 jacket (forgetting the discount) OR an answer of $120 (forgetting there are two tailors) 3(d) The total time for the order is 5 × 10 + 7 × 20 + 3 × 15 = 235 hours. [1] 3 This means that the shortest time is 120 hours. [1] One way to achieve this would be for Harry to do 6 jackets and Joe to do 5 trousers, 1 jacket and 3 waistcoats Alternative: Harry does 1 trouser, 4 jackets and 2 waistcoats, and Joe does 4 trouser, 3 jacket and 1 waistcoat [1] 3(e) The total time needed for completing the orders is 7 hours for the order that 3 is still in progress, 10 hours, 25 hours and 45 hours for the other three orders, making a total of 87 hours for all of the work. [1] There is a total of 2 × 5 × 8 = 80 hours available if no extra hours are worked, so 7 extra hours will be needed. [1] If Harry is given 40 hours from the three orders (so that he has 4 extra hours), this will leave Joe with 3 extra hours. For example, Harry could be allocated two pairs of trousers followed by the jacket, and Joe the two waistcoats and a pair of trousers. [1] Alternatively, for solutions using scheduling: A schedule which allows for the non-urgent orders to be completed on time. [1] A schedule in which both tailors are occupied for the full 40 hours of the normal week. [1] Answer of 7 hours. [1] 3(f) If Harry can’t work any extra hours then he needs to have work allocated 1 that gets him as close as possible to his 40 hours. After he has completed the 4 hours to finish the waistcoat he can be allocated 35 hours of work to make a total of 39 in the week. 8 extra hours will be needed. 3(g) Since there are 7 hours more work needed than are available by the end of 3 the week, one of the orders must be completed on Monday. Delaying any one order to be finished on Monday will allow the others to be completed on time. [1] The order that is due on Wednesday would need a 40% reduction. The discount would be $16. The order that is due on Friday would need a 20% reduction. The discount would be $18. [1 for the value of either discount] The best option involves losing $16.
4 David is trying to work out the bonuses that he will pay to his employees for their work over the past six months. The city in which they work is divided into four zones and each of the employees works in just one of the zones. The sales made by each employee in each month are shown in the table below. Sales Total Employee Zone sales Jan Feb Mar Apr May Jun Anna North 13 10 12 20 12 13 80 Carol East 16 12 20 19 14 14 95 Frank East 9 15 13 17 21 17 92 John South 5 8 4 13 5 1 36 Martin North 18 11 18 12 18 22 99 Oliver West 10 18 14 11 17 16 86 Rachel South 7 8 11 9 9 9 53 Tanya West 11 14 16 15 20 9 85 (a) In which zone have the most sales taken place? [1] Bonuses have already been paid at the end of each month according to the following rules: • The employee with the highest number of sales in the month receives $150 • The employee with the second-highest receives $50 (There has never been a tie, but if there were, David would decide what to do.) (b) How much has Carol already received in bonuses from the first six months? [2] David is aware that the South zone is a more difficult one to make sales in and so wants to alter the way in which he pays bonuses to reflect this. He has decided to allocate different numbers of points to sales in each of the zones based on the difficulty of making sales. The points are awarded for the sales in any one month. Points per sale Zone Sales Sales Sales Sales 1–10 11–15 16–20 21+ North 1 1 1 1 East 1 1 1 2 South 2 2 3 5 West 1 2 2 3 So, for example, in the East zone sales are worth one point each for the first 20 sales and then any further sales are worth 2 points each. David is going to use this system to award additional bonuses for the past six months. (c) How many points were Tanya’s sales in May worth? [2] The total number of points awarded over the six months is calculated. Each employee receives a bonus of $100 for every point above 100 that they have earned. This bonus is in addition to the monthly bonuses that have already been awarded. (d) Which employees will receive bonuses based on their points scores, and how much will each bonus be? [4] Some of the employees suggest that it would be better if all the monthly bonuses were cancelled and the bonuses were instead calculated every three months. They suggest that the number of points for each of the three months should be added up and a bonus of $100 awarded for every point above 50. Had this system applied to the first six months, the bonuses would have been calculated based on the periods Jan–Mar and Apr–Jun. (e) How would Martin’s total bonus for the six months have changed if the employees’ proposed new system were in place? [3] David decides to adopt the employees’ proposed new system for bonuses. Oliver wishes to earn a bonus of at least $1000 for the next three months. He sets himself a target number of sales per month, so that if he achieves this number in each of the three months, he will get the bonus he wants. John also wishes to earn a bonus of at least $1000 for the next three months, and adopts the same strategy as Oliver. (f) How many more sales per month will Oliver need to make than John, if they both set the lowest target that they can? [3]
15 marks
Mark scheme: 4(a) North: 80 + 99 = 179 1 East: 95 + 92 = 187 South: 36 + 53 = 89 West: 86 + 85 = 171 The most sales took place in East zone 4(b) Carol had the highest sales in Mar 2 and the second highest sales in Jan and Apr Total bonuses were 2 × $50 + $150 = $250 1 mark for an answer showing an incorrect judgement for ONE of Carol’s monthly bonuses: e.g. 50 + 150 = $200 or 50 + 50 + 50 + 150 = $300. 4(c) Tanya works in the West zone, so the first 10 sales are worth 10 points in 2 total. [1] The remaining 10 sales are worth 2 points each, so the total is 30 SC: 1 mark for 40 or ‘2 each’ 4(d) Neither North zone employee will receive any bonus 4 Neither East zone employee will receive any bonus In the South zone all sales were worth 2 points, so Rachel will have a bonus of $600 and John will not get a bonus. In the West zone, both employees will receive bonuses. Bonuses will be awarded to Rachel, Oliver and Tanya [1] (dependent on no others identified) Rachel had a bonus of $600 [1] Oliver had a bonus of $1200 [1] Tanya had a bonus of $1100 [1] SC: 1 mark for identification that North and East zone employees do not receive bonuses; may be implied by correct points totals for A, C, F and M seen. 4(e) Martin would have received bonuses for most sales in 2 of the months and 3 second highest in 1 of the months, which would have been $350. He would not have received any bonuses from the points. Therefore his total bonus in the old system was $350. [1] Under the new system, Martin would have earned 47 points in the first three months and then 52 points in the second three months, so would receive no bonus for the first three months and $200 in the second three months. [1] Martin’s total bonus would be $150 less. 4(f) A bonus of $1000 requires a total of 60 points for the three month period. 3 Since Oliver is in the West zone he would achieve 30 points from 10 sales every month and would only need an additional 5 sales per month (at 2 points each) to reach 60 points. Oliver’s minimum target would be 15 sales per month. [1] Since John is in the South zone he can achieve 60 points by making 10 sales per month (at 2 points each). [1] Oliver would need to make 5 sales more per month than John. SC: 2marks for 15 difference in total sales (rather than number per month)
3 The Järnvägar Railway Company wants to build a level line between Vänster and Höger. In some places the land is higher than the required level and so the rock will have to be cut away to form a ‘cutting’. In other places the land is lower and will need rock to build up an ‘embankment’. The planners intend to use rock from the cuttings to provide the rock for the embankments. Any excess rock that is not needed will be discarded by putting it where there is an embankment, making it wider than necessary; but they will not make the cuttings wider than required. They have produced a model that splits the route into 13 sections of equal length. The amount of rock that needs to be cut or built up in each section is represented by a discrete number of blocks, as shown below. The end sections VU and JH are in the towns; these sections cannot be used for discarding excess rock, but blocks can be stored there temporarily. V U T S R Q P O N M L K J H 0 2 2 –1 –2 –3 2 2 2 –2 1 1 0 4 2 0 –2 –4 (a) How many more blocks than they need are there? [1] The original plan was to build from one end, using the partially-completed railway to move blocks around. For example, if they started at Vänster, they could: • build the railway in VU • move the 2 blocks from UT to VU for temporary storage and build the railway in UT • move the 2 blocks from TS to UT for temporary storage and build the railway in TS • move 1 block from UT to make the embankment for SR and build the railway in SR The planners write these movements using the following notation: V U T S R Q P O N M L K J H 0 2 2 –1 –2 –3 2 2 2 –2 1 1 0 2 0 2 UT → VU 2 0 2 TS → UT 1 0 1 UT → SR (b) (i) Explain why this method would not work from Vänster. [1] (ii) Explain how this method would work from Höger. [2] The planners realise that, if they started from one of the positions U to J, it would be possible to complete the railway without needing to store any blocks temporarily. (c) (i) Which position is it? [1] (ii) Using the planners’ notation, show how it can be done. [3] It costs $1000 to move one block one sector. (d) Find the cost of your method in part (c). [1] The planners have been instructed to move the blocks in the cheapest way, so they decide to use trucks instead of the partially-completed railway: the cost is the same, but the trucks are not constrained to working on level ground where part of the railway has already been built. (e) Find a method that is as cheap as possible. Use the planners’ notation to show your solution. [4] The planners consider selling the excess rock to the construction industry in the two towns. They will move the rock to VU and/or JH where it will be sold for $350 per block. (f) By how much will this reduce the overall cost of building the railway? [2]
15 marks
2 Birdnest village school educates children for 5 years. All the children from the village of Birdnest attend the school; they are known as Nesters. Children from other villages also attend; they are known as Cuckoos. To get to school, all of the children walk, cycle or travel by car, because there is no school bus available. Each child uses the same method to get home as they do to get to school. There used to be 5 classes, one for each school year, each with 20 children. It was decided that the number of children in the school will be doubled over time, with an extra class of 20 being added each year for 5 consecutive years, starting with the youngest and working up. All the extra children will be Cuckoos. The local residents are concerned about the number of cars that will be parked near the school at the end of the day, and are trying to work out how many to expect. They assume that: • Each car provides transport for one child only. • There is the same total number of Nesters, year after year. • Each school year has the same proportion of Nesters who travel by car. • Each school year has the same proportion of Cuckoos who travel by car. In years before the expansion began, there were consistently 35 cars parked near the school to collect children at the end of the day. During the first year of the expansion, however, this number increased to 45. (a) How many cars would be parked near the school once the expansion was complete? [1] (b) (i) What proportion of Cuckoos travel by car? [1] (ii) How many Nesters would you conclude were at the school, if you assumed that none of the Nesters travel by car? [1] In fact, some of the Nesters do travel by car. At the beginning of the second year of expansion, it was agreed that all the Nesters in the final year would walk or cycle. As a result, there were 52 cars parked near the school during the second year. (c) How many Nesters are there at the school? [3] At the beginning of the third year of expansion, all final year children, both Nesters and Cuckoos, were told that they must walk or cycle to school. (d) How many cars were parked near the school during the third year of expansion? [2] This policy was continued during the fourth year of the expansion. However, the local residents noticed what they considered to be a large increase in the number of cars parked near the school. They suggested that, during the fifth year of expansion, all the Nesters at the school should walk or cycle, but that no restrictions should be imposed on the Cuckoos. (e) Would this suggested change have resulted in fewer cars being parked near the school than there would have been otherwise? Provide figures to support your answer. [2]
10 marks
Mark scheme: 2(a) An increase of 10 each year would result in a total of 35 + 5 × 10 = 85. 1 2(b)(i) An extra 20 Cuckoos resulted in an extra 10 cars, so 50%. 1 2(b)(ii) If all 35 cars in year zero are from Cuckoos, there are 70 Cuckoos before 1 the expansion. Thus there would be 5 × 20 – 70 = 30. 2(c) Stopping fourth year children resulted in 55 – 52 = 3 fewer cars than with no 3 change, so 3 fifth year Nesters no longer coming by car. [1] This means there were originally 15 Nesters coming by car and 20 outsiders. [1] Hence Cuckoos were 40 of the children. The remaining 60 would be Nesters. [1] 2(d) Half of Cuckoos and quarter of Nesters come by car, but only those not in 2 the last year. The expansion of Cuckoos hasn’t reached the final year yet, so 32 + 60 Cuckoos not in last year. 12 + 46 = 58 1 mark for first step of method: number of Nesters (48) OR Cuckoos (92) not in final year OR 1 mark for method to find number of cars used by those in their final year (N/4 + C/2) SC: 1 mark for 62 (= 12 + 50), ignoring proportion of Cuckoos in last school year Alternatively: There would be 10 extra cars, but 4 final year Cuckoos no longer drive, so 52 + 6 = 58 2(e) There would be 68 cars in both the fourth and fifth year (since the 20 2 Cuckoos from the first year would now reach their last year.) But, if any Cuckoos could come by car, half of the 140, i.e. 70 would, so this is not fewer. 1 mark for 68 or 70 seen. Year of 0 1 2 3 4 5 expansion Nesters 60 60 60 60 60 60 Cuckoos 40 60 80 100 120 140 Cuckoos not in 32 52 72 92 112 112 final year Nesters by car 15 15 12 12 12 12 Cuckoos by 20 30 40 46 56 56 car Total cars 35 45 52 58 68 68
3 Jaspreet owns a business making suits to order – he only makes the suits once a customer has ordered them. Customers can order any number of pairs of trousers, jackets and waistcoats at the following prices: Pair of trousers $40 Jacket $85 Waistcoat $50 If a jacket is bought with a pair of trousers, the price is reduced by $10, meaning that the two items together cost just $115. Last Monday morning Roger ordered two pairs of trousers and one jacket. (a) What was the total price of this order? [1] Jaspreet does not make any of the items himself, but employs two tailors, Harry and Joe, for this. Each of them works for a total of 8 hours each day from Monday to Friday. Only one tailor can work on any one item at any time. When one item is finished the tailor will immediately start work on another, if there are more items still to be made. Each tailor takes a total of 10 hours to make a pair of trousers, 20 hours to make a jacket and 15 hours to make a waistcoat. Each item must be entirely made by one tailor. The tailors were able to start working on Roger’s order at the start of work on Tuesday. Their work was planned so that the order would be completed as quickly as possible. (b) On which day was the order completed? [1] (c) What is the maximum total price of an order that the two tailors would be able to complete within four working days, if they had no other work needing to be done? [3] Priya is organising a large event and wants to know how long an order would take to be completed. The order would be for 5 pairs of trousers, 7 jackets and 3 waistcoats. (d) What is the minimum number of hours in which the work on this order could be completed? Suggest a set of items that each tailor should make. [3] Customers come into Jaspreet’s shop and are measured for the items that they want. He then tells them which day they can come to collect their items. On Monday morning this week, both of the tailors still had work to do on orders from last week. Harry had 4 hours of work left on a waistcoat, while Joe had 3 hours left to work on a jacket. Following this there were two further orders to be completed, the details of which are below: Order Collection day 1 pair of trousers Wednesday 1 waistcoat Friday 1 pair of trousers A customer urgently needs a jacket, a waistcoat and pair of trousers for an event this weekend and asked on Monday morning if his order can be completed to collect on Friday, at the end of the working day. Both of the tailors are willing to work for more hours this week. (e) How many extra hours would Jaspreet need to ask the tailors to work in order to get the order ready to collect before the end of normal working hours on Friday, without completing either of the other orders late? Suggest a set of items that each tailor should make. [3] (f) How many extra hours would be needed to complete the orders on time if Harry was unable to work any extra hours? [1] If an order is not ready on the agreed collection day, Jaspreet reduces the price by 20%. The reduction increases by an additional 10% for each extra weekday that the order is late, as compensation. For example, if an order for which the agreed collection day was Thursday is not ready until Monday, the price will be reduced by 30%. Jaspreet has decided that he will not pay for any additional hours of work from the tailors, but he will make sure that the urgent order is completed by Friday. (g) If he allocates the work in the best possible way, how much money will he lose? [3]
15 marks
Mark scheme: 3(a) Trousers bought with jacket: $115 1 Additional pair of trousers: $40 Total price = $155 3(b) The quickest way to complete the order is for one tailor to make the jacket 1 (20 hours) and one tailor to make the trousers (20 hours in total). Therefore 20 hours are needed in total. 16 hours of work will be completed on Tuesday and Wednesday, so the items will be ready on Thursday. 3(c) Four working days is a total of 32 hours, so each tailor can make either 3 3 pairs of trousers ($120 each, so $240) 1 pair of trousers and 1 jacket ($125 – discount $10 each, so $230) 2 waistcoats ($100 each, so $200) The maximum total price would be $240. If 3 marks cannot be awarded, award 1 mark for (max 2): calculating the income per hour for two of the three items ($4, $4.25, $3.33) OR correctly calculating one of the three options above (120/240, 125/250, 100/200) correctly applying the discount (115/230) SC: 2 marks for an answer of $250 for 1 trousers and 1 jacket (forgetting the discount) OR an answer of $120 (forgetting there are two tailors) 3(d) The total time for the order is 5 × 10 + 7 × 20 + 3 × 15 = 235 hours. [1] 3 This means that the shortest time is 120 hours. [1] One way to achieve this would be for Harry to do 6 jackets and Joe to do 5 trousers, 1 jacket and 3 waistcoats Alternative: Harry does 1 trouser, 4 jackets and 2 waistcoats, and Joe does 4 trouser, 3 jacket and 1 waistcoat [1] 3(e) The total time needed for completing the orders is 7 hours for the order that 3 is still in progress, 10 hours, 25 hours and 45 hours for the other three orders, making a total of 87 hours for all of the work. [1] There is a total of 2 × 5 × 8 = 80 hours available if no extra hours are worked, so 7 extra hours will be needed. [1] If Harry is given 40 hours from the three orders (so that he has 4 extra hours), this will leave Joe with 3 extra hours. For example, Harry could be allocated two pairs of trousers followed by the jacket, and Joe the two waistcoats and a pair of trousers. [1] Alternatively, for solutions using scheduling: A schedule which allows for the non-urgent orders to be completed on time. [1] A schedule in which both tailors are occupied for the full 40 hours of the normal week. [1] Answer of 7 hours. [1] 3(f) If Harry can’t work any extra hours then he needs to have work allocated 1 that gets him as close as possible to his 40 hours. After he has completed the 4 hours to finish the waistcoat he can be allocated 35 hours of work to make a total of 39 in the week. 8 extra hours will be needed. 3(g) Since there are 7 hours more work needed than are available by the end of 3 the week, one of the orders must be completed on Monday. Delaying any one order to be finished on Monday will allow the others to be completed on time. [1] The order that is due on Wednesday would need a 40% reduction. The discount would be $16. The order that is due on Friday would need a 20% reduction. The discount would be $18. [1 for the value of either discount] The best option involves losing $16.
4 David is trying to work out the bonuses that he will pay to his employees for their work over the past six months. The city in which they work is divided into four zones and each of the employees works in just one of the zones. The sales made by each employee in each month are shown in the table below. Sales Total Employee Zone sales Jan Feb Mar Apr May Jun Anna North 13 10 12 20 12 13 80 Carol East 16 12 20 19 14 14 95 Frank East 9 15 13 17 21 17 92 John South 5 8 4 13 5 1 36 Martin North 18 11 18 12 18 22 99 Oliver West 10 18 14 11 17 16 86 Rachel South 7 8 11 9 9 9 53 Tanya West 11 14 16 15 20 9 85 (a) In which zone have the most sales taken place? [1] Bonuses have already been paid at the end of each month according to the following rules: • The employee with the highest number of sales in the month receives $150 • The employee with the second-highest receives $50 (There has never been a tie, but if there were, David would decide what to do.) (b) How much has Carol already received in bonuses from the first six months? [2] David is aware that the South zone is a more difficult one to make sales in and so wants to alter the way in which he pays bonuses to reflect this. He has decided to allocate different numbers of points to sales in each of the zones based on the difficulty of making sales. The points are awarded for the sales in any one month. Points per sale Zone Sales Sales Sales Sales 1–10 11–15 16–20 21+ North 1 1 1 1 East 1 1 1 2 South 2 2 3 5 West 1 2 2 3 So, for example, in the East zone sales are worth one point each for the first 20 sales and then any further sales are worth 2 points each. David is going to use this system to award additional bonuses for the past six months. (c) How many points were Tanya’s sales in May worth? [2] The total number of points awarded over the six months is calculated. Each employee receives a bonus of $100 for every point above 100 that they have earned. This bonus is in addition to the monthly bonuses that have already been awarded. (d) Which employees will receive bonuses based on their points scores, and how much will each bonus be? [4] Some of the employees suggest that it would be better if all the monthly bonuses were cancelled and the bonuses were instead calculated every three months. They suggest that the number of points for each of the three months should be added up and a bonus of $100 awarded for every point above 50. Had this system applied to the first six months, the bonuses would have been calculated based on the periods Jan–Mar and Apr–Jun. (e) How would Martin’s total bonus for the six months have changed if the employees’ proposed new system were in place? [3] David decides to adopt the employees’ proposed new system for bonuses. Oliver wishes to earn a bonus of at least $1000 for the next three months. He sets himself a target number of sales per month, so that if he achieves this number in each of the three months, he will get the bonus he wants. John also wishes to earn a bonus of at least $1000 for the next three months, and adopts the same strategy as Oliver. (f) How many more sales per month will Oliver need to make than John, if they both set the lowest target that they can? [3]
15 marks
Mark scheme: 4(a) North: 80 + 99 = 179 1 East: 95 + 92 = 187 South: 36 + 53 = 89 West: 86 + 85 = 171 The most sales took place in East zone 4(b) Carol had the highest sales in Mar 2 and the second highest sales in Jan and Apr Total bonuses were 2 × $50 + $150 = $250 1 mark for an answer showing an incorrect judgement for ONE of Carol’s monthly bonuses: e.g. 50 + 150 = $200 or 50 + 50 + 50 + 150 = $300. 4(c) Tanya works in the West zone, so the first 10 sales are worth 10 points in 2 total. [1] The remaining 10 sales are worth 2 points each, so the total is 30 SC: 1 mark for 40 or ‘2 each’ 4(d) Neither North zone employee will receive any bonus 4 Neither East zone employee will receive any bonus In the South zone all sales were worth 2 points, so Rachel will have a bonus of $600 and John will not get a bonus. In the West zone, both employees will receive bonuses. Bonuses will be awarded to Rachel, Oliver and Tanya [1] (dependent on no others identified) Rachel had a bonus of $600 [1] Oliver had a bonus of $1200 [1] Tanya had a bonus of $1100 [1] SC: 1 mark for identification that North and East zone employees do not receive bonuses; may be implied by correct points totals for A, C, F and M seen. 4(e) Martin would have received bonuses for most sales in 2 of the months and 3 second highest in 1 of the months, which would have been $350. He would not have received any bonuses from the points. Therefore his total bonus in the old system was $350. [1] Under the new system, Martin would have earned 47 points in the first three months and then 52 points in the second three months, so would receive no bonus for the first three months and $200 in the second three months. [1] Martin’s total bonus would be $150 less. 4(f) A bonus of $1000 requires a total of 60 points for the three month period. 3 Since Oliver is in the West zone he would achieve 30 points from 10 sales every month and would only need an additional 5 sales per month (at 2 points each) to reach 60 points. Oliver’s minimum target would be 15 sales per month. [1] Since John is in the South zone he can achieve 60 points by making 10 sales per month (at 2 points each). [1] Oliver would need to make 5 sales more per month than John. SC: 2marks for 15 difference in total sales (rather than number per month)
2 Joshua is a taxi driver who is considering working only on Fridays, doing a 12-hour shift from 08:00 to 20:00. He is permitted to collect passengers from the railway station only. He collects a passenger, drives them to their destination, and returns to the station to collect the next passenger. For each journey Joshua plans to charge a fixed fare of $2, plus $1 per kilometre of journey distance from the railway station to the passenger’s destination. His fuel costs are $0.20 per kilometre that he drives his taxi (including the return journey to the station). His profit for that passenger is the difference between the fare he charges and his fuel costs. (a) Show that Joshua’s profit for a journey distance of 10 km will be $8. [1] (b) For what journey distance would Joshua make a profit of $14? [2] Joshua wants to estimate how much profit he will make in one 12-hour shift. He assumes an average journey distance of 10 km and an average speed of 40 km/h. He ignores the time taken for passengers getting in and out of the taxi and assumes that there are always passengers waiting at the station. (c) How much profit does Joshua estimate for a 12-hour shift? [2] (d) Would Joshua estimate more profit or less profit if he assumed an average journey distance of 20 km instead of 10 km? Justify your answer. [1] Joshua assumes an average journey distance of 10 km. (e) What average speed would Joshua have to assume in order to make a total profit of $240 per shift? [2] The price of fuel increases from $0.20 per km to $0.25 per km. Joshua wants to make the same profit as he would have done before the increase. He does not want to change his fixed fare of $2, so will adjust his charge per kilometre instead. He continues to assume an average journey distance of 10 km and average speed of 40 km/h. (f) How much will Joshua need to charge per kilometre? [2]
10 marks
Mark scheme: 2(a) Income = ($2 + 10 × $1 =) $12. Cost = 10 × 2 × $0.2 = $4. 1 Difference = $8 AG 2(b) A profit of $14 would require a journey distance of (14 – 2)/0.6 = 20 km 2 1 mark for $0.60 soi Trial & Improvement approach: a correct calculation for a distance greater than 10km, and an improvement attempt [1] 2(c) The average number of jobs per hour will be 40/(2 × 10) = 2, so he 2 estimates that he will do 12 × 2 = 24 during his shift. So he will make a profit of 24 × 8 = $192. Award 1 for 24 journeys OR for a correct hourly profit of $16. 2(d) He will be able to complete 12 trips at $14 profit each, so will only make 1 $168. This is less than $192. OR His hourly profit will drop from $16 to $14. OR Longer journeys means fewer fixed fares oe 2(e) A total profit per shift of $240 corresponds to 30 journeys earning $8 per 2 journey. This is 600 km, so he will need to travel at 50 km/h. OR A total profit per shift of $240 corresponds to an hourly profit of $20. To achieve this, an average speed of 20/16 × 40 = 50 km/h will be needed. 1 mark for either 30 journeys, or 5/4 oe 2(f) For each 10 km journey, his fuel cost will increase by 20 × $0.05 = $1. [1] 2 Therefore, he will need to charge $1 ÷ 10 more per kilometre, so $1.10. If neither of the above marks can be awarded, award 1 mark for a correct algebraic expression for the profit : Hourly : 2(2 + 10r – 5) = $16 oe OR Shift profit: ($2 x 24 + 240r) – $0.25×480 (= $192) oe OR Journey Profit: (2+10r)–(0.25×2×10) = $8 oe
1 An international cycling competition is held every year in Pelatonia. Countries are invited to send a squad of cyclists to take part in the competition. There are 5 different events. The names of the events, the number of cyclists in a team for each event and the maximum number of teams allowed per squad are shown in the following table. Number of cyclists Maximum number of teams Event in each team allowed per squad Individual Trial 1 4 Manhattan 2 4 Chase 2 3 Derby 4 1 Road Race 6 1 For example, there are 2 cyclists in each team that takes part in the Chase and each squad is allowed to enter up to 3 teams in the Chase. Every cyclist in a squad must take part in at least one of the events. (a) What is the least possible number of cyclists in a squad which enters as many teams as possible in the competition? [1] The coach of the Keirison squad decides that none of his cyclists who takes part in the Road Race event can take part in any other event, but all other cyclists must take part in exactly two events. The squad will enter as many teams as possible. (b) (i) How many cyclists will be in the Keirison squad? [1] (ii) By labelling these cyclists as A, B, C, D, etc., show clearly one possible way in which the cyclists can be allocated to each of the 5 events. [2] In each of the five events, a gold medal is awarded to each member of the team that finishes first; silver medals are awarded for second, and bronze for third. For example, in the Road Race, 6 gold medals, 6 silver medals and 6 bronze medals are awarded. (c) What is the greatest total number of medals, of any type, that a squad can be awarded? [1] The squad from Graton did not have any restrictions on the number of events in which a cyclist can take part. They won exactly 7 gold medals. (d) (i) Show that there are three ways in which this could have been achieved. [1] (ii) What is the greatest number of silver medals that the Graton squad could have won? [2] The Graton squad won as many medals as possible, given the events in which they won gold. (e) What is the smallest total number of medals that the Graton squad could have won? [2] [Question 2 begins on the next page]
10 marks
Mark scheme: Question Answer Marks 1(a) 8 1 1(b)(i) 28 – 6 = 22 in the first 4 events; 2 events each, so 11 + 6 = 17 1 1(b)(ii) 2 Event Number Maximum Allocation of cyclists number of in each teams allowed team per squad Individual trial 1 4 I J K G Manhattan 2 4 AB CD EF GH Chase 2 3 AB CD EF Derby 4 1 I J K H Road race 6 1 LMNOPQ 1 mark for any solution with six different letters uniquely in the Road Race. 1(c) 3 + 6 + 6 + 4 + 6 = 25 medals 1 1(d)(i) (7 golds can be awarded as:) 1 (6 in the) Road Race and (1 in the) Individual trial or (4 in the) Derby, (2 in the) Manhattan and (1 in the) Individual trial or (4 in the) Derby, (2 in the) Chase and (1 in the) Individual trial 1(d)(ii) (7 golds can be awarded as:) 2 (6 in the) Road race + (1 in the) Individual trial: Possible silvers: 1, 2, 2, 4, 0 in the 5 events, a total of 9 or (4 in the) Derby, (2 in the) Manhattan/Chase and (1 in the) Individual trial: Possible silvers: 1, 2, 2, 0, 6 in the 5 events, a total of 11 Greatest number of silver = 11 1 mark for 9 seen 1(e) (7 golds can be awarded as:) 2 (6 in the) Road race + (1 in the) Individual Trial: Other medals: 2, 4, 4, 4, 0 = 14 or (4 in the) Derby, (2 in the) Manhattan or Chase and (1 in the) Individual Trial: Other medals: 2, 4, 4, 0, 6 = 16 Smallest possible total is 14 + 7 = 21 www Award 1 mark for 14, 16 or 23
1 An international cycling competition is held every year in Pelatonia. Countries are invited to send a squad of cyclists to take part in the competition. There are 5 different events. The names of the events, the number of cyclists in a team for each event and the maximum number of teams allowed per squad are shown in the following table. Number of cyclists Maximum number of teams Event in each team allowed per squad Individual Trial 1 4 Manhattan 2 4 Chase 2 3 Derby 4 1 Road Race 6 1 For example, there are 2 cyclists in each team that takes part in the Chase and each squad is allowed to enter up to 3 teams in the Chase. Every cyclist in a squad must take part in at least one of the events. (a) What is the least possible number of cyclists in a squad which enters as many teams as possible in the competition? [1] The coach of the Keirison squad decides that none of his cyclists who takes part in the Road Race event can take part in any other event, but all other cyclists must take part in exactly two events. The squad will enter as many teams as possible. (b) (i) How many cyclists will be in the Keirison squad? [1] (ii) By labelling these cyclists as A, B, C, D, etc., show clearly one possible way in which the cyclists can be allocated to each of the 5 events. [2] In each of the five events, a gold medal is awarded to each member of the team that finishes first; silver medals are awarded for second, and bronze for third. For example, in the Road Race, 6 gold medals, 6 silver medals and 6 bronze medals are awarded. (c) What is the greatest total number of medals, of any type, that a squad can be awarded? [1] The squad from Graton did not have any restrictions on the number of events in which a cyclist can take part. They won exactly 7 gold medals. (d) (i) Show that there are three ways in which this could have been achieved. [1] (ii) What is the greatest number of silver medals that the Graton squad could have won? [2] The Graton squad won as many medals as possible, given the events in which they won gold. (e) What is the smallest total number of medals that the Graton squad could have won? [2] [Question 2 begins on the next page]
10 marks
Mark scheme: Question Answer Marks 1(a) 8 1 1(b)(i) 28 – 6 = 22 in the first 4 events; 2 events each, so 11 + 6 = 17 1 1(b)(ii) 2 Event Number Maximum Allocation of cyclists number of in each teams allowed team per squad Individual trial 1 4 I J K G Manhattan 2 4 AB CD EF GH Chase 2 3 AB CD EF Derby 4 1 I J K H Road race 6 1 LMNOPQ 1 mark for any solution with six different letters uniquely in the Road Race. 1(c) 3 + 6 + 6 + 4 + 6 = 25 medals 1 1(d)(i) (7 golds can be awarded as:) 1 (6 in the) Road Race and (1 in the) Individual trial or (4 in the) Derby, (2 in the) Manhattan and (1 in the) Individual trial or (4 in the) Derby, (2 in the) Chase and (1 in the) Individual trial 1(d)(ii) (7 golds can be awarded as:) 2 (6 in the) Road race + (1 in the) Individual trial: Possible silvers: 1, 2, 2, 4, 0 in the 5 events, a total of 9 or (4 in the) Derby, (2 in the) Manhattan/Chase and (1 in the) Individual trial: Possible silvers: 1, 2, 2, 0, 6 in the 5 events, a total of 11 Greatest number of silver = 11 1 mark for 9 seen 1(e) (7 golds can be awarded as:) 2 (6 in the) Road race + (1 in the) Individual Trial: Other medals: 2, 4, 4, 4, 0 = 14 or (4 in the) Derby, (2 in the) Manhattan or Chase and (1 in the) Individual Trial: Other medals: 2, 4, 4, 0, 6 = 16 Smallest possible total is 14 + 7 = 21 www Award 1 mark for 14, 16 or 23
1 An online toy store sells all of its toys in boxes that are wrapped and then tied with coloured string. All of the boxes have dimensions of 20 cm by 10 cm by 12 cm. A single, continuous piece of string is wrapped around the box in two directions, as shown in the diagram. It is then tied in a bow at the centre of the top face, using the first 8 cm and the last 8 cm of the piece of string. 12 cm 10 cm 20 cm (a) Show that the length of string needed for one box is 124 cm. [1] A new ball of Stripey String contains 100 m of string. It has 10 cm lengths of the colours red, blue and white in a repeating pattern of 10 cm red, 10 cm blue, 10 cm white and so on. A new ball of string starts with 10 cm of red. A number of boxes are wrapped separately, in turn, using Stripey String. A new ball of string is used, and no string is wasted in between wrapping the boxes. (b) (i) For the 1st box, what length of the string used is red? [1] (ii) For the 3rd box, what length of the string used is red? [1] (iii) What is the least total amount of red string that is used for any box, and which boxes in the first 8 use this least amount? [4] Some toys (wrapped in boxes) are on special offer at 3 for the price of 2. The store decides to stack the 3 boxes on top of each other and use just one piece of string around the stack of 3, with a single bow on top. (c) (i) Find the difference between the length of string used when the 3 boxes are wrapped separately and the length of string used when they are wrapped as a stack. [2] (ii) Explain why the difference found in part (c)(i) would be the same if boxes of a different height were used. [1] [Question 2 begins on the next page]
10 marks
Mark scheme: Question Answer Marks 1(a) (20 + 12 + 10 + 12) × 2 + 16 = 124 cm AG 1 1(b)(i) 10 + 10 + 10 + 10 + 4 = 44 cm 1 1(b)(ii) 2 + 10 + 10 + 10 + 10 = 42 cm 1 1(b)(iii) 40 cm [1 mark] 4 Box starts Red Blue White 1 0 44 40 40 2 124 44 40 40 3 248 42 42 40 4 372 40 44 40 5 496 40 44 40 6 620 40 40 44 7 744 40 40 44 8 868 42 40 42 Boxes 4, 5, 6, 7 [3 marks] Award of marks for incorrect final answers : Correct 1 2 3 4 1 0 2 0 1 Given 34 00 11 22 3 5 0 0 1 2 6 0 0 0 1 OR For the 'box selection' marks, award 1 mark each for the following points seen in working (max 2), if the correct four boxes have not been given: • the correct amount of red for at least two boxes (4 onwards) • box ribbon starting lengths for at least three ribbons beyond 124 (either relative to 0 or to the red sections) 1(c)(i) For one large box, height 3 × 12 = 36 cm, 2 string used = (30 + 2 × 36) × 2 + 16 = 220 cm Difference = (3 × 124) – 220 = 152 cm 1 mark for a solution which omits the 16 cm for the bow, but is otherwise correct, giving 168 cm OR Saving on string will always be 2 bows + the length used on the faces that are together = 2 × 16 + 4 × (20 + 10) = 32 + 120 = 152 cm 1 mark for evidence of recognising that 2 × (20 + 10) is saved between two boxes. 1(c)(ii) The saving on string will always be 2 bows + the length used on the faces 1 that are together. These faces do not include any lengths of string equivalent to the height of the box (nor do the bows). Clear explanation required for the mark.
2 Electronic passports (e-passports) are only useful if their origin can be checked. To make things simpler, individual countries use ‘trust chains’ to help them decide which e-passports to accept. To ensure a consistent approach, all the border staff in a particular country follow the same set of trust policies. Each country trusts its own e-passports, and has a list of other countries whose e-passports it trusts directly, which is equivalent to a set of trust policies. Each country usually publishes all its policies, meaning that everyone else knows what they are. If A has a policy to trust B, it is shown with an arrow: A B If A trusts B, and B has a published policy to trust C, then A will also trust C. This continues in a chain, so long as A knows about each policy. (a) If there were only four countries involved, what would be the minimum number of policies needed for everyone to trust the e-passports from everyone else (i) if all the policies were published? [1] (ii) if all the policies were kept secret? [1] Here are five countries and the five relevant published policies (known to all): A B C D E (b) How many more published policies would be needed so that each country can trust e-passports from all the others? Draw a diagram showing an example. [2] A federation of 7 countries uses electronic passports, and all the trust policies are published. (c) The original passport readers took 30 seconds to check each step in the chain, so it was suggested that chains should be no longer than 2 steps (e.g. A trusts B and B trusts C) to ensure there is never more than a minute’s wait when passports are checked. (i) Show a scheme for this federation as a diagram, with the minimum number of policies such that each party can trust any other with a chain of at most 2 steps. Indicate how many policies are required. [2] (ii) If one country were to leave the federation, what is the worst outcome for the rest? [1] (d) A scheme was devised for this federation in which all policies were reciprocated (i.e. if A trusts B then B trusts A) around a single loop. If one country left, what would be the increase in the longest chain that would be needed between any two countries? [1] Faster equipment has reduced the time to check, but they want to minimise the average time to wait for a check to be made without having too many policies or problems if one country leaves. Two schemes are proposed, both of which are symmetrical and so provide the same scenario to each country. Checks are always done using a chain that is as short as possible. Skip 1 Skip 2 (e) If all checks are equally likely, and no country leaves, which scheme is better? Explain your answer. [2]
10 marks
Mark scheme: 2(a)(i) There must be 4. 1 2(a)(ii) All 12 distinct ordered pairs. 1 2(b) Both C and E need to trust others, and there are solutions with just 2: 2 EA and CA (or CB or CD or CE), or CA and EC (or EB or ED) 2 marks for any complete and correct diagram (condone omission of given 5 arrows) 1 mark for any diagram in which all trust relationships present, but also superfluous ones but with a maximum of 4 extra connections. SC: 1 mark for links identified but not shown in diagram. 2(c)(i) One country has to trust all others, and all others have to trust it: a six- 2 pointed star. 2 × 6 = 12 policies are required. 1 mark for any directed graph with desired property but which is not minimal SC: 1 mark for correct structure with 6 nodes instead of 7. 2(c)(ii) The departure of the central country would remove all trusted links for 1 everyone. 2(d) Rotational symmetry means that we only have to look at one case. 1 Longest chain was 3, is now 5, so difference of 2 Must be supported 2(e) 2 All countries are the same (by symmetry). The minimum steps others are: Skip 1: 1,1,2,2,3,3; Skip 2: 1,2,1,2,3,2 So Skip 2 is better by 1 step in 6 passport checks. 1 mark for Skip 2 with supporting evidence of decision. 1 mark for satisfactory quantification of the difference: allow any clear, precise explanation, e.g. average number of checks, total checks for all chains for 1 particular country, etc.
3 Peregrine is spending a week walking along a famous mountain path. He is planning to walk from hostel to hostel, staying each night at a different one. All the people that he meets on the path are also walking the same route, in one direction or the other, and also staying at hostels. His map does not show the locations of the hostels, and so he does not know the distances between them. He assumes that everyone else on the path does know the distances, but he does not speak the local language and avoids talking to anyone he meets. No-one walks before 06:00 or after 18:00 each day. No hostels are more than 36 km apart. Peregrine assumes that he and all other walkers walk at 3 km/h (i.e. 1 km every 20 minutes). On Monday, Peregrine sets off at 07:00, and at 11:00 meets the first walker coming from the next hostel along the path. (a) What is the greatest distance there could be between the two hostels? [2] This walker in fact set off at 07:30, and took a 30-minute break just before meeting Peregrine. (b) At what time will Peregrine reach the next hostel, if he takes no breaks himself? [1] On Tuesday, Peregrine sets off at 09:00. He thinks that the next hostel along this part of the path may be quite far away, and is concerned that he may not reach it before 18:00. (c) At what time should he turn back if he has not met anyone yet? Explain your answer. [2] He knows that some walkers do not walk all the way from one hostel to the next. Instead, they walk out along the path for a while and then return back the way they came. On Wednesday, Peregrine leaves his hostel at 09:00. (d) What is the latest time that he could pass a walker who was returning to the hostel that they both started the day in? [2] Peregrine thinks that most walkers are one of two types: • The first type like to get to the next hostel as early as possible, in order to relax when they get there. These walkers set off at 06:00 and do not take any breaks. • The second type like to have lunch up in the mountains. These walkers plan their journey so that they are exactly halfway between hostels at 13:00. They stay at this point for an hour to eat lunch before continuing their journey. On Thursday, Peregrine sets off at 09:20, and meets the first walkers coming the other way at 10:20. (e) At what time should he expect to meet those who are having lunch in the mountains? [4] On Friday and Saturday, Peregrine walks in the foothills, where the path is less steep. Families with young children often walk on these sections of the path, and they are also popular with runners. He assumes that families walk at 2 km/h, and runners run at 4 km/h. On Friday, Peregrine sets off from his hostel at 09:00. He overtakes a family at 14:00. (f) (i) What is the maximum amount of time he might have to walk to reach the next hostel? [1] (ii) What is the latest time he can expect to overtake a family who set off from the same hostel as him? [1] On Saturday, Peregrine sets off from his hostel at 11:00. (g) What is the latest time that a runner who overtakes him could have set off from the same hostel as him? [2]
15 marks
Mark scheme: 3(a) Peregrine has been walking 07:00 until 11:00 = 4 hours = 12 km 2 other walker could have been walking from 06:00 until 11:00: 5 hours = 15 km 1 mark for either of 12 km or 15 km seen 9 × 3 = 27 km 3(b) Effectively 8 am start for other walker : 9 km / 3 hour walk 1 So Peregrine will reach his destination at 11am + 3 hours = 14:00 3(c) If he does not meet someone by 12:00 [1] he should turn back. 2 The person he meets may have been walking since 06:00 (18 km travelled) and he may therefore have that far to go [1]. 3(d) Furthest out and back would be 06:00 + 18 km = 12:00. 2 If P left at 9 am he will have walked 9 km by then They walk towards each other and meet at 13:30 [2] Award 1 mark for considering the distance or time walked by someone starting at any time between 06:00 and 09:00 3(e) At 10:20 the first walkers will have walked for 4 hours 20 minutes = 13 km [1] 4 He has walked 1 hour = 3 km. So 16 km [1] between hostels, so halfway point is 8 km in. This will take Peregrine 2 hours 40 minutes to accomplish: 12:00 [1] Picnickers leave at 10:20 in order to reach halfway point at 13:00 They will meet at 12:30 3(f)(i) The family must be at the hostel by nightfall: 1 14:00 to 18:00 = 4 hours = 8 km = 2 hours 40 minutes for Peregrine 3(f)(ii) If the family sets off at 6 am, and walks without stopping, they walk ‘2t’ km in 1 the hours after 6 am and he walks 3(t – 3) km. These are equal when t = 9 : at 15:00 3(g) Maximum distance to next hostel = 7 hours = 21 km 2 For the runner this is 21/4 [1] hours at 4 km/h. He must have set off no later than 12:45
4 This map shows the ferry routes on Lake Veronica, together with the time taken to sail from each stop to the next. Carleton 31 mins 15 mins 21 mins Ockelman Is Detlie 12 mins Toth 17 mins 26 mins Munro Three ferry boats, Constance, Frances and Marie, based at Carleton Ferry Terminal, operate on the lake. Constance sails between Carleton and Munro via Detlie, daily. Frances sails between Carleton and Munro via Toth, daily. Marie sails between Carleton and Toth via Ockelman Island, on Fridays, Saturdays and Sundays only. Ferry Departure Times Constance (Daily) Carleton → Munro → Carleton Carleton 08:00 10:25 12:50 15:15 17:40 Detlie 08:37 11:02 13:27 15:52 18:17 Munro 09:09 11:34 13:59 16:24 18:49 Detlie 09:41 12:06 14:31 16:56 19:21 Frances (Daily) Carleton → Munro → Carleton Carleton 08:30 10:30 12:30 14:30 16:30 18:30 Toth 08:57 10:57 12:57 14:57 16:57 18:57 Munro 09:20 11:20 13:20 15:20 17:20 19:20 Toth 09:43 11:43 13:43 15:43 17:43 19:43 Marie (Fridays, Saturdays and Sundays only) Carleton → Ockelman Island → Carleton Carleton 09:00 10:40 12:20 14:00 15:40 17:20 Ockelman Is. 09:21 11:01 12:41 14:21 16:01 17:41 Toth 09:39 11:19 12:59 14:39 16:19 17:59 Ockelman Is. 09:57 11:37 13:17 14:57 16:37 18:17 Ticket Prices Child Adult (under 16) One Both One Both way ways way ways Carleton – Detlie Carleton – Toth $3.40 $5.10 $2.00 $3.00 Detlie – Munro Munro – Toth Carleton – Munro $5.20 $7.80 $3.10 $4.60 Detlie – Toth Carleton or Toth – Ockelman Is. – Carleton or Toth – $6.30 – $3.80 Day Roamer Ticket: Mon, Tues, Wed, Thurs $10.80 $6.50 Fri, Sat, Sun $15.00 $9.00 The Day Roamer ticket allows unlimited travel between stops on the lake for one day, including Ockelman Island on Fridays, Saturdays and Sundays. It is only valid on the day for which it is bought. Tickets from Carleton or Toth to Ockelman Island are only valid for travel on Marie. However, after visiting the island, passengers who travelled out from Carleton may travel on to Toth instead of returning to Carleton, and those who travelled out from Toth may travel on to Carleton instead of returning to Toth. All other tickets are valid for travel by any route, but with these tickets passengers may not leave the boat at intermediate stops, except to change from one boat to another. (a) What is the earliest time in the day that a passenger sailing from Munro can arrive at Carleton on a Monday? [2] (b) On a day when Marie is operating, how much sooner can a passenger who is waiting at Carleton at 15:30 reach Toth by sailing on Marie rather than Frances? [2] [Question 4 continues on the next page] Ockelman Island is a nature reserve which is only open to the public on Fridays, Saturdays and Sundays. The number of visitors arriving onto the island and the number leaving are recorded each time Marie docks. This is done to make sure that nobody is left on the island after the last departure of the day. This is last Saturday’s record. Number of Visitors Arriving Departing 23 0 28 7 37 11 45 18 34 26 33 29 40 34 29 33 21 30 15 47 3 35 0 38 (c) How many visitors were there on Ockelman Island at 13:00 last Saturday? [2] Mr. and Mrs. Sullivan and their two young children arrived at the Munro Ferry Stop at 09:05 on Sunday. They bought Day Roamer tickets, intending to explore the whole lake. They decided to start by sailing to Toth and then across to Ockelman Island as soon as possible. The children enjoyed the nature reserve so much that they stayed much longer than they had intended to and there was only time for them to return to Toth and sail back to Munro. (d) How much more than necessary did the Sullivan family spend on their tickets? [3] A total of 83 Day Roamer tickets were sold for Sunday. The total price of these tickets was $1059. (e) How many of the Day Roamer tickets sold for Sunday were Adult tickets? [2] Susie is on holiday in nearby Bracken and wants to spend the day around Lake Veronica next Tuesday. She will arrive by train at Carleton Railway Station at 09:10. She will have over an hour to look around Carleton before setting off from the Ferry Terminal to explore the other three towns on the lake. She wants to spend at least one hour in both Detlie and Toth, and as long as she possibly can in Munro. Her train back to Bracken departs from Carleton at 20:35. (f) In which order should Susie visit the other towns: Detlie, Munro, Toth, or Toth, Munro, Detlie? Support your answer by giving the greatest amount of time she could spend in Munro for each of the alternatives. [4]
15 marks
Mark scheme: 4(a) Via Detlie, earliest arrival time is 09:41 + 31 mins = 10:12. 2 Via Toth, earliest is 09:43 + 21 mins = 10:04, so earliest is 10:04. 1 mark for either time correct AND an appropriate conclusion from their times if two are given. SC: 1 mark for 10:18 or 10:10 (+6 minutes, uses departure times) SC: 1 mark for 10:06 or 09:58 (–6 minutes, uses sum of travel times from Munro) SC :1 mark for 10:25 or 10:30 (using the departure times from Carleton) 4(b) Earliest arrival times are 16:30 + 21 mins = 16:51 aboard Frances and 16:01 2 (from Ockelman Island) + 12 mins = 16:13 aboard Marie, so 38 mins. 1 mark for either time correct OR 44 minutes (6 minutes on Ockelman Island omitted) 4(c) By 13:00, Marie had stopped five times at the island. According to the 2 record, 23 + 28 + 37 + 45 + 34 = 167 visitors had arrived and (0 +) 7 + 11 + 18 + 26 = 62 had departed, so there were 105 visitors on the island at that time. 1 mark for recognition that the first five rows of figures (and only the first five) are involved in the calculation (indicated by ‘167 arrived’ or ‘62 departed’), or for calculating the number on the island after the 3rd (70), or 4th (97) or 6th (109) ferries have left. 4(d) Cost of Day Roamer tickets = (2 × $15) + (2 × $9) = $48 3 Extraction of ticket prices $5.10 and $3.00 (Munro – Toth) and $6.30 and $3.80 (Ockelman Is.) 2 × ($5.10 + $3.00 + $6.30 + $3.80) = $36.40 Difference $11.60 1 mark each for any of the following (max 2): $48 [whole family day roamer] $18.20/$36.20 [half family/whole family ticket by ticket] $3.60/$7.20 [adult(s) difference] $2.20/$4.40[child(ren) difference] SC: 2 marks for final answer of $5.80 (uses one-way tickets OR only buys tickets for 1 × adult + child) 4(e) 52 × $15 + 31 × $9 = $1059 2 Number of adult tickets = 52 Search method: The criteria for the search are tickets = 83 and income = $1059 1 mark for an initial search that meets either one of the criteria AND for an adjustment that gets closer to the solution Algebraic method (1 mark for parsing algebraically) a + c = 83 AND 15a + 9c = 1059 OR 15x + 9(83 – x) = 1059 4(f) Detlie first [CDMTC] 4 Depart C 10:25, depart D 13:27, arrive M 13:53 Depart M 17:20 3 hours 27 minutes / 207 minutes at Munro Toth first [CTMDC] Depart C 10:30, depart T 12:57, arrive M 13:14 Depart M 16:24 3 hours 10 minutes / 190 minutes at Munro She should therefore visit the towns in the order Detlie, Munro, Toth. 4 marks for 3 hours 27 minutes / 207 minutes and 3 hours 10 minutes / 190 minutes AND statement of the order Detlie, Munro, Toth. 3 marks for 3 hours 27 minutes / 207 minutes OR 3 hours 10 minutes / 190 minutes. 2 marks for three or more correct arrival/departure times in Munro. 1 mark for two correct arrival/departure times in Munro (allowing the 6 minute discrepancy) SC: using the departure times from the table rather than the journey times (i.e. 6 minutes later): 1 mark for arrival and departure times from Munro [13:59 and 17:20, 13:20 and 16:24] OR the time spent on Munro for either route [3 h 21 m or 3 h 04 m] 2 marks for 3 h 21 m AND 3 h 04 m
1 An online toy store sells all of its toys in boxes that are wrapped and then tied with coloured string. All of the boxes have dimensions of 20 cm by 10 cm by 12 cm. A single, continuous piece of string is wrapped around the box in two directions, as shown in the diagram. It is then tied in a bow at the centre of the top face, using the first 8 cm and the last 8 cm of the piece of string. 12 cm 10 cm 20 cm (a) Show that the length of string needed for one box is 124 cm. [1] A new ball of Stripey String contains 100 m of string. It has 10 cm lengths of the colours red, blue and white in a repeating pattern of 10 cm red, 10 cm blue, 10 cm white and so on. A new ball of string starts with 10 cm of red. A number of boxes are wrapped separately, in turn, using Stripey String. A new ball of string is used, and no string is wasted in between wrapping the boxes. (b) (i) For the 1st box, what length of the string used is red? [1] (ii) For the 3rd box, what length of the string used is red? [1] (iii) What is the least total amount of red string that is used for any box, and which boxes in the first 8 use this least amount? [4] Some toys (wrapped in boxes) are on special offer at 3 for the price of 2. The store decides to stack the 3 boxes on top of each other and use just one piece of string around the stack of 3, with a single bow on top. (c) (i) Find the difference between the length of string used when the 3 boxes are wrapped separately and the length of string used when they are wrapped as a stack. [2] (ii) Explain why the difference found in part (c)(i) would be the same if boxes of a different height were used. [1] [Question 2 begins on the next page]
10 marks
Mark scheme: Question Answer Marks 1(a) (20 + 12 + 10 + 12) × 2 + 16 = 124 cm AG 1 1(b)(i) 10 + 10 + 10 + 10 + 4 = 44 cm 1 1(b)(ii) 2 + 10 + 10 + 10 + 10 = 42 cm 1 1(b)(iii) 40 cm [1 mark] 4 Box starts Red Blue White 1 0 44 40 40 2 124 44 40 40 3 248 42 42 40 4 372 40 44 40 5 496 40 44 40 6 620 40 40 44 7 744 40 40 44 8 868 42 40 42 Boxes 4, 5, 6, 7 [3 marks] Award of marks for incorrect final answers : Correct 1 2 3 4 1 0 2 0 1 Given 34 00 11 22 3 5 0 0 1 2 6 0 0 0 1 OR For the 'box selection' marks, award 1 mark each for the following points seen in working (max 2), if the correct four boxes have not been given: • the correct amount of red for at least two boxes (4 onwards) • box ribbon starting lengths for at least three ribbons beyond 124 (either relative to 0 or to the red sections) 1(c)(i) For one large box, height 3 × 12 = 36 cm, 2 string used = (30 + 2 × 36) × 2 + 16 = 220 cm Difference = (3 × 124) – 220 = 152 cm 1 mark for a solution which omits the 16 cm for the bow, but is otherwise correct, giving 168 cm OR Saving on string will always be 2 bows + the length used on the faces that are together = 2 × 16 + 4 × (20 + 10) = 32 + 120 = 152 cm 1 mark for evidence of recognising that 2 × (20 + 10) is saved between two boxes. 1(c)(ii) The saving on string will always be 2 bows + the length used on the faces 1 that are together. These faces do not include any lengths of string equivalent to the height of the box (nor do the bows). Clear explanation required for the mark.
2 Electronic passports (e-passports) are only useful if their origin can be checked. To make things simpler, individual countries use ‘trust chains’ to help them decide which e-passports to accept. To ensure a consistent approach, all the border staff in a particular country follow the same set of trust policies. Each country trusts its own e-passports, and has a list of other countries whose e-passports it trusts directly, which is equivalent to a set of trust policies. Each country usually publishes all its policies, meaning that everyone else knows what they are. If A has a policy to trust B, it is shown with an arrow: A B If A trusts B, and B has a published policy to trust C, then A will also trust C. This continues in a chain, so long as A knows about each policy. (a) If there were only four countries involved, what would be the minimum number of policies needed for everyone to trust the e-passports from everyone else (i) if all the policies were published? [1] (ii) if all the policies were kept secret? [1] Here are five countries and the five relevant published policies (known to all): A B C D E (b) How many more published policies would be needed so that each country can trust e-passports from all the others? Draw a diagram showing an example. [2] A federation of 7 countries uses electronic passports, and all the trust policies are published. (c) The original passport readers took 30 seconds to check each step in the chain, so it was suggested that chains should be no longer than 2 steps (e.g. A trusts B and B trusts C) to ensure there is never more than a minute’s wait when passports are checked. (i) Show a scheme for this federation as a diagram, with the minimum number of policies such that each party can trust any other with a chain of at most 2 steps. Indicate how many policies are required. [2] (ii) If one country were to leave the federation, what is the worst outcome for the rest? [1] (d) A scheme was devised for this federation in which all policies were reciprocated (i.e. if A trusts B then B trusts A) around a single loop. If one country left, what would be the increase in the longest chain that would be needed between any two countries? [1] Faster equipment has reduced the time to check, but they want to minimise the average time to wait for a check to be made without having too many policies or problems if one country leaves. Two schemes are proposed, both of which are symmetrical and so provide the same scenario to each country. Checks are always done using a chain that is as short as possible. Skip 1 Skip 2 (e) If all checks are equally likely, and no country leaves, which scheme is better? Explain your answer. [2]
10 marks
Mark scheme: 2(a)(i) There must be 4. 1 2(a)(ii) All 12 distinct ordered pairs. 1 2(b) Both C and E need to trust others, and there are solutions with just 2: 2 EA and CA (or CB or CD or CE), or CA and EC (or EB or ED) 2 marks for any complete and correct diagram (condone omission of given 5 arrows) 1 mark for any diagram in which all trust relationships present, but also superfluous ones but with a maximum of 4 extra connections. SC: 1 mark for links identified but not shown in diagram. 2(c)(i) One country has to trust all others, and all others have to trust it: a six- 2 pointed star. 2 × 6 = 12 policies are required. 1 mark for any directed graph with desired property but which is not minimal SC: 1 mark for correct structure with 6 nodes instead of 7. 2(c)(ii) The departure of the central country would remove all trusted links for 1 everyone. 2(d) Rotational symmetry means that we only have to look at one case. 1 Longest chain was 3, is now 5, so difference of 2 Must be supported 2(e) 2 All countries are the same (by symmetry). The minimum steps others are: Skip 1: 1,1,2,2,3,3; Skip 2: 1,2,1,2,3,2 So Skip 2 is better by 1 step in 6 passport checks. 1 mark for Skip 2 with supporting evidence of decision. 1 mark for satisfactory quantification of the difference: allow any clear, precise explanation, e.g. average number of checks, total checks for all chains for 1 particular country, etc.
3 Peregrine is spending a week walking along a famous mountain path. He is planning to walk from hostel to hostel, staying each night at a different one. All the people that he meets on the path are also walking the same route, in one direction or the other, and also staying at hostels. His map does not show the locations of the hostels, and so he does not know the distances between them. He assumes that everyone else on the path does know the distances, but he does not speak the local language and avoids talking to anyone he meets. No-one walks before 06:00 or after 18:00 each day. No hostels are more than 36 km apart. Peregrine assumes that he and all other walkers walk at 3 km/h (i.e. 1 km every 20 minutes). On Monday, Peregrine sets off at 07:00, and at 11:00 meets the first walker coming from the next hostel along the path. (a) What is the greatest distance there could be between the two hostels? [2] This walker in fact set off at 07:30, and took a 30-minute break just before meeting Peregrine. (b) At what time will Peregrine reach the next hostel, if he takes no breaks himself? [1] On Tuesday, Peregrine sets off at 09:00. He thinks that the next hostel along this part of the path may be quite far away, and is concerned that he may not reach it before 18:00. (c) At what time should he turn back if he has not met anyone yet? Explain your answer. [2] He knows that some walkers do not walk all the way from one hostel to the next. Instead, they walk out along the path for a while and then return back the way they came. On Wednesday, Peregrine leaves his hostel at 09:00. (d) What is the latest time that he could pass a walker who was returning to the hostel that they both started the day in? [2] Peregrine thinks that most walkers are one of two types: • The first type like to get to the next hostel as early as possible, in order to relax when they get there. These walkers set off at 06:00 and do not take any breaks. • The second type like to have lunch up in the mountains. These walkers plan their journey so that they are exactly halfway between hostels at 13:00. They stay at this point for an hour to eat lunch before continuing their journey. On Thursday, Peregrine sets off at 09:20, and meets the first walkers coming the other way at 10:20. (e) At what time should he expect to meet those who are having lunch in the mountains? [4] On Friday and Saturday, Peregrine walks in the foothills, where the path is less steep. Families with young children often walk on these sections of the path, and they are also popular with runners. He assumes that families walk at 2 km/h, and runners run at 4 km/h. On Friday, Peregrine sets off from his hostel at 09:00. He overtakes a family at 14:00. (f) (i) What is the maximum amount of time he might have to walk to reach the next hostel? [1] (ii) What is the latest time he can expect to overtake a family who set off from the same hostel as him? [1] On Saturday, Peregrine sets off from his hostel at 11:00. (g) What is the latest time that a runner who overtakes him could have set off from the same hostel as him? [2]
15 marks
Mark scheme: 3(a) Peregrine has been walking 07:00 until 11:00 = 4 hours = 12 km 2 other walker could have been walking from 06:00 until 11:00: 5 hours = 15 km 1 mark for either of 12 km or 15 km seen 9 × 3 = 27 km 3(b) Effectively 8 am start for other walker : 9 km / 3 hour walk 1 So Peregrine will reach his destination at 11am + 3 hours = 14:00 3(c) If he does not meet someone by 12:00 [1] he should turn back. 2 The person he meets may have been walking since 06:00 (18 km travelled) and he may therefore have that far to go [1]. 3(d) Furthest out and back would be 06:00 + 18 km = 12:00. 2 If P left at 9 am he will have walked 9 km by then They walk towards each other and meet at 13:30 [2] Award 1 mark for considering the distance or time walked by someone starting at any time between 06:00 and 09:00 3(e) At 10:20 the first walkers will have walked for 4 hours 20 minutes = 13 km [1] 4 He has walked 1 hour = 3 km. So 16 km [1] between hostels, so halfway point is 8 km in. This will take Peregrine 2 hours 40 minutes to accomplish: 12:00 [1] Picnickers leave at 10:20 in order to reach halfway point at 13:00 They will meet at 12:30 3(f)(i) The family must be at the hostel by nightfall: 1 14:00 to 18:00 = 4 hours = 8 km = 2 hours 40 minutes for Peregrine 3(f)(ii) If the family sets off at 6 am, and walks without stopping, they walk ‘2t’ km in 1 the hours after 6 am and he walks 3(t – 3) km. These are equal when t = 9 : at 15:00 3(g) Maximum distance to next hostel = 7 hours = 21 km 2 For the runner this is 21/4 [1] hours at 4 km/h. He must have set off no later than 12:45
4 This map shows the ferry routes on Lake Veronica, together with the time taken to sail from each stop to the next. Carleton 31 mins 15 mins 21 mins Ockelman Is Detlie 12 mins Toth 17 mins 26 mins Munro Three ferry boats, Constance, Frances and Marie, based at Carleton Ferry Terminal, operate on the lake. Constance sails between Carleton and Munro via Detlie, daily. Frances sails between Carleton and Munro via Toth, daily. Marie sails between Carleton and Toth via Ockelman Island, on Fridays, Saturdays and Sundays only. Ferry Departure Times Constance (Daily) Carleton → Munro → Carleton Carleton 08:00 10:25 12:50 15:15 17:40 Detlie 08:37 11:02 13:27 15:52 18:17 Munro 09:09 11:34 13:59 16:24 18:49 Detlie 09:41 12:06 14:31 16:56 19:21 Frances (Daily) Carleton → Munro → Carleton Carleton 08:30 10:30 12:30 14:30 16:30 18:30 Toth 08:57 10:57 12:57 14:57 16:57 18:57 Munro 09:20 11:20 13:20 15:20 17:20 19:20 Toth 09:43 11:43 13:43 15:43 17:43 19:43 Marie (Fridays, Saturdays and Sundays only) Carleton → Ockelman Island → Carleton Carleton 09:00 10:40 12:20 14:00 15:40 17:20 Ockelman Is. 09:21 11:01 12:41 14:21 16:01 17:41 Toth 09:39 11:19 12:59 14:39 16:19 17:59 Ockelman Is. 09:57 11:37 13:17 14:57 16:37 18:17 Ticket Prices Child Adult (under 16) One Both One Both way ways way ways Carleton – Detlie Carleton – Toth $3.40 $5.10 $2.00 $3.00 Detlie – Munro Munro – Toth Carleton – Munro $5.20 $7.80 $3.10 $4.60 Detlie – Toth Carleton or Toth – Ockelman Is. – Carleton or Toth – $6.30 – $3.80 Day Roamer Ticket: Mon, Tues, Wed, Thurs $10.80 $6.50 Fri, Sat, Sun $15.00 $9.00 The Day Roamer ticket allows unlimited travel between stops on the lake for one day, including Ockelman Island on Fridays, Saturdays and Sundays. It is only valid on the day for which it is bought. Tickets from Carleton or Toth to Ockelman Island are only valid for travel on Marie. However, after visiting the island, passengers who travelled out from Carleton may travel on to Toth instead of returning to Carleton, and those who travelled out from Toth may travel on to Carleton instead of returning to Toth. All other tickets are valid for travel by any route, but with these tickets passengers may not leave the boat at intermediate stops, except to change from one boat to another. (a) What is the earliest time in the day that a passenger sailing from Munro can arrive at Carleton on a Monday? [2] (b) On a day when Marie is operating, how much sooner can a passenger who is waiting at Carleton at 15:30 reach Toth by sailing on Marie rather than Frances? [2] [Question 4 continues on the next page] Ockelman Island is a nature reserve which is only open to the public on Fridays, Saturdays and Sundays. The number of visitors arriving onto the island and the number leaving are recorded each time Marie docks. This is done to make sure that nobody is left on the island after the last departure of the day. This is last Saturday’s record. Number of Visitors Arriving Departing 23 0 28 7 37 11 45 18 34 26 33 29 40 34 29 33 21 30 15 47 3 35 0 38 (c) How many visitors were there on Ockelman Island at 13:00 last Saturday? [2] Mr. and Mrs. Sullivan and their two young children arrived at the Munro Ferry Stop at 09:05 on Sunday. They bought Day Roamer tickets, intending to explore the whole lake. They decided to start by sailing to Toth and then across to Ockelman Island as soon as possible. The children enjoyed the nature reserve so much that they stayed much longer than they had intended to and there was only time for them to return to Toth and sail back to Munro. (d) How much more than necessary did the Sullivan family spend on their tickets? [3] A total of 83 Day Roamer tickets were sold for Sunday. The total price of these tickets was $1059. (e) How many of the Day Roamer tickets sold for Sunday were Adult tickets? [2] Susie is on holiday in nearby Bracken and wants to spend the day around Lake Veronica next Tuesday. She will arrive by train at Carleton Railway Station at 09:10. She will have over an hour to look around Carleton before setting off from the Ferry Terminal to explore the other three towns on the lake. She wants to spend at least one hour in both Detlie and Toth, and as long as she possibly can in Munro. Her train back to Bracken departs from Carleton at 20:35. (f) In which order should Susie visit the other towns: Detlie, Munro, Toth, or Toth, Munro, Detlie? Support your answer by giving the greatest amount of time she could spend in Munro for each of the alternatives. [4]
15 marks
Mark scheme: 4(a) Via Detlie, earliest arrival time is 09:41 + 31 mins = 10:12. 2 Via Toth, earliest is 09:43 + 21 mins = 10:04, so earliest is 10:04. 1 mark for either time correct AND an appropriate conclusion from their times if two are given. SC: 1 mark for 10:18 or 10:10 (+6 minutes, uses departure times) SC: 1 mark for 10:06 or 09:58 (–6 minutes, uses sum of travel times from Munro) SC :1 mark for 10:25 or 10:30 (using the departure times from Carleton) 4(b) Earliest arrival times are 16:30 + 21 mins = 16:51 aboard Frances and 16:01 2 (from Ockelman Island) + 12 mins = 16:13 aboard Marie, so 38 mins. 1 mark for either time correct OR 44 minutes (6 minutes on Ockelman Island omitted) 4(c) By 13:00, Marie had stopped five times at the island. According to the 2 record, 23 + 28 + 37 + 45 + 34 = 167 visitors had arrived and (0 +) 7 + 11 + 18 + 26 = 62 had departed, so there were 105 visitors on the island at that time. 1 mark for recognition that the first five rows of figures (and only the first five) are involved in the calculation (indicated by ‘167 arrived’ or ‘62 departed’), or for calculating the number on the island after the 3rd (70), or 4th (97) or 6th (109) ferries have left. 4(d) Cost of Day Roamer tickets = (2 × $15) + (2 × $9) = $48 3 Extraction of ticket prices $5.10 and $3.00 (Munro – Toth) and $6.30 and $3.80 (Ockelman Is.) 2 × ($5.10 + $3.00 + $6.30 + $3.80) = $36.40 Difference $11.60 1 mark each for any of the following (max 2): $48 [whole family day roamer] $18.20/$36.20 [half family/whole family ticket by ticket] $3.60/$7.20 [adult(s) difference] $2.20/$4.40[child(ren) difference] SC: 2 marks for final answer of $5.80 (uses one-way tickets OR only buys tickets for 1 × adult + child) 4(e) 52 × $15 + 31 × $9 = $1059 2 Number of adult tickets = 52 Search method: The criteria for the search are tickets = 83 and income = $1059 1 mark for an initial search that meets either one of the criteria AND for an adjustment that gets closer to the solution Algebraic method (1 mark for parsing algebraically) a + c = 83 AND 15a + 9c = 1059 OR 15x + 9(83 – x) = 1059 4(f) Detlie first [CDMTC] 4 Depart C 10:25, depart D 13:27, arrive M 13:53 Depart M 17:20 3 hours 27 minutes / 207 minutes at Munro Toth first [CTMDC] Depart C 10:30, depart T 12:57, arrive M 13:14 Depart M 16:24 3 hours 10 minutes / 190 minutes at Munro She should therefore visit the towns in the order Detlie, Munro, Toth. 4 marks for 3 hours 27 minutes / 207 minutes and 3 hours 10 minutes / 190 minutes AND statement of the order Detlie, Munro, Toth. 3 marks for 3 hours 27 minutes / 207 minutes OR 3 hours 10 minutes / 190 minutes. 2 marks for three or more correct arrival/departure times in Munro. 1 mark for two correct arrival/departure times in Munro (allowing the 6 minute discrepancy) SC: using the departure times from the table rather than the journey times (i.e. 6 minutes later): 1 mark for arrival and departure times from Munro [13:59 and 17:20, 13:20 and 16:24] OR the time spent on Munro for either route [3 h 21 m or 3 h 04 m] 2 marks for 3 h 21 m AND 3 h 04 m
1 An online toy store sells all of its toys in boxes that are wrapped and then tied with coloured string. All of the boxes have dimensions of 20 cm by 10 cm by 12 cm. A single, continuous piece of string is wrapped around the box in two directions, as shown in the diagram. It is then tied in a bow at the centre of the top face, using the first 8 cm and the last 8 cm of the piece of string. 12 cm 10 cm 20 cm (a) Show that the length of string needed for one box is 124 cm. [1] A new ball of Stripey String contains 100 m of string. It has 10 cm lengths of the colours red, blue and white in a repeating pattern of 10 cm red, 10 cm blue, 10 cm white and so on. A new ball of string starts with 10 cm of red. A number of boxes are wrapped separately, in turn, using Stripey String. A new ball of string is used, and no string is wasted in between wrapping the boxes. (b) (i) For the 1st box, what length of the string used is red? [1] (ii) For the 3rd box, what length of the string used is red? [1] (iii) What is the least total amount of red string that is used for any box, and which boxes in the first 8 use this least amount? [4] Some toys (wrapped in boxes) are on special offer at 3 for the price of 2. The store decides to stack the 3 boxes on top of each other and use just one piece of string around the stack of 3, with a single bow on top. (c) (i) Find the difference between the length of string used when the 3 boxes are wrapped separately and the length of string used when they are wrapped as a stack. [2] (ii) Explain why the difference found in part (c)(i) would be the same if boxes of a different height were used. [1] [Question 2 begins on the next page]
10 marks
Mark scheme: Question Answer Marks 1(a) (20 + 12 + 10 + 12) × 2 + 16 = 124 cm AG 1 1(b)(i) 10 + 10 + 10 + 10 + 4 = 44 cm 1 1(b)(ii) 2 + 10 + 10 + 10 + 10 = 42 cm 1 1(b)(iii) 40 cm [1 mark] 4 Box starts Red Blue White 1 0 44 40 40 2 124 44 40 40 3 248 42 42 40 4 372 40 44 40 5 496 40 44 40 6 620 40 40 44 7 744 40 40 44 8 868 42 40 42 Boxes 4, 5, 6, 7 [3 marks] Award of marks for incorrect final answers : Correct 1 2 3 4 1 0 2 0 1 Given 34 00 11 22 3 5 0 0 1 2 6 0 0 0 1 OR For the 'box selection' marks, award 1 mark each for the following points seen in working (max 2), if the correct four boxes have not been given: • the correct amount of red for at least two boxes (4 onwards) • box ribbon starting lengths for at least three ribbons beyond 124 (either relative to 0 or to the red sections) 1(c)(i) For one large box, height 3 × 12 = 36 cm, 2 string used = (30 + 2 × 36) × 2 + 16 = 220 cm Difference = (3 × 124) – 220 = 152 cm 1 mark for a solution which omits the 16 cm for the bow, but is otherwise correct, giving 168 cm OR Saving on string will always be 2 bows + the length used on the faces that are together = 2 × 16 + 4 × (20 + 10) = 32 + 120 = 152 cm 1 mark for evidence of recognising that 2 × (20 + 10) is saved between two boxes. 1(c)(ii) The saving on string will always be 2 bows + the length used on the faces 1 that are together. These faces do not include any lengths of string equivalent to the height of the box (nor do the bows). Clear explanation required for the mark.
2 Electronic passports (e-passports) are only useful if their origin can be checked. To make things simpler, individual countries use ‘trust chains’ to help them decide which e-passports to accept. To ensure a consistent approach, all the border staff in a particular country follow the same set of trust policies. Each country trusts its own e-passports, and has a list of other countries whose e-passports it trusts directly, which is equivalent to a set of trust policies. Each country usually publishes all its policies, meaning that everyone else knows what they are. If A has a policy to trust B, it is shown with an arrow: A B If A trusts B, and B has a published policy to trust C, then A will also trust C. This continues in a chain, so long as A knows about each policy. (a) If there were only four countries involved, what would be the minimum number of policies needed for everyone to trust the e-passports from everyone else (i) if all the policies were published? [1] (ii) if all the policies were kept secret? [1] Here are five countries and the five relevant published policies (known to all): A B C D E (b) How many more published policies would be needed so that each country can trust e-passports from all the others? Draw a diagram showing an example. [2] A federation of 7 countries uses electronic passports, and all the trust policies are published. (c) The original passport readers took 30 seconds to check each step in the chain, so it was suggested that chains should be no longer than 2 steps (e.g. A trusts B and B trusts C) to ensure there is never more than a minute’s wait when passports are checked. (i) Show a scheme for this federation as a diagram, with the minimum number of policies such that each party can trust any other with a chain of at most 2 steps. Indicate how many policies are required. [2] (ii) If one country were to leave the federation, what is the worst outcome for the rest? [1] (d) A scheme was devised for this federation in which all policies were reciprocated (i.e. if A trusts B then B trusts A) around a single loop. If one country left, what would be the increase in the longest chain that would be needed between any two countries? [1] Faster equipment has reduced the time to check, but they want to minimise the average time to wait for a check to be made without having too many policies or problems if one country leaves. Two schemes are proposed, both of which are symmetrical and so provide the same scenario to each country. Checks are always done using a chain that is as short as possible. Skip 1 Skip 2 (e) If all checks are equally likely, and no country leaves, which scheme is better? Explain your answer. [2]
10 marks
Mark scheme: 2(a)(i) There must be 4. 1 2(a)(ii) All 12 distinct ordered pairs. 1 2(b) Both C and E need to trust others, and there are solutions with just 2: 2 EA and CA (or CB or CD or CE), or CA and EC (or EB or ED) 2 marks for any complete and correct diagram (condone omission of given 5 arrows) 1 mark for any diagram in which all trust relationships present, but also superfluous ones but with a maximum of 4 extra connections. SC: 1 mark for links identified but not shown in diagram. 2(c)(i) One country has to trust all others, and all others have to trust it: a six- 2 pointed star. 2 × 6 = 12 policies are required. 1 mark for any directed graph with desired property but which is not minimal SC: 1 mark for correct structure with 6 nodes instead of 7. 2(c)(ii) The departure of the central country would remove all trusted links for 1 everyone. 2(d) Rotational symmetry means that we only have to look at one case. 1 Longest chain was 3, is now 5, so difference of 2 Must be supported 2(e) 2 All countries are the same (by symmetry). The minimum steps others are: Skip 1: 1,1,2,2,3,3; Skip 2: 1,2,1,2,3,2 So Skip 2 is better by 1 step in 6 passport checks. 1 mark for Skip 2 with supporting evidence of decision. 1 mark for satisfactory quantification of the difference: allow any clear, precise explanation, e.g. average number of checks, total checks for all chains for 1 particular country, etc.
3 Peregrine is spending a week walking along a famous mountain path. He is planning to walk from hostel to hostel, staying each night at a different one. All the people that he meets on the path are also walking the same route, in one direction or the other, and also staying at hostels. His map does not show the locations of the hostels, and so he does not know the distances between them. He assumes that everyone else on the path does know the distances, but he does not speak the local language and avoids talking to anyone he meets. No-one walks before 06:00 or after 18:00 each day. No hostels are more than 36 km apart. Peregrine assumes that he and all other walkers walk at 3 km/h (i.e. 1 km every 20 minutes). On Monday, Peregrine sets off at 07:00, and at 11:00 meets the first walker coming from the next hostel along the path. (a) What is the greatest distance there could be between the two hostels? [2] This walker in fact set off at 07:30, and took a 30-minute break just before meeting Peregrine. (b) At what time will Peregrine reach the next hostel, if he takes no breaks himself? [1] On Tuesday, Peregrine sets off at 09:00. He thinks that the next hostel along this part of the path may be quite far away, and is concerned that he may not reach it before 18:00. (c) At what time should he turn back if he has not met anyone yet? Explain your answer. [2] He knows that some walkers do not walk all the way from one hostel to the next. Instead, they walk out along the path for a while and then return back the way they came. On Wednesday, Peregrine leaves his hostel at 09:00. (d) What is the latest time that he could pass a walker who was returning to the hostel that they both started the day in? [2] Peregrine thinks that most walkers are one of two types: • The first type like to get to the next hostel as early as possible, in order to relax when they get there. These walkers set off at 06:00 and do not take any breaks. • The second type like to have lunch up in the mountains. These walkers plan their journey so that they are exactly halfway between hostels at 13:00. They stay at this point for an hour to eat lunch before continuing their journey. On Thursday, Peregrine sets off at 09:20, and meets the first walkers coming the other way at 10:20. (e) At what time should he expect to meet those who are having lunch in the mountains? [4] On Friday and Saturday, Peregrine walks in the foothills, where the path is less steep. Families with young children often walk on these sections of the path, and they are also popular with runners. He assumes that families walk at 2 km/h, and runners run at 4 km/h. On Friday, Peregrine sets off from his hostel at 09:00. He overtakes a family at 14:00. (f) (i) What is the maximum amount of time he might have to walk to reach the next hostel? [1] (ii) What is the latest time he can expect to overtake a family who set off from the same hostel as him? [1] On Saturday, Peregrine sets off from his hostel at 11:00. (g) What is the latest time that a runner who overtakes him could have set off from the same hostel as him? [2]
15 marks
Mark scheme: 3(a) Peregrine has been walking 07:00 until 11:00 = 4 hours = 12 km 2 other walker could have been walking from 06:00 until 11:00: 5 hours = 15 km 1 mark for either of 12 km or 15 km seen 9 × 3 = 27 km 3(b) Effectively 8 am start for other walker : 9 km / 3 hour walk 1 So Peregrine will reach his destination at 11am + 3 hours = 14:00 3(c) If he does not meet someone by 12:00 [1] he should turn back. 2 The person he meets may have been walking since 06:00 (18 km travelled) and he may therefore have that far to go [1]. 3(d) Furthest out and back would be 06:00 + 18 km = 12:00. 2 If P left at 9 am he will have walked 9 km by then They walk towards each other and meet at 13:30 [2] Award 1 mark for considering the distance or time walked by someone starting at any time between 06:00 and 09:00 3(e) At 10:20 the first walkers will have walked for 4 hours 20 minutes = 13 km [1] 4 He has walked 1 hour = 3 km. So 16 km [1] between hostels, so halfway point is 8 km in. This will take Peregrine 2 hours 40 minutes to accomplish: 12:00 [1] Picnickers leave at 10:20 in order to reach halfway point at 13:00 They will meet at 12:30 3(f)(i) The family must be at the hostel by nightfall: 1 14:00 to 18:00 = 4 hours = 8 km = 2 hours 40 minutes for Peregrine 3(f)(ii) If the family sets off at 6 am, and walks without stopping, they walk ‘2t’ km in 1 the hours after 6 am and he walks 3(t – 3) km. These are equal when t = 9 : at 15:00 3(g) Maximum distance to next hostel = 7 hours = 21 km 2 For the runner this is 21/4 [1] hours at 4 km/h. He must have set off no later than 12:45
4 This map shows the ferry routes on Lake Veronica, together with the time taken to sail from each stop to the next. Carleton 31 mins 15 mins 21 mins Ockelman Is Detlie 12 mins Toth 17 mins 26 mins Munro Three ferry boats, Constance, Frances and Marie, based at Carleton Ferry Terminal, operate on the lake. Constance sails between Carleton and Munro via Detlie, daily. Frances sails between Carleton and Munro via Toth, daily. Marie sails between Carleton and Toth via Ockelman Island, on Fridays, Saturdays and Sundays only. Ferry Departure Times Constance (Daily) Carleton → Munro → Carleton Carleton 08:00 10:25 12:50 15:15 17:40 Detlie 08:37 11:02 13:27 15:52 18:17 Munro 09:09 11:34 13:59 16:24 18:49 Detlie 09:41 12:06 14:31 16:56 19:21 Frances (Daily) Carleton → Munro → Carleton Carleton 08:30 10:30 12:30 14:30 16:30 18:30 Toth 08:57 10:57 12:57 14:57 16:57 18:57 Munro 09:20 11:20 13:20 15:20 17:20 19:20 Toth 09:43 11:43 13:43 15:43 17:43 19:43 Marie (Fridays, Saturdays and Sundays only) Carleton → Ockelman Island → Carleton Carleton 09:00 10:40 12:20 14:00 15:40 17:20 Ockelman Is. 09:21 11:01 12:41 14:21 16:01 17:41 Toth 09:39 11:19 12:59 14:39 16:19 17:59 Ockelman Is. 09:57 11:37 13:17 14:57 16:37 18:17 Ticket Prices Child Adult (under 16) One Both One Both way ways way ways Carleton – Detlie Carleton – Toth $3.40 $5.10 $2.00 $3.00 Detlie – Munro Munro – Toth Carleton – Munro $5.20 $7.80 $3.10 $4.60 Detlie – Toth Carleton or Toth – Ockelman Is. – Carleton or Toth – $6.30 – $3.80 Day Roamer Ticket: Mon, Tues, Wed, Thurs $10.80 $6.50 Fri, Sat, Sun $15.00 $9.00 The Day Roamer ticket allows unlimited travel between stops on the lake for one day, including Ockelman Island on Fridays, Saturdays and Sundays. It is only valid on the day for which it is bought. Tickets from Carleton or Toth to Ockelman Island are only valid for travel on Marie. However, after visiting the island, passengers who travelled out from Carleton may travel on to Toth instead of returning to Carleton, and those who travelled out from Toth may travel on to Carleton instead of returning to Toth. All other tickets are valid for travel by any route, but with these tickets passengers may not leave the boat at intermediate stops, except to change from one boat to another. (a) What is the earliest time in the day that a passenger sailing from Munro can arrive at Carleton on a Monday? [2] (b) On a day when Marie is operating, how much sooner can a passenger who is waiting at Carleton at 15:30 reach Toth by sailing on Marie rather than Frances? [2] [Question 4 continues on the next page] Ockelman Island is a nature reserve which is only open to the public on Fridays, Saturdays and Sundays. The number of visitors arriving onto the island and the number leaving are recorded each time Marie docks. This is done to make sure that nobody is left on the island after the last departure of the day. This is last Saturday’s record. Number of Visitors Arriving Departing 23 0 28 7 37 11 45 18 34 26 33 29 40 34 29 33 21 30 15 47 3 35 0 38 (c) How many visitors were there on Ockelman Island at 13:00 last Saturday? [2] Mr. and Mrs. Sullivan and their two young children arrived at the Munro Ferry Stop at 09:05 on Sunday. They bought Day Roamer tickets, intending to explore the whole lake. They decided to start by sailing to Toth and then across to Ockelman Island as soon as possible. The children enjoyed the nature reserve so much that they stayed much longer than they had intended to and there was only time for them to return to Toth and sail back to Munro. (d) How much more than necessary did the Sullivan family spend on their tickets? [3] A total of 83 Day Roamer tickets were sold for Sunday. The total price of these tickets was $1059. (e) How many of the Day Roamer tickets sold for Sunday were Adult tickets? [2] Susie is on holiday in nearby Bracken and wants to spend the day around Lake Veronica next Tuesday. She will arrive by train at Carleton Railway Station at 09:10. She will have over an hour to look around Carleton before setting off from the Ferry Terminal to explore the other three towns on the lake. She wants to spend at least one hour in both Detlie and Toth, and as long as she possibly can in Munro. Her train back to Bracken departs from Carleton at 20:35. (f) In which order should Susie visit the other towns: Detlie, Munro, Toth, or Toth, Munro, Detlie? Support your answer by giving the greatest amount of time she could spend in Munro for each of the alternatives. [4]
15 marks
Mark scheme: 4(a) Via Detlie, earliest arrival time is 09:41 + 31 mins = 10:12. 2 Via Toth, earliest is 09:43 + 21 mins = 10:04, so earliest is 10:04. 1 mark for either time correct AND an appropriate conclusion from their times if two are given. SC: 1 mark for 10:18 or 10:10 (+6 minutes, uses departure times) SC: 1 mark for 10:06 or 09:58 (–6 minutes, uses sum of travel times from Munro) SC :1 mark for 10:25 or 10:30 (using the departure times from Carleton) 4(b) Earliest arrival times are 16:30 + 21 mins = 16:51 aboard Frances and 16:01 2 (from Ockelman Island) + 12 mins = 16:13 aboard Marie, so 38 mins. 1 mark for either time correct OR 44 minutes (6 minutes on Ockelman Island omitted) 4(c) By 13:00, Marie had stopped five times at the island. According to the 2 record, 23 + 28 + 37 + 45 + 34 = 167 visitors had arrived and (0 +) 7 + 11 + 18 + 26 = 62 had departed, so there were 105 visitors on the island at that time. 1 mark for recognition that the first five rows of figures (and only the first five) are involved in the calculation (indicated by ‘167 arrived’ or ‘62 departed’), or for calculating the number on the island after the 3rd (70), or 4th (97) or 6th (109) ferries have left. 4(d) Cost of Day Roamer tickets = (2 × $15) + (2 × $9) = $48 3 Extraction of ticket prices $5.10 and $3.00 (Munro – Toth) and $6.30 and $3.80 (Ockelman Is.) 2 × ($5.10 + $3.00 + $6.30 + $3.80) = $36.40 Difference $11.60 1 mark each for any of the following (max 2): $48 [whole family day roamer] $18.20/$36.20 [half family/whole family ticket by ticket] $3.60/$7.20 [adult(s) difference] $2.20/$4.40[child(ren) difference] SC: 2 marks for final answer of $5.80 (uses one-way tickets OR only buys tickets for 1 × adult + child) 4(e) 52 × $15 + 31 × $9 = $1059 2 Number of adult tickets = 52 Search method: The criteria for the search are tickets = 83 and income = $1059 1 mark for an initial search that meets either one of the criteria AND for an adjustment that gets closer to the solution Algebraic method (1 mark for parsing algebraically) a + c = 83 AND 15a + 9c = 1059 OR 15x + 9(83 – x) = 1059 4(f) Detlie first [CDMTC] 4 Depart C 10:25, depart D 13:27, arrive M 13:53 Depart M 17:20 3 hours 27 minutes / 207 minutes at Munro Toth first [CTMDC] Depart C 10:30, depart T 12:57, arrive M 13:14 Depart M 16:24 3 hours 10 minutes / 190 minutes at Munro She should therefore visit the towns in the order Detlie, Munro, Toth. 4 marks for 3 hours 27 minutes / 207 minutes and 3 hours 10 minutes / 190 minutes AND statement of the order Detlie, Munro, Toth. 3 marks for 3 hours 27 minutes / 207 minutes OR 3 hours 10 minutes / 190 minutes. 2 marks for three or more correct arrival/departure times in Munro. 1 mark for two correct arrival/departure times in Munro (allowing the 6 minute discrepancy) SC: using the departure times from the table rather than the journey times (i.e. 6 minutes later): 1 mark for arrival and departure times from Munro [13:59 and 17:20, 13:20 and 16:24] OR the time spent on Munro for either route [3 h 21 m or 3 h 04 m] 2 marks for 3 h 21 m AND 3 h 04 m
2 Every year at the two-day Chevalier Horse Show teams of four riders from Frogford, Hockingham and Witherston Horse Clubs take part in a jumping competition. The competition consists of five rounds, all over the same course. The first four rounds take place on the first day of the show and the final round is on the second day. In each round the placings are decided by a combination of the time taken to complete the course and any penalties for hitting fences. It is not possible for two or more riders to be placed jointly in the same position in any round. Points are awarded as follows: Position 1st 2nd 3rd 4th 5th 6th 7th 8th 9th Points 20 15 12 10 8 6 4 2 1 In the first and final rounds the riders all ride their own horses. However, for the second, third and fourth rounds a draw is made to allocate the twelve horses to the riders. The draw is organised such that no rider is allocated a horse from their own club in these rounds and every rider is allocated a different horse in each of the three rounds. The final round of this year’s competition is in progress. Yesterday’s results are detailed below. Frogford Round 1 Round 2 Round 3 Round 4 Rider Total Horse Points Horse Points Horse Points Horse Points Jenny Rocket 0 Aspen 20 Deister 0 Tamino 0 20 Mahela Biscuit 10 Sapphire 0 Aspen 4 Meteor 10 24 Natalie Pedro 12 Tamino 8 Verdi 20 Calypso 1 41 Robert Norton 0 Calypso 4 Harvey 0 Deister 12 16 Team total 101 Hockingham Round 1 Round 2 Round 3 Round 4 Rider Total Horse Points Horse Points Horse Points Horse Points Andrew Verdi 6 Rocket 6 Meteor Pedro 0 13 Dilani Tamino 20 Norton 1 Calypso Sapphire 8 41 Graham Aspen 0 Meteor 15 Sapphire Harvey 20 41 Sana Deister 4 Harvey 0 Rocket Biscuit 0 19 Team total 114 Witherston Round 1 Round 2 Round 3 Round 4 Rider Total Horse Points Horse Points Horse Points Horse Points Brian Sapphire 1 Biscuit 0 Pedro 2 Verdi 15 18 Hanif Calypso 15 Pedro 10 Tamino 10 Rocket 6 41 Laura Harvey 8 Deister 2 Norton 8 Aspen 2 20 Tamsin Meteor 2 Verdi 12 Biscuit 0 Norton 4 18 Team total 97 (a) All four of the Hockingham riders scored points in the third round, but they are missing from the table. In which positions were each of the four Hockingham riders placed in the third round? [2] (b) Andrew is disappointed to be in last place individually after the fourth round, but he is proud of his horse Verdi. How many points have riders from the other two clubs scored in total while riding Verdi? [1] (c) Which horse failed to provide its riders with any points at all in the second, third and fourth rounds? [1] (d) Which of the Hockingham riders rode three horses from the same club in the second, third and fourth rounds? [1] (e) In the second round, Sana was originally placed third. However, she was later disqualified when it was discovered that she had crossed the start line before the starting bell had been rung. How many more points would Hockingham have scored in the second round if Sana had not been disqualified? [2] There is a trophy for the winning team, and also one for the top individual rider. If there is a tie for first place after the fifth round, for either the team or the individual trophy, then that trophy is shared. Last year all three teams shared the team trophy. The individual trophy was also shared, between two riders. (f) Explain why there will definitely not be a tie for the trophy for the top individual rider this year, assuming no disqualifications. [4] In today’s final round, four riders have already jumped and the current positions in this round are as follows: 1st Tamsin; 2nd Andrew; 3rd Robert; 4th Brian (g) Give a final order of positions of the riders in today’s round that would result in a three-way tie for the team trophy again this year. [4]
15 marks
Mark scheme: 2(a) Andrew 9th; Dilani 3rd; Graham 6th; Sana 2nd 2 1 mark (max) for any of the following: • two or three positions correct • sight of correct number of points for all four riders (1, 12, 6, and 15 respectively) • all four correct positions without the names of the riders 2(b) 12 (Tamsin), 20 (Natalie) and 15 (Brian) makes 1 47 (points) 2(c) Biscuit (ridden by Brian, Tamsin and Sana) 1 2(d) Graham (rode Meteor, Sapphire and Harvey from Witherston) 1 2(e) Andrew would have scored 4 instead of 6; 2 Dilani would have scored 0 instead of 1. 1 mark for either Sana would have scored 12 instead of 0. 12 – 2 – 1 = 9 2(f) 1 mark for each of the following: 4 • None of the (seven) riders who have fewer than 21 points at the end of the fourth round can win. • At least one of the (four) riders with 41 points will score (because only three score no points). • All the riders with 41 points who score will score a different number of points. • Mahela could total 44 points (if he wins the round), but none of those with 41 points could tie with him (because it is not possible to score 3 points). 2(g) 4 marks for any assignment of positions to the riders that does not violate 4 the order for the four known riders and is consistent with the correct total points. If 4 not scored: A three-way tie requires each team to have (5 × 78 ÷ 3 =) 130 points. [1] OR (78 – 30 =) 48 points to split between them, so 16 each [1] Therefore Frogford need (16 + 13 =) 29 points, Hockingham 16 points and Witherston (16 + 17=) 33 points. [1] 1 mark for any valid allocation of points that gives the right total for each team, e.g. 15 + 10 + 4 + 0 = 29; 8 + 6 + 2 + 0 = 16; 20 + 12 + 1 + 0 = 33.
3 Tridaw is a game played between 2 teams of 3 players. Each round of a match is played by one player from each of the teams. A match consists of 9 rounds, divided into 3 groups of 3. Each player of a team must play in one round in each of the groups, and no two rounds can be played by the same two players against each other. The winning team for each round in the first group scores 1 point. The winning team for each round in the second group scores 3 points. The winning team for each round in the third group scores 5 points. The team with the most points at the end of the 9 rounds wins the match. (a) What is the lowest possible winning score for a match of Tridaw? [1] To determine in which group each pair of players will compete against each other, the team captains take it in turns to fill in a table. For today’s match between the Hawks and the Griffins, the captain of the Hawks decided to pair Karl with Steven in group 3. The captain of the Griffins then chose to pair Roger with Len in group 1. The table now looks as shown below. Hawks Jack Karl Len Roger 1 Griffins Steven 3 Tom There is now only one possible way in which the remaining values in the table can be completed according to the rules. (b) Show how all of the remaining pairs will be allocated to groups 1, 2 or 3. [2] (c) Give an example of an allocation of two initial pairs that would have left more than one way for the grid to be completed. [1] The winners of each of the rounds are shown in the table below. Hawks Jack Karl Len Roger Roger Karl Roger Griffins Steven Jack Steven Len Tom Jack Tom Len (d) What was the final score in the match? [2] After the match, Tom complained that they had lost because the captain had made the wrong decision when he chose to pair Roger with Len in group 1 (after the opposing captain had decided to pair Karl with Steven in group 3). Tom says that, assuming that the winner of the round between any pair of players would have been the same whichever group that round was played in, the outcome of the match could have been different. (e) (i) What is the greatest score that Tom thinks the Griffins team could have achieved if the captain had made a different decision? [2] (ii) Which group would the captain have had to specify for the round between Roger and Len in order to be sure to achieve the greatest score? Explain why it is the only possibility that guarantees this greatest score. [2]
10 marks
Mark scheme: 3(a) There is a total of 3 × 1 + 3 × 3 + 3 × 5 = 27 points available, so the winning 1 team must score at least 14. 3(b) 3 2 1 2 1 3 2 2 1 3 1 mark for a completed grid in which there are no repetitions in any row OR no repetitions in any column. 3(c) Any example that is either two allocations to the same group or two 1 allocations in the same row or column. 3(d) Griffins: 2×1 + 2×5 = 12 points. [1] 2 Hawks: 1×1 + 3×3 + 1×5 = 15 points. [1] SC: 1 mark for 12 and 15 with no indication of teams. 3(e)(i) 16 2 1 mark for evidence of different decision leading to Roger scoring 8 points instead of 6 OR Tom scoring 3 points instead of 1. 3(e)(ii) Specifying group 2 would force all the remaining rounds to be as required / If 2 the captain of the Griffins had specified group 3 for this round then the remaining rounds would not have been determined [1] and so the other captain’s selection might have put the other Griffin wins into group 1 rather than group 2 (giving the Griffins a score of 12). [1]
4 Sally is organising a charity concert next month. She has booked the hall and is deciding on the price that she should set for tickets. She has researched the numbers of tickets sold for five similar concerts in the past. In each of the concerts that she has researched only one price of ticket was available. The results of her research are shown in the table. Ticket Number Number price ($) available sold 20 200 161 25 200 129 30 100 100 35 150 101 40 150 79 Sally thinks that the number of people willing to buy a ticket will reduce by a similar amount for every extra $5 charged. She assumes that anyone who attended one of the concerts would have been interested in attending all of the concerts. (a) Which row of the table is inconsistent with the others, if Sally is correct? [1] For all of the concerts the profit was given to charity. The total cost for use of a venue depends on the size of the venue, which is indicated by the number of tickets available for the concert. The total cost for a venue is $4 for each available ticket, plus an additional $200. (b) Which was the concert that gave the most to charity, and how much was given? [3] Sally devises a model to help her to plan her concert. She assumes that 160 people would be willing to buy a ticket priced at $20, and the number will reduce by 20 people for every additional $5 on the price. Sally will only consider prices that are a multiple of $5. The maximum number of tickets that Sally can sell for her concert is 150. (c) What is the maximum income Sally could receive from the sale of tickets? [2] Sally discussed her plans for the concert with a friend, Julia. There are 60 premium seats in the hall, so Julia suggested that Sally should charge a higher price for these. The other 90 seats would be offered at the standard price. Sally makes the following assumptions: A) Any customer who is willing to pay for one will buy a higher-priced ticket, if one is still available. B) Any customer who is willing to buy a higher-priced ticket is willing to buy one of the standard tickets, if no higher-priced tickets are available. For example, if the higher price were $25 and the standard price $20, all 60 premium tickets would be sold and there would still be 100 people willing to buy a standard ticket, so all 150 tickets would be sold. (d) What two prices should Sally set for the tickets to give the maximum possible income? [3] Julia pointed out to Sally that she disagrees with the first of Sally’s assumptions (assumption A). She thinks that some of the customers who would be willing to buy tickets at the higher price might still choose to buy the standard ones if they are still available. Julia estimates that half of the customers who would buy at the higher price would do this. Sally therefore adjusts her model so that the number of people who would be willing to buy a higher-priced ticket is now half of what it was before. (e) (i) By how much would Sally expect her income to be reduced, if she keeps the prices found in part (d)? [2] (ii) With the adjusted model, what two prices will produce the highest possible income? [4]
15 marks
Mark scheme: 4(a) The increase of price between the cheapest and most expensive tickets was 1 $20 and the drop in sales was approximately 80. The sales for $20, $30, $35 and $40 are consistent with a drop of sales by 20 for each additional $5 on the price (the $30 are consistent as the capacity had been reached, so it is possible that another 20 customers would have bought tickets). The $25 row is the inconsistent one (allow any clear identification of the row). 4(b) The concert with tickets $35 made the largest donation to charity. [1] 3 The income was a total of $3535. [1] The cost of the venue was $800, so the donation to charity was $2735. 4(c) The options for the amount that Sally earns are: 2 Ticket price Number sold Amount made $20 150 $3000 $25 140 $3500 $30 120 $3600 $35 100 $3500 $40 80 $3200 The total income reduces as the price increases. The most that Sally can receive from sales is therefore $3600. 1 mark for any correct total income calculated. 4(d) Sally’s model predicts that 60 tickets would sell at $45 and only 40 would 3 sell at $50, so the best choice of price for the more expensive tickets would be $45. [1] For the remaining tickets, the options are shown in the table below. Ticket price Number sold Amount made $20 90 $1800 $25 80 $2000 $30 60 $1800 $35 40 $1400 $40 20 $800 1 mark for a correct calculation with the adjusted number sold. It is therefore best to set the cheaper price as $25. [1] 4(e)(i) 30 tickets would not be sold at the higher price, reducing the income by 2 $1350. But 10 additional standard tickets can be sold for an extra $250. The expected income would be reduced by $1100. 1 mark for $600 or $1350. ft their $25 in (d). 4(e)(ii) Working through the different options, starting with the higher price: 4 Higher Number Lower Number Total Income Income price sold price sold income $30 60 $1800 $25 80 $2000 $3800 $35 50 $1750 $25 90 $2250 $4000 $40 40 $1600 $30 80 $2400 $4000 $45 30 $1350 $30 90 $2700 $4050 $50 20 $1000 $35 80 $2800 $3800 $55 10 $550 $35 90 $3150 $3700 Sally should therefore charge $45 for the more expensive tickets and $30 for the cheaper tickets. 1 mark for identifying the correct total income for any combination of ticket prices. 1 mark for finding the best lower price to go with a given higher price. 1 mark for reaching a combination that generates an income of at least $4000.
2 Every year at the two-day Chevalier Horse Show teams of four riders from Frogford, Hockingham and Witherston Horse Clubs take part in a jumping competition. The competition consists of five rounds, all over the same course. The first four rounds take place on the first day of the show and the final round is on the second day. In each round the placings are decided by a combination of the time taken to complete the course and any penalties for hitting fences. It is not possible for two or more riders to be placed jointly in the same position in any round. Points are awarded as follows: Position 1st 2nd 3rd 4th 5th 6th 7th 8th 9th Points 20 15 12 10 8 6 4 2 1 In the first and final rounds the riders all ride their own horses. However, for the second, third and fourth rounds a draw is made to allocate the twelve horses to the riders. The draw is organised such that no rider is allocated a horse from their own club in these rounds and every rider is allocated a different horse in each of the three rounds. The final round of this year’s competition is in progress. Yesterday’s results are detailed below. Frogford Round 1 Round 2 Round 3 Round 4 Rider Total Horse Points Horse Points Horse Points Horse Points Jenny Rocket 0 Aspen 20 Deister 0 Tamino 0 20 Mahela Biscuit 10 Sapphire 0 Aspen 4 Meteor 10 24 Natalie Pedro 12 Tamino 8 Verdi 20 Calypso 1 41 Robert Norton 0 Calypso 4 Harvey 0 Deister 12 16 Team total 101 Hockingham Round 1 Round 2 Round 3 Round 4 Rider Total Horse Points Horse Points Horse Points Horse Points Andrew Verdi 6 Rocket 6 Meteor Pedro 0 13 Dilani Tamino 20 Norton 1 Calypso Sapphire 8 41 Graham Aspen 0 Meteor 15 Sapphire Harvey 20 41 Sana Deister 4 Harvey 0 Rocket Biscuit 0 19 Team total 114 Witherston Round 1 Round 2 Round 3 Round 4 Rider Total Horse Points Horse Points Horse Points Horse Points Brian Sapphire 1 Biscuit 0 Pedro 2 Verdi 15 18 Hanif Calypso 15 Pedro 10 Tamino 10 Rocket 6 41 Laura Harvey 8 Deister 2 Norton 8 Aspen 2 20 Tamsin Meteor 2 Verdi 12 Biscuit 0 Norton 4 18 Team total 97 (a) All four of the Hockingham riders scored points in the third round, but they are missing from the table. In which positions were each of the four Hockingham riders placed in the third round? [2] (b) Andrew is disappointed to be in last place individually after the fourth round, but he is proud of his horse Verdi. How many points have riders from the other two clubs scored in total while riding Verdi? [1] (c) Which horse failed to provide its riders with any points at all in the second, third and fourth rounds? [1] (d) Which of the Hockingham riders rode three horses from the same club in the second, third and fourth rounds? [1] (e) In the second round, Sana was originally placed third. However, she was later disqualified when it was discovered that she had crossed the start line before the starting bell had been rung. How many more points would Hockingham have scored in the second round if Sana had not been disqualified? [2] There is a trophy for the winning team, and also one for the top individual rider. If there is a tie for first place after the fifth round, for either the team or the individual trophy, then that trophy is shared. Last year all three teams shared the team trophy. The individual trophy was also shared, between two riders. (f) Explain why there will definitely not be a tie for the trophy for the top individual rider this year, assuming no disqualifications. [4] In today’s final round, four riders have already jumped and the current positions in this round are as follows: 1st Tamsin; 2nd Andrew; 3rd Robert; 4th Brian (g) Give a final order of positions of the riders in today’s round that would result in a three-way tie for the team trophy again this year. [4]
15 marks
Mark scheme: 2(a) Andrew 9th; Dilani 3rd; Graham 6th; Sana 2nd 2 1 mark (max) for any of the following: • two or three positions correct • sight of correct number of points for all four riders (1, 12, 6, and 15 respectively) • all four correct positions without the names of the riders 2(b) 12 (Tamsin), 20 (Natalie) and 15 (Brian) makes 1 47 (points) 2(c) Biscuit (ridden by Brian, Tamsin and Sana) 1 2(d) Graham (rode Meteor, Sapphire and Harvey from Witherston) 1 2(e) Andrew would have scored 4 instead of 6; 2 Dilani would have scored 0 instead of 1. 1 mark for either Sana would have scored 12 instead of 0. 12 – 2 – 1 = 9 2(f) 1 mark for each of the following: 4 • None of the (seven) riders who have fewer than 21 points at the end of the fourth round can win. • At least one of the (four) riders with 41 points will score (because only three score no points). • All the riders with 41 points who score will score a different number of points. • Mahela could total 44 points (if he wins the round), but none of those with 41 points could tie with him (because it is not possible to score 3 points). 2(g) 4 marks for any assignment of positions to the riders that does not violate 4 the order for the four known riders and is consistent with the correct total points. If 4 not scored: A three-way tie requires each team to have (5 × 78 ÷ 3 =) 130 points. [1] OR (78 – 30 =) 48 points to split between them, so 16 each [1] Therefore Frogford need (16 + 13 =) 29 points, Hockingham 16 points and Witherston (16 + 17=) 33 points. [1] 1 mark for any valid allocation of points that gives the right total for each team, e.g. 15 + 10 + 4 + 0 = 29; 8 + 6 + 2 + 0 = 16; 20 + 12 + 1 + 0 = 33.
3 Tridaw is a game played between 2 teams of 3 players. Each round of a match is played by one player from each of the teams. A match consists of 9 rounds, divided into 3 groups of 3. Each player of a team must play in one round in each of the groups, and no two rounds can be played by the same two players against each other. The winning team for each round in the first group scores 1 point. The winning team for each round in the second group scores 3 points. The winning team for each round in the third group scores 5 points. The team with the most points at the end of the 9 rounds wins the match. (a) What is the lowest possible winning score for a match of Tridaw? [1] To determine in which group each pair of players will compete against each other, the team captains take it in turns to fill in a table. For today’s match between the Hawks and the Griffins, the captain of the Hawks decided to pair Karl with Steven in group 3. The captain of the Griffins then chose to pair Roger with Len in group 1. The table now looks as shown below. Hawks Jack Karl Len Roger 1 Griffins Steven 3 Tom There is now only one possible way in which the remaining values in the table can be completed according to the rules. (b) Show how all of the remaining pairs will be allocated to groups 1, 2 or 3. [2] (c) Give an example of an allocation of two initial pairs that would have left more than one way for the grid to be completed. [1] The winners of each of the rounds are shown in the table below. Hawks Jack Karl Len Roger Roger Karl Roger Griffins Steven Jack Steven Len Tom Jack Tom Len (d) What was the final score in the match? [2] After the match, Tom complained that they had lost because the captain had made the wrong decision when he chose to pair Roger with Len in group 1 (after the opposing captain had decided to pair Karl with Steven in group 3). Tom says that, assuming that the winner of the round between any pair of players would have been the same whichever group that round was played in, the outcome of the match could have been different. (e) (i) What is the greatest score that Tom thinks the Griffins team could have achieved if the captain had made a different decision? [2] (ii) Which group would the captain have had to specify for the round between Roger and Len in order to be sure to achieve the greatest score? Explain why it is the only possibility that guarantees this greatest score. [2]
10 marks
Mark scheme: 3(a) There is a total of 3 × 1 + 3 × 3 + 3 × 5 = 27 points available, so the winning 1 team must score at least 14. 3(b) 3 2 1 2 1 3 2 2 1 3 1 mark for a completed grid in which there are no repetitions in any row OR no repetitions in any column. 3(c) Any example that is either two allocations to the same group or two 1 allocations in the same row or column. 3(d) Griffins: 2×1 + 2×5 = 12 points. [1] 2 Hawks: 1×1 + 3×3 + 1×5 = 15 points. [1] SC: 1 mark for 12 and 15 with no indication of teams. 3(e)(i) 16 2 1 mark for evidence of different decision leading to Roger scoring 8 points instead of 6 OR Tom scoring 3 points instead of 1. 3(e)(ii) Specifying group 2 would force all the remaining rounds to be as required / If 2 the captain of the Griffins had specified group 3 for this round then the remaining rounds would not have been determined [1] and so the other captain’s selection might have put the other Griffin wins into group 1 rather than group 2 (giving the Griffins a score of 12). [1]
4 Sally is organising a charity concert next month. She has booked the hall and is deciding on the price that she should set for tickets. She has researched the numbers of tickets sold for five similar concerts in the past. In each of the concerts that she has researched only one price of ticket was available. The results of her research are shown in the table. Ticket Number Number price ($) available sold 20 200 161 25 200 129 30 100 100 35 150 101 40 150 79 Sally thinks that the number of people willing to buy a ticket will reduce by a similar amount for every extra $5 charged. She assumes that anyone who attended one of the concerts would have been interested in attending all of the concerts. (a) Which row of the table is inconsistent with the others, if Sally is correct? [1] For all of the concerts the profit was given to charity. The total cost for use of a venue depends on the size of the venue, which is indicated by the number of tickets available for the concert. The total cost for a venue is $4 for each available ticket, plus an additional $200. (b) Which was the concert that gave the most to charity, and how much was given? [3] Sally devises a model to help her to plan her concert. She assumes that 160 people would be willing to buy a ticket priced at $20, and the number will reduce by 20 people for every additional $5 on the price. Sally will only consider prices that are a multiple of $5. The maximum number of tickets that Sally can sell for her concert is 150. (c) What is the maximum income Sally could receive from the sale of tickets? [2] Sally discussed her plans for the concert with a friend, Julia. There are 60 premium seats in the hall, so Julia suggested that Sally should charge a higher price for these. The other 90 seats would be offered at the standard price. Sally makes the following assumptions: A) Any customer who is willing to pay for one will buy a higher-priced ticket, if one is still available. B) Any customer who is willing to buy a higher-priced ticket is willing to buy one of the standard tickets, if no higher-priced tickets are available. For example, if the higher price were $25 and the standard price $20, all 60 premium tickets would be sold and there would still be 100 people willing to buy a standard ticket, so all 150 tickets would be sold. (d) What two prices should Sally set for the tickets to give the maximum possible income? [3] Julia pointed out to Sally that she disagrees with the first of Sally’s assumptions (assumption A). She thinks that some of the customers who would be willing to buy tickets at the higher price might still choose to buy the standard ones if they are still available. Julia estimates that half of the customers who would buy at the higher price would do this. Sally therefore adjusts her model so that the number of people who would be willing to buy a higher-priced ticket is now half of what it was before. (e) (i) By how much would Sally expect her income to be reduced, if she keeps the prices found in part (d)? [2] (ii) With the adjusted model, what two prices will produce the highest possible income? [4]
15 marks
Mark scheme: 4(a) The increase of price between the cheapest and most expensive tickets was 1 $20 and the drop in sales was approximately 80. The sales for $20, $30, $35 and $40 are consistent with a drop of sales by 20 for each additional $5 on the price (the $30 are consistent as the capacity had been reached, so it is possible that another 20 customers would have bought tickets). The $25 row is the inconsistent one (allow any clear identification of the row). 4(b) The concert with tickets $35 made the largest donation to charity. [1] 3 The income was a total of $3535. [1] The cost of the venue was $800, so the donation to charity was $2735. 4(c) The options for the amount that Sally earns are: 2 Ticket price Number sold Amount made $20 150 $3000 $25 140 $3500 $30 120 $3600 $35 100 $3500 $40 80 $3200 The total income reduces as the price increases. The most that Sally can receive from sales is therefore $3600. 1 mark for any correct total income calculated. 4(d) Sally’s model predicts that 60 tickets would sell at $45 and only 40 would 3 sell at $50, so the best choice of price for the more expensive tickets would be $45. [1] For the remaining tickets, the options are shown in the table below. Ticket price Number sold Amount made $20 90 $1800 $25 80 $2000 $30 60 $1800 $35 40 $1400 $40 20 $800 1 mark for a correct calculation with the adjusted number sold. It is therefore best to set the cheaper price as $25. [1] 4(e)(i) 30 tickets would not be sold at the higher price, reducing the income by 2 $1350. But 10 additional standard tickets can be sold for an extra $250. The expected income would be reduced by $1100. 1 mark for $600 or $1350. ft their $25 in (d). 4(e)(ii) Working through the different options, starting with the higher price: 4 Higher Number Lower Number Total Income Income price sold price sold income $30 60 $1800 $25 80 $2000 $3800 $35 50 $1750 $25 90 $2250 $4000 $40 40 $1600 $30 80 $2400 $4000 $45 30 $1350 $30 90 $2700 $4050 $50 20 $1000 $35 80 $2800 $3800 $55 10 $550 $35 90 $3150 $3700 Sally should therefore charge $45 for the more expensive tickets and $30 for the cheaper tickets. 1 mark for identifying the correct total income for any combination of ticket prices. 1 mark for finding the best lower price to go with a given higher price. 1 mark for reaching a combination that generates an income of at least $4000.
1 In a country where too much food is grown it was decided to pay farmers to leave 10% of their land unused. This is called a set-aside subsidy. The administrators expected that paying for 10% of the land to be left unused would result in a 10% reduction in production. However, the farmers (unsurprisingly) selected the least productive 10% of the land. Jacques has two fields, each 500 m by 400 m, separated by a thin hedge and surrounded by a stone wall. Each field contains 20 hectares of land (1 hectare = 10 000 m2). The annual yield in tonnes for each hectare is shown: the top field can yield 91 tonnes in total, and the bottom field 64 tonnes in total. 4 4 5 6 6 4 4 5 5 6 3 4 4 5 6 2 3 4 5 6 2 3 4 5 6 2 3 4 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 1 2 3 4 Jacques stopped using the hectares representing the least productive 10% of each field. (a) How many more tonnes did Jacques produce than the administrators expected? [2] If Jacques removed the hedge between the fields he could claim to have only one large field, and so increase his production without loss of subsidy. (b) How many more tonnes could Jacques grow by doing this? [1] The set-aside subsidy is calculated as 15% of the total possible yield from a field (i.e. as if no land were set-aside), multiplied by last year’s sale price for the crop. Last year’s price for Jacques’ crop was $900 per tonne. (c) How much set-aside subsidy would Jacques get this year? [2] Jacques hopes to sell his crop for $1000 per tonne this year. He knows that there is also an annual environmental grant for having hedges. However, he has discovered that if he cuts away just 100 m of hedge he would be able to consider all his land to be one field. (d) What is the highest hedge grant per 100 m that would lead to a higher total income if he does this? [2] The selling price of crops varies from year to year. (e) What is the smallest price per tonne for this year that would mean a farmer would make more money overall by not setting aside any of his or her land? [2] Jacques predicted that next year would be such a high price per tonne that no set-aside would be worthwhile, so he grew a hedge between each hectare of his land so that he could get the subsidy for having them next year. (f) How many metres of hedge would he now have in total? [1] [Question 2 begins on the next page]
10 marks
Mark scheme: Question Answer Marks 1(a) Two hectares from each 20 hectare field, so least are 2 + 3 and 1 + 1 [1] 2 = 7, Original was 155 so 15.5 expected 15.5 – 7 = 8.5. 1 mark for 7 or 15.5 seen SC: 1 mark for treating as one field: 1 + 1 + 1 + 2 = 5 hectares out of action. So, 10.5 more than expected. 1(b) Least four hectares of the combined area produce 1 + 1 + 1 + 2 = 5, 1 so 7 – 5 = 2 OR 150 – 148 = 2 FT their 7 OR their 148 from (a) 1(c) $900 × 15% × 155 = $20 925 2 1 mark for 15% correctly combined with one of other numbers. 1(d) $1999 ignore cents. 2 Accept ⩽ $2000 FT (b) × $1000 1 mark for $2001 or > $2000 1(e) The largest percentage loss is 10% [1] 2 from a field of uniform production. The threshold is when 10% of the new price is 15% of the old, or $1350. 1(f) 100m of 4 × 8 (down) + 7 × 5 (across) = 6700 m 1
1 In a country where too much food is grown it was decided to pay farmers to leave 10% of their land unused. This is called a set-aside subsidy. The administrators expected that paying for 10% of the land to be left unused would result in a 10% reduction in production. However, the farmers (unsurprisingly) selected the least productive 10% of the land. Jacques has two fields, each 500 m by 400 m, separated by a thin hedge and surrounded by a stone wall. Each field contains 20 hectares of land (1 hectare = 10 000 m2). The annual yield in tonnes for each hectare is shown: the top field can yield 91 tonnes in total, and the bottom field 64 tonnes in total. 4 4 5 6 6 4 4 5 5 6 3 4 4 5 6 2 3 4 5 6 2 3 4 5 6 2 3 4 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 1 2 3 4 Jacques stopped using the hectares representing the least productive 10% of each field. (a) How many more tonnes did Jacques produce than the administrators expected? [2] If Jacques removed the hedge between the fields he could claim to have only one large field, and so increase his production without loss of subsidy. (b) How many more tonnes could Jacques grow by doing this? [1] The set-aside subsidy is calculated as 15% of the total possible yield from a field (i.e. as if no land were set-aside), multiplied by last year’s sale price for the crop. Last year’s price for Jacques’ crop was $900 per tonne. (c) How much set-aside subsidy would Jacques get this year? [2] Jacques hopes to sell his crop for $1000 per tonne this year. He knows that there is also an annual environmental grant for having hedges. However, he has discovered that if he cuts away just 100 m of hedge he would be able to consider all his land to be one field. (d) What is the highest hedge grant per 100 m that would lead to a higher total income if he does this? [2] The selling price of crops varies from year to year. (e) What is the smallest price per tonne for this year that would mean a farmer would make more money overall by not setting aside any of his or her land? [2] Jacques predicted that next year would be such a high price per tonne that no set-aside would be worthwhile, so he grew a hedge between each hectare of his land so that he could get the subsidy for having them next year. (f) How many metres of hedge would he now have in total? [1] [Question 2 begins on the next page]
10 marks
Mark scheme: Question Answer Marks 1(a) Two hectares from each 20 hectare field, so least are 2 + 3 and 1 + 1 [1] 2 = 7, Original was 155 so 15.5 expected 15.5 – 7 = 8.5. 1 mark for 7 or 15.5 seen SC: 1 mark for treating as one field: 1 + 1 + 1 + 2 = 5 hectares out of action. So, 10.5 more than expected. 1(b) Least four hectares of the combined area produce 1 + 1 + 1 + 2 = 5, 1 so 7 – 5 = 2 OR 150 – 148 = 2 FT their 7 OR their 148 from (a) 1(c) $900 × 15% × 155 = $20 925 2 1 mark for 15% correctly combined with one of other numbers. 1(d) $1999 ignore cents. 2 Accept ⩽ $2000 FT (b) × $1000 1 mark for $2001 or > $2000 1(e) The largest percentage loss is 10% [1] 2 from a field of uniform production. The threshold is when 10% of the new price is 15% of the old, or $1350. 1(f) 100m of 4 × 8 (down) + 7 × 5 (across) = 6700 m 1
1 In a country where too much food is grown it was decided to pay farmers to leave 10% of their land unused. This is called a set-aside subsidy. The administrators expected that paying for 10% of the land to be left unused would result in a 10% reduction in production. However, the farmers (unsurprisingly) selected the least productive 10% of the land. Jacques has two fields, each 500 m by 400 m, separated by a thin hedge and surrounded by a stone wall. Each field contains 20 hectares of land (1 hectare = 10 000 m2). The annual yield in tonnes for each hectare is shown: the top field can yield 91 tonnes in total, and the bottom field 64 tonnes in total. 4 4 5 6 6 4 4 5 5 6 3 4 4 5 6 2 3 4 5 6 2 3 4 5 6 2 3 4 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 1 2 3 4 Jacques stopped using the hectares representing the least productive 10% of each field. (a) How many more tonnes did Jacques produce than the administrators expected? [2] If Jacques removed the hedge between the fields he could claim to have only one large field, and so increase his production without loss of subsidy. (b) How many more tonnes could Jacques grow by doing this? [1] The set-aside subsidy is calculated as 15% of the total possible yield from a field (i.e. as if no land were set-aside), multiplied by last year’s sale price for the crop. Last year’s price for Jacques’ crop was $900 per tonne. (c) How much set-aside subsidy would Jacques get this year? [2] Jacques hopes to sell his crop for $1000 per tonne this year. He knows that there is also an annual environmental grant for having hedges. However, he has discovered that if he cuts away just 100 m of hedge he would be able to consider all his land to be one field. (d) What is the highest hedge grant per 100 m that would lead to a higher total income if he does this? [2] The selling price of crops varies from year to year. (e) What is the smallest price per tonne for this year that would mean a farmer would make more money overall by not setting aside any of his or her land? [2] Jacques predicted that next year would be such a high price per tonne that no set-aside would be worthwhile, so he grew a hedge between each hectare of his land so that he could get the subsidy for having them next year. (f) How many metres of hedge would he now have in total? [1] [Question 2 begins on the next page]
10 marks
Mark scheme: Question Answer Marks 1(a) Two hectares from each 20 hectare field, so least are 2 + 3 and 1 + 1 [1] 2 = 7, Original was 155 so 15.5 expected 15.5 – 7 = 8.5. 1 mark for 7 or 15.5 seen SC: 1 mark for treating as one field: 1 + 1 + 1 + 2 = 5 hectares out of action. So, 10.5 more than expected. 1(b) Least four hectares of the combined area produce 1 + 1 + 1 + 2 = 5, 1 so 7 – 5 = 2 OR 150 – 148 = 2 FT their 7 OR their 148 from (a) 1(c) $900 × 15% × 155 = $20 925 2 1 mark for 15% correctly combined with one of other numbers. 1(d) $1999 ignore cents. 2 Accept ⩽ $2000 FT (b) × $1000 1 mark for $2001 or > $2000 1(e) The largest percentage loss is 10% [1] 2 from a field of uniform production. The threshold is when 10% of the new price is 15% of the old, or $1350. 1(f) 100m of 4 × 8 (down) + 7 × 5 (across) = 6700 m 1
3 John is looking for a hotel near a conference hall. This is a list of the hotels available online, and a graph of the cost in $ against distance from the conference hall in km: 100 Hotel Distance Cost per night 90 Bessy 6.3 $74 Liza 4.5 $60 80 Liz 3.0 $80 Cost 70 Elsie 4.0 $85 per night 60 Beth 7.0 $64 Elizabeth 3.0 $70 50 Betty 5.0 $90 40 Lisbet 2.0 $80 0 Libby 7.3 $55 0 5 10 Distance John is not interested in any hotel if there is some hotel both at least as cheap and at least as close. (If two are the same, either would do.) (a) (i) Which four hotels will he consider? [2] (ii) Give two examples of a price and distance for a new hotel that would remove just one of these four from consideration. Each example must remove a different hotel, and identify it. [3] Another hotel, the Eliza Lodge, does not have its details available online. It is 2.7 km away and costs $57 per night. (b) Which hotels would be omitted from consideration if the Eliza Lodge had details online? [1] Unfortunately, the Eliza Lodge does not have any rooms available. John will need a taxi from the conference hall to the hotel in the evening and back again in the morning; this will increase the cost of his stay at any hotel. The price of a taxi involves a fixed charge and a cost related to the distance. (c) (i) What is the lowest taxi rate per km that would result in just one of the hotels listed online being of interest? [3] (ii) Which of the hotels listed online would cost the same total for taxi and accommodation at this rate, but not be chosen because it is further away? [1] [Question 4 begins on the next page]
10 marks
Mark scheme: 3(a)(i) Lisbet, Elizabeth, Liza, Libby (in any order) 2 1 mark for any three correct and no more than four given. 3(a)(ii) 0.0 < x ⩽ 2.0 , 70 < y ⩽ 80 – Lisbet 3 2.0 < x ⩽ 3.0 , 60 < y ⩽ 70 – Elizabeth 3.0 < x ⩽ 4.5 , 55 < y ⩽ 60 – Liza 4.5. < x ⩽ 7.3 , 0 < y ⩽ 55 – Libby 1 mark for any suitable x, y 1 mark for second suitable x, y from a different range 1 mark for both the matching hotels 3(b) Liza & Elizabeth 1 3(c)(i) Award up to 2 marks for 3 Algebraic Inequality between any pair of hotels [1] The fixed charge is constant for all cases and can be ignored explicitly identified [1]. The (cheapest) nearest is always included, in this case Lisbet. [1] The steepest rate of change (is from there to Elizabeth:) $10 for 1 km [1] The critical combination is Lisbet and Elizabeth. [1] There are two trips, so $5 per km. SC: 2 marks for $10 (per km) final answer 3(c)(ii) Elizabeth 1
4 eXeL is a game for two players, played over at least two rounds on the electronic device shown below. eXeL SCORES ROUND TOTAL X Y START The 5 × 5 grid is on a touch screen. The individual squares of the grid can be identified as follows: Aa Ab Ac Ad Ae Ba Bb Bc Bd Be Ca Cb Cc Cd Ce Da Db Dc Dd De Ea Eb Ec Ed Ee To begin a new game, the START button must be pressed. This causes X and Y to appear in square Cc and the numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 and 8 to appear three times each in the rest of the grid. For example, the grid might appear as follows: 4 3 8 7 6 6 2 4 5 7 8 5 X Y 1 3 5 1 7 2 8 1 6 2 3 4 The device is programmed so the same number never appears more than once in the same row or column. Otherwise, the numbers are positioned randomly. While a game is in progress, the grid will automatically reset after each round has been completed, with another random arrangement of the numbers. Before the game begins, the players decide who will be X and who will be Y, and also who will play first; in subsequent rounds the player taking the first turn alternates. They take turns to move their letter three squares along the touch screen each time. A player can choose to move three squares in one direction horizontally or vertically, or begin moving horizontally or vertically and make one 90° change of direction. The number in the square that a player finishes their turn on disappears from the grid, and that number is added to the player’s round score and also to his or her total score. If, for example, playing on the grid shown above, X moves to Ba on her first turn and to Ac on her second turn while Y moves to De on his first turn and to Ae on his second turn, both players will have scored 14 so far and the grid will appear as follows: 4 3 X 7 Y 2 4 5 7 8 5 1 3 5 1 7 2 1 6 2 3 4 Players may move through empty squares, but must always finish a turn on a square containing a number, and must play if it is possible to do so. If one player cannot move their letter, the other player continues alone. A round finishes as soon as one of the following occurs: • One of the players has a round score of exactly 40. If this happens, a bonus of 20 is added to the player’s total score. • One of the players has a round score of greater than 40. If this happens, that player’s round score becomes 0 and his or her total score reverts to its value at the end of the previous round. • Neither player can move their letter. • One of the players wins the game. The game is won by the first player whose total score reaches or exceeds 120, provided that it does not cause that player’s round score for the round in progress to be greater than 40. (a) (i) What is the fewest number of turns that can possibly be needed for a player to achieve a round score of exactly 40? (This figure is not possible for all grids.) [1] (ii) If a player does achieve exactly 40, what is the minimum round score for the other player, assuming they have been able to move their letter each turn? [2] (b) Draw a grid that would give a player the choice of all eight different numbers to finish the first turn of the game on. [2] [Question 4 continues on the next page] (c) This is the appearance of a grid after Max and Katy have both had three turns during a round of eXeL. 8 1 6 3 4 7 Y 8 3 2 1 X 3 5 2 7 2 4 1 8 Max is X and Katy is Y. Katy’s round score so far is 16. (i) What is Max’s round score so far? [2] (ii) What number was in square Bc, where Katy’s Y is at present? [1] (iii) Give the scores for each of Katy’s first two turns, identifying the square she moved to in both cases. [2] (iv) How many possibilities are there for the appearance of the grid after they have both had their next turn? [2] This is the current situation in a round of eXeL between Trixie and Lydia. Trixie is X and Lydia is Y. The round scores so far are Trixie 32, Lydia 26, and the total scores are Trixie 115, Lydia 103. 8 Y 7 1 X 2 6 1 7 8 3 1 4 2 It is Lydia’s turn to play. (d) Show how Lydia can make sure she wins the game this round. [3]
15 marks
Mark scheme: 4(a)(i) The maximum round score for a player after five turns is 8 + 8 + 8 + 7 + 7 1 = 38. A sixth turn is therefore needed to reach 40. 4(a)(ii) If the player achieving 40 has played first, the other player may only have 2 had five turns, scoring at least 1 + 1 + 1 + 2 + 2 = 7. 1 mark for an answer of 9, which assumes that both will have the same number of turns OR 1 mark ft from (i): 5→5, 7→9, 8→12 only. 4(b) A grid with the numbers 1–8 three times each, with no number appearing 2 twice in the same row or column. [1] (Excluding the example in the QP) A grid with a different number (1–8) in each of the squares shown below with a number in bold. [1] e.g. 3 1 4 2 8 8 2 7 6 3 5 4 XY 1 6 7 5 3 8 4 2 6 1 5 7 4(c)(i) The numbers missing from the grid are: 4, 5, 5, 6, 6 and 7. These add up 2 to 33, so Max’s round score is 33 – 16 = 17. 1 mark for identification of 4, 5, 5, 6, 6 and 7 scored so far, or that the grid total would have been 108 to begin with and is now 75. 4(c)(ii) 5 & 6 are in the same column as Y and 7 & 8 are in the same row as Y, Bc 1 must have contained a 4. 4(c)(iii) First turn: 7 from square Ed [1] 2 Second turn: 5 from square Ce [1] OR Ed then Ce [1] If [0], award 1 mark for clear evidence that Katy’s three scores must have been 4, 5 and 7 (or Max’s three scores must have been 5, 6 and 6). 4(c)(iv) Max / X has 3 squares to choose from (Aa, Dd, Ec); Katy / Y has 6 2 squares to choose from (Aa, Ae, Ca, Db, Dd, Ec). 3 × 6 = 18, but this includes 3 appearances that cannot occur because they would require both X and Y to occupy the same square [1], so the number of possibilities is 15. 1 mark for 3 × 6 (implied by 18) OR subtracting 3 at end 4(d) Lydia must move to square Cd, to force Trixie to move to square Eb, which 3 will force her to go to Ee on her next turn, from where no further moves are possible. Lydia can only win the game this round if she scores the bonus of 20 / has a round score of (exactly) 40. She can reach 40 by scoring / moving to, in order: 1 / Cd, 4 / Ec, 6 / Cb, 3 / Ea (or 2 / Bd, 1 / Ba). 3 marks for fully correct solution. 2 marks for first three moves correct. 1 mark for L must move first to Cd. OR 1 mark for recognition that Lydia must score 40 exactly.
3 Helena and Daisy are thinking about how they can select 6 cards from a box of 100 cards. They wish to have a fair method which involves both of them making decisions that will determine the final set of 6 cards. Helena begins by choosing a number and taking that many cards from the box. The following process, called a ‘division’, is then repeated as many times as necessary. Helena splits the cards into two equal piles, discarding the extra card if necessary. Daisy chooses one of the two piles to keep and discards the other. Three cards from the box are added to the pile that Daisy chose to keep. They repeat this whole process until the end result is a set of 6 cards (after the three cards have been added to Daisy’s chosen pile). The cards that are discarded during the process are not returned to the box. (a) If Helena chooses to begin with 11 cards from the box: (i) Show that the method will result in 6 cards after three divisions. [2] (ii) How many cards will be left in the box once the set of 6 cards has been selected? [1] (b) How many divisions would be required to result in 6 cards if Helena chooses to begin with 35 cards from the box? [2] (c) What is the smallest number of cards Helena could choose to begin with so that four divisions will be required to result in 6 cards? [2] (d) What is the largest number of cards that Helena could choose to begin with so that they will not run out of cards in the box before the process results in 6 cards? [3] [Question 4 begins on the next page]
10 marks
Mark scheme: 3(a)(i) 11 → 5 → 8 [1] 2 8 → 4 → 7 7 → 3 → 6 [1] Accept → 4 and → 3 not stated 3(a)(ii) Start with 100 cards 1 Remove 11 initially Remove three sets of 3 during the process 100 – 11 – 9 = 80 3(b) 35 → 17 → 20 2 20 → 10 → 13 [1] 13 → 6 → 9 9 → 4 → 7 7 → 3 → 6 So 5 divisions 3(c) 14 2 1 mark for accurately testing any of 12, 13, 15 and 16 as a starting number. This may be done by reducing to previously considered case. 3(d) The smallest initial number of cards to require 5 divisions is 22 [1] 3 For 6 divisions it is 38 and for 7 divisions it is 70. The largest possible starting number must therefore require 7 divisions [1] 7 divisions will involve the addition of 21 cards from the box, so the initial number taken must be 100 – 21 = 79 1 division: 7 (3 additional cards needed from pack) 2 divisions: 8–9 (6 additional cards needed from pack) 3 divisions: 10–13 (9 additional cards needed from pack) 4 divisions: 14–21 (12 ...) 5 divisions: 22–37 (15 ...) 6 divisions: 38–69 (18 ...) 7 divisions: 70–133 (21 …) SC: 3 marks for 78 if requiring at least one card to be left
3 Carpenters sometimes use ropes with carefully positioned ribbons on them to measure distances. They do this by measuring a distance from the end of the rope to one of the ribbons, or a distance between two of the ribbons. Below is an example of how a 4 m rope with ribbons 1 m from each end can be used to measure lengths of 1 m, 2 m and 3 m, as well as 4 m. 3 metres 1 metre 2 metres (a) If a 7 m rope had ribbons 4 m and 6 m from one end, which lengths could be measured? [2] (b) An 8 m rope with three ribbons can be used to measure all the integer lengths between 1 m and 8 m. Show how this can be done. [2] (c) A particular job needs frequent measurements of 6 m, 7 m, 8 m, 13 m and 15 m. What is the minimum number of ribbons that would be needed? State the shortest possible length of the rope and the positions of the ribbons on the rope. [2] (d) What is the maximum number of lengths that can be measured using a rope with 5 ribbons on it? [1] (e) A rope with 3 ribbons can be used to measure 10 different integer lengths. What is the shortest length of rope which will allow this? State the positions of the ribbons on the rope and all the lengths it can measure. [3] [Question 4 begins on the next page]
10 marks
Mark scheme: 3(a) 1, 3 [1] 2 2 [1] (ignore 4, 6, 7). Only award 2 marks if no incorrect lengths given. 3(b) Correct ropes: 2 [1,2,5], [1,3,7], [1,4,6], [1,5,7], [2,4,7], [3,6,7], [2,3,7], [1,5,6] 1 mark for any correct rope. 1 mark for clear identification of all lengths for that rope. 3(c) A 15 metre rope with ribbons at 7 m and 13 m (or 2 m and 8 m) will allow 2 this. 1 mark for any rope length with 3 ribbons that achieves all the required lengths. 3(d) 21 1 3(e) An 11 m rope with ribbons at [2,7,8] (= [3,4,9]) OR [1,4,9] (= [2,7,10]) [2] 3 can be used to measure 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9 or 11 metres. [1] 1 mark for any rope and set of 3 ribbons that achieves 9 identified different lengths. OR 2 marks for any rope and set of 3 ribbons that achieves10 identified different lengths.
4 Matchboxes are often made from a cardboard ‘tray’ (the five faces of a cuboid without a top), inserted into a ‘sleeve’ (the four faces of a cuboid without the ends). The tray and the sleeve are cut from card, folded, and glued into place using tabs. The outside faces of the tray and the sleeve are then painted to make them eye-catching. The corners of the tray are glued together using square tabs formed from the corners of the piece of card used to make the tray. The tab for the sleeve is formed from one edge of the card used to make the sleeve. The nets (showing the flat pieces of card and how they will be cut and folded) for the tray and the sleeve are shown below. The tabs are shaded. # Tray Sleeve A manufacturer is investigating the costs of making different sizes of matchboxes. They are only considering matchboxes with dimensions that are a whole number of centimetres and where length H width H height. For the purposes of this investigation, they assume that the dimensions of the tray and the sleeve are identical. (a) What areas of card are needed to make the tray and the sleeve for a matchbox with dimensions 5 cm × 3 cm × 1 cm? [2] (b) Give one example of the dimensions of a matchbox for which the areas of the tabs (the shaded sections in the diagrams above) are the same for the tray and the sleeve. [1] (c) Give one example of the dimensions of a matchbox for which the painted areas (the non- shaded sections in the diagrams above) are the same for the tray and the sleeve. [3] (d) Find the dimensions of the matchbox of length 8 cm for which the area of the net (including tabs) is the same for the tray and the sleeve. [3] The manufacturer will cut the nets for the matchboxes from large square pieces of card, 1 m × 1 m, using a machine. The machine can be adjusted to cut a large square of card into rectangular pieces of various sizes, but each large square of card must be cut into pieces of the same size, shape and orientation. All the cuts must be parallel to the edges of the large pieces of card. (e) When cutting the nets for matchboxes with dimensions 12 cm × 6 cm × 3 cm, will more card be wasted when cutting a sheet of trays or a sheet of sleeves? Justify your answer. [2] The manufacturer would like to be able to design a matchbox for which the net of the tray and the sleeve can be cut by the machine together as a pair, in one single rectangle (with no unused card within each such rectangle). The two pieces would then be separated manually and made into a matchbox. (f) (i) Give the dimensions of a matchbox for which this would be possible. [1] (ii) Find the dimensions of such a matchbox that would result in only a 1 cm × 100 cm strip being wasted from each 1 m × 1 m sheet of card. [3]
15 marks
Mark scheme: 4(a) Tray = 35 cm2 [1] 2 Sleeve = 45 cm2 [1] 4(b) 4 × H × H = L × H or 4H = L 1 Any answer for which the length = 4 × height 4(c) 3 marks for any answer where L = 2H 3 OR 1 mark for each of the following (max 2): • an algebraic representation of the area of painted tray • an algebraic representation of the area of painted sleeve 4(d) 8 × 6 × 3 3 1 mark for each of the following (max 2): • a correct algebraic expression of the equation (that simplifies to 8W + 8H = 2HW + 4H2) • substitute a value for H or W and deduce matching other value • one pair of tray and sleeve correctly calculated • another pair of tray and sleeve correctly calculated 4(e) Tray net has dimensions 18 × 12 2 Sleeve net has dimensions 21 × 12 Can fit trays to cover 90 × 96 on one sheet, and sleeves to cover 84 × 96 1 mark for either So sleeves will generate more waste [1]. 4(f)(i) Any matchbox with dimensions 1 L = 2W + H, where 2W + 3H ⩽ 100 OR L = W + 2H, where L + 2W + 5H ⩽ 100 4(f)(ii) 1 mark for finding a dimension of the net pair that is a factor of 100. 3 1 mark for finding the other dimension of the net pair that wastes no more than 400 cm2. 10 × 4 × 3 or 19 × 8 × 3 L = W + 2H layout 3 10 3 3 4 3 4 3 3 4 3 OR L = 2W + H layout 3 8 3 19 3 19 3
3 Carpenters sometimes use ropes with carefully positioned ribbons on them to measure distances. They do this by measuring a distance from the end of the rope to one of the ribbons, or a distance between two of the ribbons. Below is an example of how a 4 m rope with ribbons 1 m from each end can be used to measure lengths of 1 m, 2 m and 3 m, as well as 4 m. 3 metres 1 metre 2 metres (a) If a 7 m rope had ribbons 4 m and 6 m from one end, which lengths could be measured? [2] (b) An 8 m rope with three ribbons can be used to measure all the integer lengths between 1 m and 8 m. Show how this can be done. [2] (c) A particular job needs frequent measurements of 6 m, 7 m, 8 m, 13 m and 15 m. What is the minimum number of ribbons that would be needed? State the shortest possible length of the rope and the positions of the ribbons on the rope. [2] (d) What is the maximum number of lengths that can be measured using a rope with 5 ribbons on it? [1] (e) A rope with 3 ribbons can be used to measure 10 different integer lengths. What is the shortest length of rope which will allow this? State the positions of the ribbons on the rope and all the lengths it can measure. [3] [Question 4 begins on the next page]
10 marks
Mark scheme: 3(a) 1, 3 [1] 2 2 [1] (ignore 4, 6, 7). Only award 2 marks if no incorrect lengths given. 3(b) Correct ropes: 2 [1,2,5], [1,3,7], [1,4,6], [1,5,7], [2,4,7], [3,6,7], [2,3,7], [1,5,6] 1 mark for any correct rope. 1 mark for clear identification of all lengths for that rope. 3(c) A 15 metre rope with ribbons at 7 m and 13 m (or 2 m and 8 m) will allow 2 this. 1 mark for any rope length with 3 ribbons that achieves all the required lengths. 3(d) 21 1 3(e) An 11 m rope with ribbons at [2,7,8] (= [3,4,9]) OR [1,4,9] (= [2,7,10]) [2] 3 can be used to measure 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9 or 11 metres. [1] 1 mark for any rope and set of 3 ribbons that achieves 9 identified different lengths. OR 2 marks for any rope and set of 3 ribbons that achieves10 identified different lengths.
4 Matchboxes are often made from a cardboard ‘tray’ (the five faces of a cuboid without a top), inserted into a ‘sleeve’ (the four faces of a cuboid without the ends). The tray and the sleeve are cut from card, folded, and glued into place using tabs. The outside faces of the tray and the sleeve are then painted to make them eye-catching. The corners of the tray are glued together using square tabs formed from the corners of the piece of card used to make the tray. The tab for the sleeve is formed from one edge of the card used to make the sleeve. The nets (showing the flat pieces of card and how they will be cut and folded) for the tray and the sleeve are shown below. The tabs are shaded. # Tray Sleeve A manufacturer is investigating the costs of making different sizes of matchboxes. They are only considering matchboxes with dimensions that are a whole number of centimetres and where length H width H height. For the purposes of this investigation, they assume that the dimensions of the tray and the sleeve are identical. (a) What areas of card are needed to make the tray and the sleeve for a matchbox with dimensions 5 cm × 3 cm × 1 cm? [2] (b) Give one example of the dimensions of a matchbox for which the areas of the tabs (the shaded sections in the diagrams above) are the same for the tray and the sleeve. [1] (c) Give one example of the dimensions of a matchbox for which the painted areas (the non- shaded sections in the diagrams above) are the same for the tray and the sleeve. [3] (d) Find the dimensions of the matchbox of length 8 cm for which the area of the net (including tabs) is the same for the tray and the sleeve. [3] The manufacturer will cut the nets for the matchboxes from large square pieces of card, 1 m × 1 m, using a machine. The machine can be adjusted to cut a large square of card into rectangular pieces of various sizes, but each large square of card must be cut into pieces of the same size, shape and orientation. All the cuts must be parallel to the edges of the large pieces of card. (e) When cutting the nets for matchboxes with dimensions 12 cm × 6 cm × 3 cm, will more card be wasted when cutting a sheet of trays or a sheet of sleeves? Justify your answer. [2] The manufacturer would like to be able to design a matchbox for which the net of the tray and the sleeve can be cut by the machine together as a pair, in one single rectangle (with no unused card within each such rectangle). The two pieces would then be separated manually and made into a matchbox. (f) (i) Give the dimensions of a matchbox for which this would be possible. [1] (ii) Find the dimensions of such a matchbox that would result in only a 1 cm × 100 cm strip being wasted from each 1 m × 1 m sheet of card. [3]
15 marks
Mark scheme: 4(a) Tray = 35 cm2 [1] 2 Sleeve = 45 cm2 [1] 4(b) 4 × H × H = L × H or 4H = L 1 Any answer for which the length = 4 × height 4(c) 3 marks for any answer where L = 2H 3 OR 1 mark for each of the following (max 2): • an algebraic representation of the area of painted tray • an algebraic representation of the area of painted sleeve 4(d) 8 × 6 × 3 3 1 mark for each of the following (max 2): • a correct algebraic expression of the equation (that simplifies to 8W + 8H = 2HW + 4H2) • substitute a value for H or W and deduce matching other value • one pair of tray and sleeve correctly calculated • another pair of tray and sleeve correctly calculated 4(e) Tray net has dimensions 18 × 12 2 Sleeve net has dimensions 21 × 12 Can fit trays to cover 90 × 96 on one sheet, and sleeves to cover 84 × 96 1 mark for either So sleeves will generate more waste [1]. 4(f)(i) Any matchbox with dimensions 1 L = 2W + H, where 2W + 3H ⩽ 100 OR L = W + 2H, where L + 2W + 5H ⩽ 100 4(f)(ii) 1 mark for finding a dimension of the net pair that is a factor of 100. 3 1 mark for finding the other dimension of the net pair that wastes no more than 400 cm2. 10 × 4 × 3 or 19 × 8 × 3 L = W + 2H layout 3 10 3 3 4 3 4 3 3 4 3 OR L = 2W + H layout 3 8 3 19 3 19 3
3 Carpenters sometimes use ropes with carefully positioned ribbons on them to measure distances. They do this by measuring a distance from the end of the rope to one of the ribbons, or a distance between two of the ribbons. Below is an example of how a 4 m rope with ribbons 1 m from each end can be used to measure lengths of 1 m, 2 m and 3 m, as well as 4 m. 3 metres 1 metre 2 metres (a) If a 7 m rope had ribbons 4 m and 6 m from one end, which lengths could be measured? [2] (b) An 8 m rope with three ribbons can be used to measure all the integer lengths between 1 m and 8 m. Show how this can be done. [2] (c) A particular job needs frequent measurements of 6 m, 7 m, 8 m, 13 m and 15 m. What is the minimum number of ribbons that would be needed? State the shortest possible length of the rope and the positions of the ribbons on the rope. [2] (d) What is the maximum number of lengths that can be measured using a rope with 5 ribbons on it? [1] (e) A rope with 3 ribbons can be used to measure 10 different integer lengths. What is the shortest length of rope which will allow this? State the positions of the ribbons on the rope and all the lengths it can measure. [3] [Question 4 begins on the next page]
10 marks
Mark scheme: 3(a) 1, 3 [1] 2 2 [1] (ignore 4, 6, 7). Only award 2 marks if no incorrect lengths given. 3(b) Correct ropes: 2 [1,2,5], [1,3,7], [1,4,6], [1,5,7], [2,4,7], [3,6,7], [2,3,7], [1,5,6] 1 mark for any correct rope. 1 mark for clear identification of all lengths for that rope. 3(c) A 15 metre rope with ribbons at 7 m and 13 m (or 2 m and 8 m) will allow 2 this. 1 mark for any rope length with 3 ribbons that achieves all the required lengths. 3(d) 21 1 3(e) An 11 m rope with ribbons at [2,7,8] (= [3,4,9]) OR [1,4,9] (= [2,7,10]) [2] 3 can be used to measure 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9 or 11 metres. [1] 1 mark for any rope and set of 3 ribbons that achieves 9 identified different lengths. OR 2 marks for any rope and set of 3 ribbons that achieves10 identified different lengths.
4 Matchboxes are often made from a cardboard ‘tray’ (the five faces of a cuboid without a top), inserted into a ‘sleeve’ (the four faces of a cuboid without the ends). The tray and the sleeve are cut from card, folded, and glued into place using tabs. The outside faces of the tray and the sleeve are then painted to make them eye-catching. The corners of the tray are glued together using square tabs formed from the corners of the piece of card used to make the tray. The tab for the sleeve is formed from one edge of the card used to make the sleeve. The nets (showing the flat pieces of card and how they will be cut and folded) for the tray and the sleeve are shown below. The tabs are shaded. # Tray Sleeve A manufacturer is investigating the costs of making different sizes of matchboxes. They are only considering matchboxes with dimensions that are a whole number of centimetres and where length H width H height. For the purposes of this investigation, they assume that the dimensions of the tray and the sleeve are identical. (a) What areas of card are needed to make the tray and the sleeve for a matchbox with dimensions 5 cm × 3 cm × 1 cm? [2] (b) Give one example of the dimensions of a matchbox for which the areas of the tabs (the shaded sections in the diagrams above) are the same for the tray and the sleeve. [1] (c) Give one example of the dimensions of a matchbox for which the painted areas (the non- shaded sections in the diagrams above) are the same for the tray and the sleeve. [3] (d) Find the dimensions of the matchbox of length 8 cm for which the area of the net (including tabs) is the same for the tray and the sleeve. [3] The manufacturer will cut the nets for the matchboxes from large square pieces of card, 1 m × 1 m, using a machine. The machine can be adjusted to cut a large square of card into rectangular pieces of various sizes, but each large square of card must be cut into pieces of the same size, shape and orientation. All the cuts must be parallel to the edges of the large pieces of card. (e) When cutting the nets for matchboxes with dimensions 12 cm × 6 cm × 3 cm, will more card be wasted when cutting a sheet of trays or a sheet of sleeves? Justify your answer. [2] The manufacturer would like to be able to design a matchbox for which the net of the tray and the sleeve can be cut by the machine together as a pair, in one single rectangle (with no unused card within each such rectangle). The two pieces would then be separated manually and made into a matchbox. (f) (i) Give the dimensions of a matchbox for which this would be possible. [1] (ii) Find the dimensions of such a matchbox that would result in only a 1 cm × 100 cm strip being wasted from each 1 m × 1 m sheet of card. [3]
15 marks
Mark scheme: 4(a) Tray = 35 cm2 [1] 2 Sleeve = 45 cm2 [1] 4(b) 4 × H × H = L × H or 4H = L 1 Any answer for which the length = 4 × height 4(c) 3 marks for any answer where L = 2H 3 OR 1 mark for each of the following (max 2): • an algebraic representation of the area of painted tray • an algebraic representation of the area of painted sleeve 4(d) 8 × 6 × 3 3 1 mark for each of the following (max 2): • a correct algebraic expression of the equation (that simplifies to 8W + 8H = 2HW + 4H2) • substitute a value for H or W and deduce matching other value • one pair of tray and sleeve correctly calculated • another pair of tray and sleeve correctly calculated 4(e) Tray net has dimensions 18 × 12 2 Sleeve net has dimensions 21 × 12 Can fit trays to cover 90 × 96 on one sheet, and sleeves to cover 84 × 96 1 mark for either So sleeves will generate more waste [1]. 4(f)(i) Any matchbox with dimensions 1 L = 2W + H, where 2W + 3H ⩽ 100 OR L = W + 2H, where L + 2W + 5H ⩽ 100 4(f)(ii) 1 mark for finding a dimension of the net pair that is a factor of 100. 3 1 mark for finding the other dimension of the net pair that wastes no more than 400 cm2. 10 × 4 × 3 or 19 × 8 × 3 L = W + 2H layout 3 10 3 3 4 3 4 3 3 4 3 OR L = 2W + H layout 3 8 3 19 3 19 3
4 George has his own window cleaning business. His charges to customers depend on the type of building and the number of windows. These charges, and the time taken to complete the job, are shown in the following table. Number of windows Time taken Type of building Basic charge included in basic charge (minutes) House 12 $36 40 Bungalow 6 $20 25 Apartment 5 $12 20 Extra windows are charged at $3 each and take 4 minutes each. George has a contract to clean all the windows on the Riverside estate, once a month. There are 30 houses, each with 15 windows, and 10 bungalows, each with 6 windows. (a) (i) Show that the total income that George will take from Riverside each month is $1550. [1] (ii) Find the total time taken, in minutes, to clean the windows in Riverside each month. [1] George also cleans all the windows on the Lakeview estate. There are 50 houses, 30 bungalows and 15 apartments. All the windows in these buildings are included in the basic charge. George works at least 6½ hours a day and no more than 7 hours a day, excluding breaks and travel time between buildings. He will only start on a building if he has time to finish it that day. (b) (i) Find the greatest possible income on the first day of cleaning windows on Lakeview. [2] (ii) Find the least possible income on the first day of cleaning windows on Lakeview. [3] The Waterfall estate consists of 240 houses and 120 apartments, all with windows that come within the basic charge. George decides to recruit sufficient employees so that all the windows of the buildings on Waterfall can be cleaned within a working week of 7 hours a day for 5 days. He will not clean any of these windows himself. (c) How many employees does George need to recruit? Justify your answer. [3] Business is so good that George decides to increase his number of employees to 10. He will not clean windows himself. He will simplify his charges to $30 for any building and allow 40 minutes per building. Each employee will bring in an income of $1500 per week and be paid $1000 per week. The other costs (materials, insurance, etc.) amount to $250 per week per employee. (d) (i) How much time will each employee spend working every week? [1] (ii) Find George’s weekly profit. [1] George decides to invest in a new method of cleaning windows, the ‘water-fed pole’, which means that all windows can be cleaned from ground level. He estimates that this will result in a 25% reduction in the time taken to clean each building. He will also increase his charges by 10%. George will pay each employee $1000 per week, for all 52 weeks of the year. Each employee will work for 45 weeks in the year, the remaining time being holiday. The other costs will be $500 per week per employee, whether or not the employee is working or on holiday. When working, each employee will clean windows for 6 hours each day, 5 days a week. (e) George wants his profit to be at least $80 000 per year. Find the smallest number of employees that he will need to employ. Justify your answer. [3]
15 marks
Mark scheme: 4(a)(i) (30 $36) + (30 $3 3) + (10 $20) = $1550 AG 1 4(a)(ii) (30 40) + (30 4 3) + (10 25) = 1810 mins 1 4(b)(i) Houses give greatest income per minute [1] 2 In 7 hours (= 420 mins), George can clean 10 houses + 1 apartment, giving an income of $372 4(b)(ii) Apartments give least income per minute, but only 15 [1] 3 15 apartments leave 90 minutes. Arrangement of houses and bungalows between 90 and 120 minutes [1] Least income from 1 house + 2 bungalows = $180 + $76 = $256 4(c) 10 houses + 1 apartment take 7 hours to clean, 240 houses + 24 apartments 3 take 168 hours. Remaining 96 apartments take 32 hours, so total time needed is 168 + 32 = 200 hours [1] 35 hours per week, so 200/35 oe [1] = 5.7... Number of employees needed is 6. [1] 3 marks for final answer 6 if 200 hours oe seen 4(d)(i) 1500/30 = 50 houses per week. 1 Time taken = 50 40 = 2000 mins (33 hours 20 mins) 4(d)(ii) Profit = $1500 – $1000 – $250 = $250 per employee, so for 10 employees, 1 $2500 4(e) In 6 hours, one employee can clean 360/30 (6/0.5) = 12 houses with a daily 3 income of 12 $30 1.10 = $396 Total annual income = $396 5 = $1980 per week for 45 weeks [1] Outgoings = $1000 + $500 = $1500 per employee for 52 weeks [1] Profit = $1980 45 – $1500 52 = $11 100 per year per employee Number of employees for this to be $80 000 in 52 weeks = ($80 000/11 100) > 7 < 8. so least number of employees required is 8. [1] 3 marks for final answer 8 if 11 100 seen
4 George has his own window cleaning business. His charges to customers depend on the type of building and the number of windows. These charges, and the time taken to complete the job, are shown in the following table. Number of windows Time taken Type of building Basic charge included in basic charge (minutes) House 12 $36 40 Bungalow 6 $20 25 Apartment 5 $12 20 Extra windows are charged at $3 each and take 4 minutes each. George has a contract to clean all the windows on the Riverside estate, once a month. There are 30 houses, each with 15 windows, and 10 bungalows, each with 6 windows. (a) (i) Show that the total income that George will take from Riverside each month is $1550. [1] (ii) Find the total time taken, in minutes, to clean the windows in Riverside each month. [1] George also cleans all the windows on the Lakeview estate. There are 50 houses, 30 bungalows and 15 apartments. All the windows in these buildings are included in the basic charge. George works at least 6½ hours a day and no more than 7 hours a day, excluding breaks and travel time between buildings. He will only start on a building if he has time to finish it that day. (b) (i) Find the greatest possible income on the first day of cleaning windows on Lakeview. [2] (ii) Find the least possible income on the first day of cleaning windows on Lakeview. [3] The Waterfall estate consists of 240 houses and 120 apartments, all with windows that come within the basic charge. George decides to recruit sufficient employees so that all the windows of the buildings on Waterfall can be cleaned within a working week of 7 hours a day for 5 days. He will not clean any of these windows himself. (c) How many employees does George need to recruit? Justify your answer. [3] Business is so good that George decides to increase his number of employees to 10. He will not clean windows himself. He will simplify his charges to $30 for any building and allow 40 minutes per building. Each employee will bring in an income of $1500 per week and be paid $1000 per week. The other costs (materials, insurance, etc.) amount to $250 per week per employee. (d) (i) How much time will each employee spend working every week? [1] (ii) Find George’s weekly profit. [1] George decides to invest in a new method of cleaning windows, the ‘water-fed pole’, which means that all windows can be cleaned from ground level. He estimates that this will result in a 25% reduction in the time taken to clean each building. He will also increase his charges by 10%. George will pay each employee $1000 per week, for all 52 weeks of the year. Each employee will work for 45 weeks in the year, the remaining time being holiday. The other costs will be $500 per week per employee, whether or not the employee is working or on holiday. When working, each employee will clean windows for 6 hours each day, 5 days a week. (e) George wants his profit to be at least $80 000 per year. Find the smallest number of employees that he will need to employ. Justify your answer. [3]
15 marks
Mark scheme: 4(a)(i) (30 $36) + (30 $3 3) + (10 $20) = $1550 AG 1 4(a)(ii) (30 40) + (30 4 3) + (10 25) = 1810 mins 1 4(b)(i) Houses give greatest income per minute [1] 2 In 7 hours (= 420 mins), George can clean 10 houses + 1 apartment, giving an income of $372 4(b)(ii) Apartments give least income per minute, but only 15 [1] 3 15 apartments leave 90 minutes. Arrangement of houses and bungalows between 90 and 120 minutes [1] Least income from 1 house + 2 bungalows = $180 + $76 = $256 4(c) 10 houses + 1 apartment take 7 hours to clean, 240 houses + 24 apartments 3 take 168 hours. Remaining 96 apartments take 32 hours, so total time needed is 168 + 32 = 200 hours [1] 35 hours per week, so 200/35 oe [1] = 5.7... Number of employees needed is 6. [1] 3 marks for final answer 6 if 200 hours oe seen 4(d)(i) 1500/30 = 50 houses per week. 1 Time taken = 50 40 = 2000 mins (33 hours 20 mins) 4(d)(ii) Profit = $1500 – $1000 – $250 = $250 per employee, so for 10 employees, 1 $2500 4(e) In 6 hours, one employee can clean 360/30 (6/0.5) = 12 houses with a daily 3 income of 12 $30 1.10 = $396 Total annual income = $396 5 = $1980 per week for 45 weeks [1] Outgoings = $1000 + $500 = $1500 per employee for 52 weeks [1] Profit = $1980 45 – $1500 52 = $11 100 per year per employee Number of employees for this to be $80 000 in 52 weeks = ($80 000/11 100) > 7 < 8. so least number of employees required is 8. [1] 3 marks for final answer 8 if 11 100 seen
3 Hugh is planning to hold an executive meeting in a boardroom that contains a large circular table surrounded by 25 seats. The table and the seats are fixed to the floor, so if fewer than 25 people attend the meeting then there will be some empty seats around the table. Hugh does not want there to be any gaps between executives of more than two empty seats. (a) What is the smallest number of executives (including Hugh) that could attend the meeting without this happening? Explain your answer. [2] (b) Hugh is considering holding a meeting for 19 executives (including himself). Hugh’s wife says, ‘With 19 executives and 25 seats, you are certain to have at least one group of at least 4 executives sitting next to each other without a gap.’ Is Hugh’s wife correct? Explain your answer. [2] (c) What is the smallest number of executives (including Hugh) that would need to attend a meeting to be sure of having at least one group of at least 8 executives sitting next to each other without a gap? Explain your answer. [2] Hugh also wants to arrange a separate meeting, which he will not attend, for some of the managers in the company. Another room in the building contains 10 identical circular tables, each surrounded by 12 seats. The managers are instructed to fill up the tables so that the difference between the number of managers on the fullest table and the number on the emptiest table is as small as possible. (d) What is the smallest number of managers that must attend so that there definitely will not be more than two empty seats next to each other at any table? [1] Hugh decides that he will tolerate sometimes having a maximum of three consecutive empty seats, provided that this happens a maximum of twice on fewer than half of the tables in the room and a maximum of once on each of the other tables. (e) If Hugh creates a seating plan, specifying where each manager must sit, what is the smallest number of managers needed? [3] [Turn over for Question 4]
10 marks
Mark scheme: 3(a) 9 executives are necessary [1] 2 If there are 2 empty seats between every pair of executives, then with 8 executives this would only account for 8 + 2 8 = 24 seats. [1] 3(b) She is correct, because 18 executives could sit in 6 separate groups of 3 2 (or 5 groups of 3, a pair and a single), but, no matter where they sit, the nineteenth executive will have to create a group of at least 4. Award 1 mark for recognising that 18 executives could sit down without 4 executives sitting consecutively. Alternatively: 6 separate groups of three people plus a gap would use up 6 4 = 24 seats, but there are 25 seats, so there must be another person in a seat somewhere, making a group of 4. Award 1 mark for evidence of 6 4. 3(c) 7 people sitting together with one empty seat can happen 3 times [1] 2 so with 22 executives (only 3 empty seats) a group of (at least) 8 must occur. 3(d) 10 managers could sit consecutively on each table, which would mean that 1 Hugh must invite at least 10 (12 – 2) = 100 managers. 3(e) 4 managers are necessary in order to prevent more than two groups of 3 3 consecutive empty seats. [1] In fact, only 4 managers, suitably deployed, are needed to prevent 3 consecutive empty seats. [1] So the total number of managers needed is 4 10 = 40.
3 Hugh is planning to hold an executive meeting in a boardroom that contains a large circular table surrounded by 25 seats. The table and the seats are fixed to the floor, so if fewer than 25 people attend the meeting then there will be some empty seats around the table. Hugh does not want there to be any gaps between executives of more than two empty seats. (a) What is the smallest number of executives (including Hugh) that could attend the meeting without this happening? Explain your answer. [2] (b) Hugh is considering holding a meeting for 19 executives (including himself). Hugh’s wife says, ‘With 19 executives and 25 seats, you are certain to have at least one group of at least 4 executives sitting next to each other without a gap.’ Is Hugh’s wife correct? Explain your answer. [2] (c) What is the smallest number of executives (including Hugh) that would need to attend a meeting to be sure of having at least one group of at least 8 executives sitting next to each other without a gap? Explain your answer. [2] Hugh also wants to arrange a separate meeting, which he will not attend, for some of the managers in the company. Another room in the building contains 10 identical circular tables, each surrounded by 12 seats. The managers are instructed to fill up the tables so that the difference between the number of managers on the fullest table and the number on the emptiest table is as small as possible. (d) What is the smallest number of managers that must attend so that there definitely will not be more than two empty seats next to each other at any table? [1] Hugh decides that he will tolerate sometimes having a maximum of three consecutive empty seats, provided that this happens a maximum of twice on fewer than half of the tables in the room and a maximum of once on each of the other tables. (e) If Hugh creates a seating plan, specifying where each manager must sit, what is the smallest number of managers needed? [3] [Turn over for Question 4]
10 marks
Mark scheme: 3(a) 9 executives are necessary [1] 2 If there are 2 empty seats between every pair of executives, then with 8 executives this would only account for 8 + 2 8 = 24 seats. [1] 3(b) She is correct, because 18 executives could sit in 6 separate groups of 3 2 (or 5 groups of 3, a pair and a single), but, no matter where they sit, the nineteenth executive will have to create a group of at least 4. Award 1 mark for recognising that 18 executives could sit down without 4 executives sitting consecutively. Alternatively: 6 separate groups of three people plus a gap would use up 6 4 = 24 seats, but there are 25 seats, so there must be another person in a seat somewhere, making a group of 4. Award 1 mark for evidence of 6 4. 3(c) 7 people sitting together with one empty seat can happen 3 times [1] 2 so with 22 executives (only 3 empty seats) a group of (at least) 8 must occur. 3(d) 10 managers could sit consecutively on each table, which would mean that 1 Hugh must invite at least 10 (12 – 2) = 100 managers. 3(e) 4 managers are necessary in order to prevent more than two groups of 3 3 consecutive empty seats. [1] In fact, only 4 managers, suitably deployed, are needed to prevent 3 consecutive empty seats. [1] So the total number of managers needed is 4 10 = 40.
3 Hugh is planning to hold an executive meeting in a boardroom that contains a large circular table surrounded by 25 seats. The table and the seats are fixed to the floor, so if fewer than 25 people attend the meeting then there will be some empty seats around the table. Hugh does not want there to be any gaps between executives of more than two empty seats. (a) What is the smallest number of executives (including Hugh) that could attend the meeting without this happening? Explain your answer. [2] (b) Hugh is considering holding a meeting for 19 executives (including himself). Hugh’s wife says, ‘With 19 executives and 25 seats, you are certain to have at least one group of at least 4 executives sitting next to each other without a gap.’ Is Hugh’s wife correct? Explain your answer. [2] (c) What is the smallest number of executives (including Hugh) that would need to attend a meeting to be sure of having at least one group of at least 8 executives sitting next to each other without a gap? Explain your answer. [2] Hugh also wants to arrange a separate meeting, which he will not attend, for some of the managers in the company. Another room in the building contains 10 identical circular tables, each surrounded by 12 seats. The managers are instructed to fill up the tables so that the difference between the number of managers on the fullest table and the number on the emptiest table is as small as possible. (d) What is the smallest number of managers that must attend so that there definitely will not be more than two empty seats next to each other at any table? [1] Hugh decides that he will tolerate sometimes having a maximum of three consecutive empty seats, provided that this happens a maximum of twice on fewer than half of the tables in the room and a maximum of once on each of the other tables. (e) If Hugh creates a seating plan, specifying where each manager must sit, what is the smallest number of managers needed? [3] [Turn over for Question 4]
10 marks
Mark scheme: 3(a) 9 executives are necessary [1] 2 If there are 2 empty seats between every pair of executives, then with 8 executives this would only account for 8 + 2 8 = 24 seats. [1] 3(b) She is correct, because 18 executives could sit in 6 separate groups of 3 2 (or 5 groups of 3, a pair and a single), but, no matter where they sit, the nineteenth executive will have to create a group of at least 4. Award 1 mark for recognising that 18 executives could sit down without 4 executives sitting consecutively. Alternatively: 6 separate groups of three people plus a gap would use up 6 4 = 24 seats, but there are 25 seats, so there must be another person in a seat somewhere, making a group of 4. Award 1 mark for evidence of 6 4. 3(c) 7 people sitting together with one empty seat can happen 3 times [1] 2 so with 22 executives (only 3 empty seats) a group of (at least) 8 must occur. 3(d) 10 managers could sit consecutively on each table, which would mean that 1 Hugh must invite at least 10 (12 – 2) = 100 managers. 3(e) 4 managers are necessary in order to prevent more than two groups of 3 3 consecutive empty seats. [1] In fact, only 4 managers, suitably deployed, are needed to prevent 3 consecutive empty seats. [1] So the total number of managers needed is 4 10 = 40.
1 Visits to sites in Antarctica by tourists are strictly controlled. The rules state that not more than one ship may visit each site each day, and not more than 100 tourists may land at each site each day. Ships vary in size – sometimes just one person might land. Ships only visit sites where everyone on board may land, although sometimes a few people do not do so. There is a short summer season each year, and the unpredictable weather means that landings sometimes need to be rearranged or cancelled. Ships never go to the same site twice on a single cruise. Each site has a fixed maximum number of tourists per season, and a record is kept of the actual number of visits to the sites. All have spectacular scenery, but some have points of special interest such as historic huts (H) and penguin colonies (P). It is towards the end of the season and there are only two ships still there on otherwise typical cruises: Borchgrevink is carrying 97 tourists and Shirase has 53. Each ship has done two landings. The two southernmost sites, W and Y, have just been closed by frozen sea. Special Maximum tourists Borchgrevink Shirase Total to Site interest per season tourists to date tourists to date date A 1000 94 52 972 C 2000 93 1696 D P 500 444 F H 1500 914 G H P 1000 953 K P 1500 1402 T H 2000 1863 W 500 51 54 Y 500 46 (a) What is the minimum number of days that site C must have been open this season? [2] (b) Which sites might it be possible for Borchgrevink to visit tomorrow? [1] (c) What is the largest group that could have visited Y, if W is the site visited by the smallest number of ships? [2] Both ships will visit just two more sites on their current cruises. They want their tourists to have the chance to see both a historic hut and a penguin colony. (d) Give an example of which sites each ship should visit. [2] (e) Estimate how many tourists there have been in total this season. State any assumptions you have made. [3] [Turn over for Question 2]
10 marks
Mark scheme: Question Answer Marks 1(a) 93 were from B, so 1603 from others, [1] 2 each max 100, so 17 others and thus 18 [1] SC: 1 mark for final answer 17 (rounding up but not noting 93 separate) 1(b) Been to A&C, W&Y are closed, D and G do not have enough slots left, so 1 F,K,T 1(c) W had at least 2 visits [1] 2 so Y must have had at least 3 Two could have been singletons, so at most 44 1(d) B visits K and F 2 S visits D and F OR B visits K and T S visits D and F OR B visits K and F S visits D and T 1 mark for B visits K OR S visits D OR for correct pairings but not necessarily going to both sites OR not specifying ships. 1(e) Sensible assumption in line with the information given [1] 3 Calculation using data relevant to assumption (possibly rounded) [1] Consistent final answer that is at least 1863 and at most 3000 [1] Allow substantial rounding anywhere For example: Assume: 4 sites per cruise Total expected landings this season = 8644 2161 tourists Assume: Proportion landing from B and S are typical 150 tourists: 2 (187+103) = 580 landings So 3.89 landings per visitor Other ships landings 8344 – (187 + 103) = 8054 150 + 8054/3.89 = 2233 tourists SC: 1 mark for Minimum possible: 1863 + 150 = 2013.
2 A new form of long jump competition is being trialled. In the first round of the event, each athlete has up to three attempts to jump a certain distance. The rules are: • Once an athlete has succeeded in jumping the distance, the athlete does not have any more attempts in the round. • Any athlete who fails to jump the required distance in three attempts takes no further part in the event. In the second round, the successful athletes from the first round each have up to three attempts to jump a new, longer distance. The same rules still apply. This process continues until only one athlete remains in the event. If two (or more) athletes fail in three attempts at the same distance, their final positions in the event are determined by their total numbers of fails in the whole event: the athlete with fewer fails is placed higher. (Assume that there is never a tie.) The distance set for the first round is decided by the organisers of the event, but in subsequent rounds the distance always increases by 0.2 m. The results for a recent event with five athletes are given in the following table. Distance (in metres) Athlete 5.0 5.2 5.4 5.6 5.8 Matt ✘✓ ✘✓ ✘✘✓ ✘✓ ✘✘✘ Nathan ✓ ✘✓ ✘✓ ✘✘✓ ✘✘✘ Ollie ✘✘✓ ✘✘✘ – – – Pete ✘✓ ✘✓ ✘✘✘ – – Quentin ✘✘✘ – – – – This shows that, for example, Ollie had 2 fails and then 1 success at 5.0 m and 3 fails at 5.2 m, so he had no further attempts and a total of 5 fails. (a) Who won this event? Justify your answer. [1] In a second event involving these five athletes, Matt came 1st and Nathan came 2nd, both with a longest jump of 5.6 m. Ollie, Pete and Quentin came 3rd, 4th and 5th respectively, each with a longest jump of 5.4 m. The starting distance was 5.0 m. Nathan had a total of 5 fails and Pete had a total of 8 fails. (b) Draw up a possible table, similar to the one above, to show this information. [3] On another occasion, eleven athletes took part in a long jump event and the results of ten of these athletes are shown in the table below. By mistake, athlete Ken was omitted from this table. In fact, he came 6th. Distance (in metres) Athlete 5.0 5.2 5.4 5.6 5.8 6.0 6.2 6.4 6.6 Adi ✓ ✓ ✘✓ ✘✓ ✘✘✓ ✘✘✓ ✘✘✘ – – Ben ✓ ✘✓ ✓ ✓ ✘✓ ✓ ✘✓ ✘✘✓ ✘✘✘ Cal ✘✓ ✓ ✘✘✓ ✘✘✓ ✘✘✘ – – – – Den ✓ ✘✓ ✓ ✘✓ ✘✘✓ ✘✘✘ – – – Eric ✘✘✓ ✘✓ ✘✓ ✘✘✓ ✘✓ ✘✓ ✘✘✓ ✘✓ ✘✘✘ Fran ✘✓ ✘✘✓ ✘✘✓ ✘✘✘ – – – – – Greg ✘✘✘ – – – – – – – – Haz ✓ ✓ ✓ ✘✓ ✘✘✓ ✘✘✘ – – – Ido ✘✓ ✓ ✘✓ ✘✓ ✘✘✘ – – – – Josh ✓ ✘✘✓ ✘✘✘ – – – – – – (c) List, in order, the athletes who came 1st, 2nd, 3rd, 4th and 5th. [2] (d) (i) State the greatest distance that Ken could have jumped successfully, and, for this case, state all his possible total numbers of fails. [2] (ii) State the least distance that Ken could have jumped successfully, and, for this case, state all his possible total numbers of fails. [2] These 11 athletes took part in a second event in the same competition. A summary of the greatest distance that each jumped successfully and their total numbers of fails is shown below. Athlete Adi Ben Cal Den Eric Fran Greg Haz Ido Josh Ken Distance 5.6 5.8 5.4 5.2 5.4 5.2 5.8 6.0 6.0 5.2 6.2 Total fails 7 8 6 9 5 5 7 5 6 8 3 (e) What can you deduce about the greatest distance that could have been set by the organisers for the first round of this event? Explain your answer. [2] In order to find the overall winner of the two-event competition, points are awarded in each of the two events: 11 points for first place, 10 points for 2nd place, 9 points for 3rd place and so on to 1 point for 11th place. The points for each of the two events are added to give the athlete’s total number of points. The athlete with the highest total number of points is the winner. If there is a tie between athletes, the one with the fewest total number of fails in the two events is the winner. (f) Which athletes finished 1st, 2nd and 3rd overall in this two-event competition? Justify your answer. [3]
15 marks
Mark scheme: 2(a) Nathan. He has fewer fails. (7, Matt has 8) 1 2(b) For example: 3 5.0 5.2 5.4 5.6 5.8 M ✓ ✓ ✓ ✓ N ✓ ✓ ✓ ✓ O ✓ ✓ ✓ (–) P ✓ ✓ ✓ (–) Q ✓ ✓ ✓ (–) Quentin must have 9 fails [1] Matt has at most 4 fails OR Ollie has at most 7 fails [1] Nathan (5), Pete(8) and both of Matt/Ollie correct [1] Each row must be valid () ()✓ then 2(c) B E A H D 2 1 mark for 3 or 4 names in correct positions OR 4 in correct order 2(d)(i) 5.8 m with all of 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13 fails 2 1 mark for 5.8 m with at least one of 8,9,10,11,12,13 fails 2(d)(ii) 5.6 m with all of 3, 4 or 5 fails 2 1 mark for 5.6 m with at least one of 3, 4 or 5 fails SC: 2 marks 5.6 with 3 (ways) if 5.8 and 6 (ways) in 2(d)(i) SC2: 5.8 with 3-5 fails if 2(d)(i) 6.0 with 8–13 fails 2e Den had 9 fails. 3 at 5.4 m, [1] 2 2 at each of 5.2 m, 5.0 m and 4.8 m makes 4.8 m the maximum possible starting distance [1] SC: 1 mark for 4.6 m with first 3 fails at 5.2 m 2f 3 Adi Ben Cal Den Eric Fran Greg Haz Ido Josh Ken 3rd 1st 8th 5th 2nd 9th 11th 4th 7th 10th 6th 6th 5th 8th 11th 7th 9th 4th 2nd 3rd 10th 1st 9 11 4 7 10 3 1 8 5 2 6 6 7 4 1 5 3 8 10 9 2 11 15 18 8 8 15 6 9 18 14 4 17 Haz & Ben have equal maximum points (18) [1] Haz has (6 + 5 =) 11 fails; Ben has (8 + 8 =) 16 fails [1] Ken has 17 points OR in third place behind Haz & Ben. [1]
1 Visits to sites in Antarctica by tourists are strictly controlled. The rules state that not more than one ship may visit each site each day, and not more than 100 tourists may land at each site each day. Ships vary in size – sometimes just one person might land. Ships only visit sites where everyone on board may land, although sometimes a few people do not do so. There is a short summer season each year, and the unpredictable weather means that landings sometimes need to be rearranged or cancelled. Ships never go to the same site twice on a single cruise. Each site has a fixed maximum number of tourists per season, and a record is kept of the actual number of visits to the sites. All have spectacular scenery, but some have points of special interest such as historic huts (H) and penguin colonies (P). It is towards the end of the season and there are only two ships still there on otherwise typical cruises: Borchgrevink is carrying 97 tourists and Shirase has 53. Each ship has done two landings. The two southernmost sites, W and Y, have just been closed by frozen sea. Special Maximum tourists Borchgrevink Shirase Total to Site interest per season tourists to date tourists to date date A 1000 94 52 972 C 2000 93 1696 D P 500 444 F H 1500 914 G H P 1000 953 K P 1500 1402 T H 2000 1863 W 500 51 54 Y 500 46 (a) What is the minimum number of days that site C must have been open this season? [2] (b) Which sites might it be possible for Borchgrevink to visit tomorrow? [1] (c) What is the largest group that could have visited Y, if W is the site visited by the smallest number of ships? [2] Both ships will visit just two more sites on their current cruises. They want their tourists to have the chance to see both a historic hut and a penguin colony. (d) Give an example of which sites each ship should visit. [2] (e) Estimate how many tourists there have been in total this season. State any assumptions you have made. [3] [Turn over for Question 2]
10 marks
Mark scheme: Question Answer Marks 1(a) 93 were from B, so 1603 from others, [1] 2 each max 100, so 17 others and thus 18 [1] SC: 1 mark for final answer 17 (rounding up but not noting 93 separate) 1(b) Been to A&C, W&Y are closed, D and G do not have enough slots left, so 1 F,K,T 1(c) W had at least 2 visits [1] 2 so Y must have had at least 3 Two could have been singletons, so at most 44 1(d) B visits K and F 2 S visits D and F OR B visits K and T S visits D and F OR B visits K and F S visits D and T 1 mark for B visits K OR S visits D OR for correct pairings but not necessarily going to both sites OR not specifying ships. 1(e) Sensible assumption in line with the information given [1] 3 Calculation using data relevant to assumption (possibly rounded) [1] Consistent final answer that is at least 1863 and at most 3000 [1] Allow substantial rounding anywhere For example: Assume: 4 sites per cruise Total expected landings this season = 8644 2161 tourists Assume: Proportion landing from B and S are typical 150 tourists: 2 (187+103) = 580 landings So 3.89 landings per visitor Other ships landings 8344 – (187 + 103) = 8054 150 + 8054/3.89 = 2233 tourists SC: 1 mark for Minimum possible: 1863 + 150 = 2013.
2 A new form of long jump competition is being trialled. In the first round of the event, each athlete has up to three attempts to jump a certain distance. The rules are: • Once an athlete has succeeded in jumping the distance, the athlete does not have any more attempts in the round. • Any athlete who fails to jump the required distance in three attempts takes no further part in the event. In the second round, the successful athletes from the first round each have up to three attempts to jump a new, longer distance. The same rules still apply. This process continues until only one athlete remains in the event. If two (or more) athletes fail in three attempts at the same distance, their final positions in the event are determined by their total numbers of fails in the whole event: the athlete with fewer fails is placed higher. (Assume that there is never a tie.) The distance set for the first round is decided by the organisers of the event, but in subsequent rounds the distance always increases by 0.2 m. The results for a recent event with five athletes are given in the following table. Distance (in metres) Athlete 5.0 5.2 5.4 5.6 5.8 Matt ✘✓ ✘✓ ✘✘✓ ✘✓ ✘✘✘ Nathan ✓ ✘✓ ✘✓ ✘✘✓ ✘✘✘ Ollie ✘✘✓ ✘✘✘ – – – Pete ✘✓ ✘✓ ✘✘✘ – – Quentin ✘✘✘ – – – – This shows that, for example, Ollie had 2 fails and then 1 success at 5.0 m and 3 fails at 5.2 m, so he had no further attempts and a total of 5 fails. (a) Who won this event? Justify your answer. [1] In a second event involving these five athletes, Matt came 1st and Nathan came 2nd, both with a longest jump of 5.6 m. Ollie, Pete and Quentin came 3rd, 4th and 5th respectively, each with a longest jump of 5.4 m. The starting distance was 5.0 m. Nathan had a total of 5 fails and Pete had a total of 8 fails. (b) Draw up a possible table, similar to the one above, to show this information. [3] On another occasion, eleven athletes took part in a long jump event and the results of ten of these athletes are shown in the table below. By mistake, athlete Ken was omitted from this table. In fact, he came 6th. Distance (in metres) Athlete 5.0 5.2 5.4 5.6 5.8 6.0 6.2 6.4 6.6 Adi ✓ ✓ ✘✓ ✘✓ ✘✘✓ ✘✘✓ ✘✘✘ – – Ben ✓ ✘✓ ✓ ✓ ✘✓ ✓ ✘✓ ✘✘✓ ✘✘✘ Cal ✘✓ ✓ ✘✘✓ ✘✘✓ ✘✘✘ – – – – Den ✓ ✘✓ ✓ ✘✓ ✘✘✓ ✘✘✘ – – – Eric ✘✘✓ ✘✓ ✘✓ ✘✘✓ ✘✓ ✘✓ ✘✘✓ ✘✓ ✘✘✘ Fran ✘✓ ✘✘✓ ✘✘✓ ✘✘✘ – – – – – Greg ✘✘✘ – – – – – – – – Haz ✓ ✓ ✓ ✘✓ ✘✘✓ ✘✘✘ – – – Ido ✘✓ ✓ ✘✓ ✘✓ ✘✘✘ – – – – Josh ✓ ✘✘✓ ✘✘✘ – – – – – – (c) List, in order, the athletes who came 1st, 2nd, 3rd, 4th and 5th. [2] (d) (i) State the greatest distance that Ken could have jumped successfully, and, for this case, state all his possible total numbers of fails. [2] (ii) State the least distance that Ken could have jumped successfully, and, for this case, state all his possible total numbers of fails. [2] These 11 athletes took part in a second event in the same competition. A summary of the greatest distance that each jumped successfully and their total numbers of fails is shown below. Athlete Adi Ben Cal Den Eric Fran Greg Haz Ido Josh Ken Distance 5.6 5.8 5.4 5.2 5.4 5.2 5.8 6.0 6.0 5.2 6.2 Total fails 7 8 6 9 5 5 7 5 6 8 3 (e) What can you deduce about the greatest distance that could have been set by the organisers for the first round of this event? Explain your answer. [2] In order to find the overall winner of the two-event competition, points are awarded in each of the two events: 11 points for first place, 10 points for 2nd place, 9 points for 3rd place and so on to 1 point for 11th place. The points for each of the two events are added to give the athlete’s total number of points. The athlete with the highest total number of points is the winner. If there is a tie between athletes, the one with the fewest total number of fails in the two events is the winner. (f) Which athletes finished 1st, 2nd and 3rd overall in this two-event competition? Justify your answer. [3]
15 marks
Mark scheme: 2(a) Nathan. He has fewer fails. (7, Matt has 8) 1 2(b) For example: 3 5.0 5.2 5.4 5.6 5.8 M ✓ ✓ ✓ ✓ N ✓ ✓ ✓ ✓ O ✓ ✓ ✓ (–) P ✓ ✓ ✓ (–) Q ✓ ✓ ✓ (–) Quentin must have 9 fails [1] Matt has at most 4 fails OR Ollie has at most 7 fails [1] Nathan (5), Pete(8) and both of Matt/Ollie correct [1] Each row must be valid () ()✓ then 2(c) B E A H D 2 1 mark for 3 or 4 names in correct positions OR 4 in correct order 2(d)(i) 5.8 m with all of 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13 fails 2 1 mark for 5.8 m with at least one of 8,9,10,11,12,13 fails 2(d)(ii) 5.6 m with all of 3, 4 or 5 fails 2 1 mark for 5.6 m with at least one of 3, 4 or 5 fails SC: 2 marks 5.6 with 3 (ways) if 5.8 and 6 (ways) in 2(d)(i) SC2: 5.8 with 3-5 fails if 2(d)(i) 6.0 with 8–13 fails 2e Den had 9 fails. 3 at 5.4 m, [1] 2 2 at each of 5.2 m, 5.0 m and 4.8 m makes 4.8 m the maximum possible starting distance [1] SC: 1 mark for 4.6 m with first 3 fails at 5.2 m 2f 3 Adi Ben Cal Den Eric Fran Greg Haz Ido Josh Ken 3rd 1st 8th 5th 2nd 9th 11th 4th 7th 10th 6th 6th 5th 8th 11th 7th 9th 4th 2nd 3rd 10th 1st 9 11 4 7 10 3 1 8 5 2 6 6 7 4 1 5 3 8 10 9 2 11 15 18 8 8 15 6 9 18 14 4 17 Haz & Ben have equal maximum points (18) [1] Haz has (6 + 5 =) 11 fails; Ben has (8 + 8 =) 16 fails [1] Ken has 17 points OR in third place behind Haz & Ben. [1]
1 Visits to sites in Antarctica by tourists are strictly controlled. The rules state that not more than one ship may visit each site each day, and not more than 100 tourists may land at each site each day. Ships vary in size – sometimes just one person might land. Ships only visit sites where everyone on board may land, although sometimes a few people do not do so. There is a short summer season each year, and the unpredictable weather means that landings sometimes need to be rearranged or cancelled. Ships never go to the same site twice on a single cruise. Each site has a fixed maximum number of tourists per season, and a record is kept of the actual number of visits to the sites. All have spectacular scenery, but some have points of special interest such as historic huts (H) and penguin colonies (P). It is towards the end of the season and there are only two ships still there on otherwise typical cruises: Borchgrevink is carrying 97 tourists and Shirase has 53. Each ship has done two landings. The two southernmost sites, W and Y, have just been closed by frozen sea. Special Maximum tourists Borchgrevink Shirase Total to Site interest per season tourists to date tourists to date date A 1000 94 52 972 C 2000 93 1696 D P 500 444 F H 1500 914 G H P 1000 953 K P 1500 1402 T H 2000 1863 W 500 51 54 Y 500 46 (a) What is the minimum number of days that site C must have been open this season? [2] (b) Which sites might it be possible for Borchgrevink to visit tomorrow? [1] (c) What is the largest group that could have visited Y, if W is the site visited by the smallest number of ships? [2] Both ships will visit just two more sites on their current cruises. They want their tourists to have the chance to see both a historic hut and a penguin colony. (d) Give an example of which sites each ship should visit. [2] (e) Estimate how many tourists there have been in total this season. State any assumptions you have made. [3] [Turn over for Question 2]
10 marks
Mark scheme: Question Answer Marks 1(a) 93 were from B, so 1603 from others, [1] 2 each max 100, so 17 others and thus 18 [1] SC: 1 mark for final answer 17 (rounding up but not noting 93 separate) 1(b) Been to A&C, W&Y are closed, D and G do not have enough slots left, so 1 F,K,T 1(c) W had at least 2 visits [1] 2 so Y must have had at least 3 Two could have been singletons, so at most 44 1(d) B visits K and F 2 S visits D and F OR B visits K and T S visits D and F OR B visits K and F S visits D and T 1 mark for B visits K OR S visits D OR for correct pairings but not necessarily going to both sites OR not specifying ships. 1(e) Sensible assumption in line with the information given [1] 3 Calculation using data relevant to assumption (possibly rounded) [1] Consistent final answer that is at least 1863 and at most 3000 [1] Allow substantial rounding anywhere For example: Assume: 4 sites per cruise Total expected landings this season = 8644 2161 tourists Assume: Proportion landing from B and S are typical 150 tourists: 2 (187+103) = 580 landings So 3.89 landings per visitor Other ships landings 8344 – (187 + 103) = 8054 150 + 8054/3.89 = 2233 tourists SC: 1 mark for Minimum possible: 1863 + 150 = 2013.
2 A new form of long jump competition is being trialled. In the first round of the event, each athlete has up to three attempts to jump a certain distance. The rules are: • Once an athlete has succeeded in jumping the distance, the athlete does not have any more attempts in the round. • Any athlete who fails to jump the required distance in three attempts takes no further part in the event. In the second round, the successful athletes from the first round each have up to three attempts to jump a new, longer distance. The same rules still apply. This process continues until only one athlete remains in the event. If two (or more) athletes fail in three attempts at the same distance, their final positions in the event are determined by their total numbers of fails in the whole event: the athlete with fewer fails is placed higher. (Assume that there is never a tie.) The distance set for the first round is decided by the organisers of the event, but in subsequent rounds the distance always increases by 0.2 m. The results for a recent event with five athletes are given in the following table. Distance (in metres) Athlete 5.0 5.2 5.4 5.6 5.8 Matt ✘✓ ✘✓ ✘✘✓ ✘✓ ✘✘✘ Nathan ✓ ✘✓ ✘✓ ✘✘✓ ✘✘✘ Ollie ✘✘✓ ✘✘✘ – – – Pete ✘✓ ✘✓ ✘✘✘ – – Quentin ✘✘✘ – – – – This shows that, for example, Ollie had 2 fails and then 1 success at 5.0 m and 3 fails at 5.2 m, so he had no further attempts and a total of 5 fails. (a) Who won this event? Justify your answer. [1] In a second event involving these five athletes, Matt came 1st and Nathan came 2nd, both with a longest jump of 5.6 m. Ollie, Pete and Quentin came 3rd, 4th and 5th respectively, each with a longest jump of 5.4 m. The starting distance was 5.0 m. Nathan had a total of 5 fails and Pete had a total of 8 fails. (b) Draw up a possible table, similar to the one above, to show this information. [3] On another occasion, eleven athletes took part in a long jump event and the results of ten of these athletes are shown in the table below. By mistake, athlete Ken was omitted from this table. In fact, he came 6th. Distance (in metres) Athlete 5.0 5.2 5.4 5.6 5.8 6.0 6.2 6.4 6.6 Adi ✓ ✓ ✘✓ ✘✓ ✘✘✓ ✘✘✓ ✘✘✘ – – Ben ✓ ✘✓ ✓ ✓ ✘✓ ✓ ✘✓ ✘✘✓ ✘✘✘ Cal ✘✓ ✓ ✘✘✓ ✘✘✓ ✘✘✘ – – – – Den ✓ ✘✓ ✓ ✘✓ ✘✘✓ ✘✘✘ – – – Eric ✘✘✓ ✘✓ ✘✓ ✘✘✓ ✘✓ ✘✓ ✘✘✓ ✘✓ ✘✘✘ Fran ✘✓ ✘✘✓ ✘✘✓ ✘✘✘ – – – – – Greg ✘✘✘ – – – – – – – – Haz ✓ ✓ ✓ ✘✓ ✘✘✓ ✘✘✘ – – – Ido ✘✓ ✓ ✘✓ ✘✓ ✘✘✘ – – – – Josh ✓ ✘✘✓ ✘✘✘ – – – – – – (c) List, in order, the athletes who came 1st, 2nd, 3rd, 4th and 5th. [2] (d) (i) State the greatest distance that Ken could have jumped successfully, and, for this case, state all his possible total numbers of fails. [2] (ii) State the least distance that Ken could have jumped successfully, and, for this case, state all his possible total numbers of fails. [2] These 11 athletes took part in a second event in the same competition. A summary of the greatest distance that each jumped successfully and their total numbers of fails is shown below. Athlete Adi Ben Cal Den Eric Fran Greg Haz Ido Josh Ken Distance 5.6 5.8 5.4 5.2 5.4 5.2 5.8 6.0 6.0 5.2 6.2 Total fails 7 8 6 9 5 5 7 5 6 8 3 (e) What can you deduce about the greatest distance that could have been set by the organisers for the first round of this event? Explain your answer. [2] In order to find the overall winner of the two-event competition, points are awarded in each of the two events: 11 points for first place, 10 points for 2nd place, 9 points for 3rd place and so on to 1 point for 11th place. The points for each of the two events are added to give the athlete’s total number of points. The athlete with the highest total number of points is the winner. If there is a tie between athletes, the one with the fewest total number of fails in the two events is the winner. (f) Which athletes finished 1st, 2nd and 3rd overall in this two-event competition? Justify your answer. [3]
15 marks
Mark scheme: 2(a) Nathan. He has fewer fails. (7, Matt has 8) 1 2(b) For example: 3 5.0 5.2 5.4 5.6 5.8 M ✓ ✓ ✓ ✓ N ✓ ✓ ✓ ✓ O ✓ ✓ ✓ (–) P ✓ ✓ ✓ (–) Q ✓ ✓ ✓ (–) Quentin must have 9 fails [1] Matt has at most 4 fails OR Ollie has at most 7 fails [1] Nathan (5), Pete(8) and both of Matt/Ollie correct [1] Each row must be valid () ()✓ then 2(c) B E A H D 2 1 mark for 3 or 4 names in correct positions OR 4 in correct order 2(d)(i) 5.8 m with all of 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13 fails 2 1 mark for 5.8 m with at least one of 8,9,10,11,12,13 fails 2(d)(ii) 5.6 m with all of 3, 4 or 5 fails 2 1 mark for 5.6 m with at least one of 3, 4 or 5 fails SC: 2 marks 5.6 with 3 (ways) if 5.8 and 6 (ways) in 2(d)(i) SC2: 5.8 with 3-5 fails if 2(d)(i) 6.0 with 8–13 fails 2e Den had 9 fails. 3 at 5.4 m, [1] 2 2 at each of 5.2 m, 5.0 m and 4.8 m makes 4.8 m the maximum possible starting distance [1] SC: 1 mark for 4.6 m with first 3 fails at 5.2 m 2f 3 Adi Ben Cal Den Eric Fran Greg Haz Ido Josh Ken 3rd 1st 8th 5th 2nd 9th 11th 4th 7th 10th 6th 6th 5th 8th 11th 7th 9th 4th 2nd 3rd 10th 1st 9 11 4 7 10 3 1 8 5 2 6 6 7 4 1 5 3 8 10 9 2 11 15 18 8 8 15 6 9 18 14 4 17 Haz & Ben have equal maximum points (18) [1] Haz has (6 + 5 =) 11 fails; Ben has (8 + 8 =) 16 fails [1] Ken has 17 points OR in third place behind Haz & Ben. [1]
3 A singing competition takes place over six rounds. In each round the performances of all of the singers are ranked and points are awarded according to the following rules: • The number of points scored by the highest-ranked singer is twice the total number of singers in that round. • The number of points scored for each other position is two less than the position above. • If two singers are ranked equally, the points for those two positions are shared between them. Similarly, if three singers are ranked equally, the points for those three positions are shared between them, and so on. There are eight singers in round 1; so the highest-ranked singer is awarded 16 points and the next-ranked singer is awarded 14. If two singers were tied for the first and second positions, they would each be awarded 15 points. Any number of singers in the round could also receive a bonus. The bonus is always 2 points. At the end of each round, the singer with the lowest total score is eliminated and does not take part in any of the later rounds. If two or more singers have the same lowest total score then one of them is chosen to be eliminated at random. The scores for each of the first five rounds are shown in the table below. Score for each round Total Name Score 1 2 3 4 5 6 Akmal 11 16 4 7 6 44 Beau 4 11 10 5 4 34 Charlie 12 2 6 20 Daryl 14 8 6 2 30 Eliza 16 13 8 10 6 53 Feroza 9 10 14 10 8 51 George 8 4 12 Hank 4 4 (a) How many of the singers were awarded 2 bonus points in round 1? [2] At the end of round 4, Daryl was chosen at random to be eliminated from the two singers who shared the same total score. (b) Who was the other singer with the same lowest total score? [1] (c) Which singers were awarded 2 bonus points in round 2? Explain your answer. [3] (d) There are four different ways in which the points awarded in round 3 could have been achieved. Identify the set of singers receiving bonus points in each of these four cases. [4]
10 marks
Mark scheme: 3(a) In total 11 + 4 + 12 + 14 + 16 + 9 + 8 + 4 = 78 points were scored [1] 2 If no bonus points were awarded the total would be 16 + 14 + 12 + 10 + 8 + 6 + 4 + 2 = 72, so 3 people were awarded 2 bonus points Alternatively: In descending order the scores are 16, 14, 12, 11, 9, 8, 4, 4 The 9 and 11 must have been from a tie for 4th place with one (A) receiving 2 bonus points The 8 must have been achieved from 6 points plus 2 bonus points One of the 4s must have been achieved by adding 2 bonus points to 2 1 mark for any two identified 3(b) Beau 1 3(c) A, D, E and F (received bonus points) [1] 3 1 mark for each of the following (max 2): Maximum is 14 so A must have received a bonus E’s 13 points must have come from a tie (with B) leading to 11 points each, plus a bonus D’s 8 points and F’s 10 points can only have come from them each being awarded a bonus (because there is no 6 in the table) 3(d) A, C, F [1] 4 A, D, F [1] A, E, F [1] C, D, F [1] Max 3 if 5 answers offered Max 2 if 6 answers offered Max 1 if 7 answers offered 0 marks if more than 7 answers offered If no marks scored, award 1 mark for identifying that F must get a bonus SC: 2 marks for answer A, C, D, E, F
2 Every summer, from May to September, Ashley operates sightseeing boat trips in his vessel Anteros around Cambass Bay, departing from and returning to the dock at Cambass Quay. It is not safe to be away from the dock when the tide is too low, or when it is too dark, so Ashley must follow these rules: • He must not leave the dock earlier than 200 minutes before high tide. • He must not return to the dock later than 200 minutes after high tide. • His last trip of the day must finish no later than 30 minutes before sunset. Every day Ashley makes as many trips as possible and he plans his timetable as follows: • Each trip lasts 60 minutes and the next trip departs 20 minutes after the return of the previous one. • He times trips to depart at multiples of 10 minutes past the hour (i.e. 00, 10, 20 etc.). • The first trip of the day departs at 09:30 whenever the rules allow. • When he cannot start at 09:30 and when he is able to re-start before a high tide, his first departure time is always the first possible multiple of 10 minutes past the hour. (a) Show that on any day when the whole of the 400-minute period around high tide is between 09:30 and 30 minutes before sunset he can always make five trips during this period. [2] There were 4 trips yesterday, with departures at 09:30, 10:50, 18:00 and 19:20. Sunset yesterday was at 20:56. (b) (i) How many minutes before the latest possible time allowed by the rules did the last trip of the day return to the dock yesterday? [1] (ii) Give the earliest time (in the form hh:mm) that yesterday evening’s high tide might have occurred at. [2] Ashley’s vessel can carry a maximum of 30 passengers. He charges $16 per trip for each adult and $10 per trip for each child. Yesterday there was the same number of passengers aboard each of the four trips and the total income was $1618. (c) How many passengers were aboard each of yesterday’s trips? [3] This year Ashley has decided to finish on September 16. He is working out his timetable for September. The times of high tides and sunset for the relevant dates are detailed below. High Tides Sunset High Tides Sunset September 1 02:51 15:12 20:01 September 9 11:24 23:42 19:42 September 2 03:33 15:57 19:59 September 10 – 12:09 19:40 September 3 04:24 16:56 19:57 September 11 00:26 12:53 19:37 September 4 05:35 18:18 19:54 September 12 01:07 13:31 19:35 September 5 07:03 19:46 19:52 September 13 01:48 14:10 19:32 September 6 08:27 21:01 19:49 September 14 02:27 14:47 19:30 September 7 09:37 22:02 19:47 September 15 03:05 15:27 19:27 September 8 10:34 22:55 19:44 September 16 03:48 16:12 19:25 (d) (i) Give all the departure times that Ashley will schedule for his trips on September 3. [2] (ii) On which dates in September will he be able to start his first trip of the day at 09:30? [2] Ashley has worked out that there will be only four trips on September 16. As it will be the last day of his season, he wants to try to fit in one further trip within the time period allowed by the rules. He thinks he can do this if he starts his first trip at the first possible multiple of 5 minutes past the hour and reduces the time at the dock between trips from 20 minutes to 15 minutes during the day. (e) Can Ashley schedule a fifth trip on September 16? Explain your answer. [3]
15 marks
Mark scheme: 2(a) Five trips take (5 60 + 4 20 =) 380 minutes [1] 2 In the worst case he might start up to 9 minutes after the first available time, increasing the total to 389 minutes [1] (which is still less than 400) 2(b)(i) 6 minutes 1 2(b)(ii) 21:11 2 1 mark for sight of 17:51 OR 21:20 OR 21:10 2(c) A search will reveal that the only combination of multiples of $16 and $10 3 adding up to $1618 that gives a total number of passengers ⩽ 120 which is a multiple of 4 is 83 $16 + 29 $10, so the number aboard each trip was 112 ÷ 4 = 28 1 mark for sight of any combination of multiples of $16 and $10 adding up to $1618 OR 2 marks for sight of any combination of multiples of $16 and $10 adding up to $1618 that give a total number of passengers ⩽ 120 OR 2 marks for algebraic formulation, e.g. 8(4n + x) + 5(4n – x) = 809 with 2n passengers per day. 2(d)(i) 13:40, 15:00, 16:20, 17:40 2 1 mark for any one of the following: two or three correct times with no more than four times given 13:30, 14:50, 16:10, 17:30 (identifies 13:36, but goes to 13:30 rather than 13:40) 13:36, 14:56, 16:16, 17:36 (does not start on multiple of 10) all four correct times, plus 19:00 (which would arrive back less than 200 minutes after high tide, but after sunset) 12:40, 14:00, 15:20, 16:40, 18:00 (departure times for September 2nd) 13:00, 14:20, 15:40, 17:00, 18:20 (departure times for September 16th) 2(d)(ii) September 6, 7, 8, 9, 10 2 1 mark for one of the following: the above dates plus September 5 (which could depart but would need to return by 10:23 07:10 or 12:50 seen 2(e) He must return by 18:55 at the latest [1] 3 If he departs at 12:55 and (every 75 minutes) at 14:10, 15:25, 16:40 and 17:55 [1] he will return at 18:55 (which is an acceptable time), so Ashley can schedule a fifth trip [1]
2 Every summer, from May to September, Ashley operates sightseeing boat trips in his vessel Anteros around Cambass Bay, departing from and returning to the dock at Cambass Quay. It is not safe to be away from the dock when the tide is too low, or when it is too dark, so Ashley must follow these rules: • He must not leave the dock earlier than 200 minutes before high tide. • He must not return to the dock later than 200 minutes after high tide. • His last trip of the day must finish no later than 30 minutes before sunset. Every day Ashley makes as many trips as possible and he plans his timetable as follows: • Each trip lasts 60 minutes and the next trip departs 20 minutes after the return of the previous one. • He times trips to depart at multiples of 10 minutes past the hour (i.e. 00, 10, 20 etc.). • The first trip of the day departs at 09:30 whenever the rules allow. • When he cannot start at 09:30 and when he is able to re-start before a high tide, his first departure time is always the first possible multiple of 10 minutes past the hour. (a) Show that on any day when the whole of the 400-minute period around high tide is between 09:30 and 30 minutes before sunset he can always make five trips during this period. [2] There were 4 trips yesterday, with departures at 09:30, 10:50, 18:00 and 19:20. Sunset yesterday was at 20:56. (b) (i) How many minutes before the latest possible time allowed by the rules did the last trip of the day return to the dock yesterday? [1] (ii) Give the earliest time (in the form hh:mm) that yesterday evening’s high tide might have occurred at. [2] Ashley’s vessel can carry a maximum of 30 passengers. He charges $16 per trip for each adult and $10 per trip for each child. Yesterday there was the same number of passengers aboard each of the four trips and the total income was $1618. (c) How many passengers were aboard each of yesterday’s trips? [3] This year Ashley has decided to finish on September 16. He is working out his timetable for September. The times of high tides and sunset for the relevant dates are detailed below. High Tides Sunset High Tides Sunset September 1 02:51 15:12 20:01 September 9 11:24 23:42 19:42 September 2 03:33 15:57 19:59 September 10 – 12:09 19:40 September 3 04:24 16:56 19:57 September 11 00:26 12:53 19:37 September 4 05:35 18:18 19:54 September 12 01:07 13:31 19:35 September 5 07:03 19:46 19:52 September 13 01:48 14:10 19:32 September 6 08:27 21:01 19:49 September 14 02:27 14:47 19:30 September 7 09:37 22:02 19:47 September 15 03:05 15:27 19:27 September 8 10:34 22:55 19:44 September 16 03:48 16:12 19:25 (d) (i) Give all the departure times that Ashley will schedule for his trips on September 3. [2] (ii) On which dates in September will he be able to start his first trip of the day at 09:30? [2] Ashley has worked out that there will be only four trips on September 16. As it will be the last day of his season, he wants to try to fit in one further trip within the time period allowed by the rules. He thinks he can do this if he starts his first trip at the first possible multiple of 5 minutes past the hour and reduces the time at the dock between trips from 20 minutes to 15 minutes during the day. (e) Can Ashley schedule a fifth trip on September 16? Explain your answer. [3]
15 marks
Mark scheme: 2(a) Five trips take (5 60 + 4 20 =) 380 minutes [1] 2 In the worst case he might start up to 9 minutes after the first available time, increasing the total to 389 minutes [1] (which is still less than 400) 2(b)(i) 6 minutes 1 2(b)(ii) 21:11 2 1 mark for sight of 17:51 OR 21:20 OR 21:10 2(c) A search will reveal that the only combination of multiples of $16 and $10 3 adding up to $1618 that gives a total number of passengers ⩽ 120 which is a multiple of 4 is 83 $16 + 29 $10, so the number aboard each trip was 112 ÷ 4 = 28 1 mark for sight of any combination of multiples of $16 and $10 adding up to $1618 OR 2 marks for sight of any combination of multiples of $16 and $10 adding up to $1618 that give a total number of passengers ⩽ 120 OR 2 marks for algebraic formulation, e.g. 8(4n + x) + 5(4n – x) = 809 with 2n passengers per day. 2(d)(i) 13:40, 15:00, 16:20, 17:40 2 1 mark for any one of the following: two or three correct times with no more than four times given 13:30, 14:50, 16:10, 17:30 (identifies 13:36, but goes to 13:30 rather than 13:40) 13:36, 14:56, 16:16, 17:36 (does not start on multiple of 10) all four correct times, plus 19:00 (which would arrive back less than 200 minutes after high tide, but after sunset) 12:40, 14:00, 15:20, 16:40, 18:00 (departure times for September 2nd) 13:00, 14:20, 15:40, 17:00, 18:20 (departure times for September 16th) 2(d)(ii) September 6, 7, 8, 9, 10 2 1 mark for one of the following: the above dates plus September 5 (which could depart but would need to return by 10:23 07:10 or 12:50 seen 2(e) He must return by 18:55 at the latest [1] 3 If he departs at 12:55 and (every 75 minutes) at 14:10, 15:25, 16:40 and 17:55 [1] he will return at 18:55 (which is an acceptable time), so Ashley can schedule a fifth trip [1]
3 Felix manages a company that provides temporary workers to businesses. When a business makes a request for a worker, the type of work must be one of the following: answering the phone, typing letters, entering data, or filing documents. The table below shows the details of the five workers who could be provided. Type of work Hourly rate Name Answering Typing Entering Filing ($) the phone letters data documents Casey Y Y Y 47 Gene Y Y 45 Jamie Y Y 44 Robin Y 41 William Y Y Y 49 At 17:00 every day Felix takes a list of tasks needing to be allocated for the following day and allocates them in the order that they appear on the list. Whenever more than one worker is available for a task, Felix allocates the one with the lowest hourly rate. If any of the tasks is not allocated, Felix has to pay another company to supply someone. Each worker can only be allocated to one task each day. All workers are able to be allocated any amount of work up to 10 hours per day. One day, the list to be allocated has the following three tasks: Task Number of hours Filing documents 8 Entering data 6 Typing letters 7 (a) Explain why one of the tasks would not be allocated by Felix’s method. [1] (b) If Felix’s method is not followed and all three tasks are allocated to workers, what is the lowest total amount that could be paid? [3] On another day, Robin was on holiday and so not available. The other four workers were allocated tasks, using Felix’s method, as follows: William: answering the phone Casey and Jamie: typing letters Gene: entering data (c) Explain why it must be the case that the first task on the list was ‘typing letters’. [1] (d) Which must have been the last task on the list? Explain your answer. [1] All of the hourly rates that the current workers receive are calculated by adding the amount for each type of work that they can do to a basic hourly rate. (e) (i) For each of the four types of work, what is the amount added to the basic rate? [3] (ii) What are the highest and lowest hourly rates that a new worker at Felix’s company could be paid? [1] [Turn over for Question 4]
10 marks
Mark scheme: 3(a) Filing documents would be allocated to Casey 1 Entering data would be allocated to Jamie There is no-one left who could be allocated to typing letters 3(b) Filing documents – Casey – 8 $47 = $376 3 Typing letters – Jamie – 7 $44 = $308 Entering data – Gene – 6 $45 = $270 Total = $376 + $308 + $270 = $954 1 mark for any valid allocation of workers to the three tasks, with at least one worker’s pay calculated correctly 2 marks for a valid, but not optimal allocation with the correct total pay SC: 1 mark for the correct allocation of tasks to workers SC: 2 marks for $954 with an incorrect lower value subsequently found SC: 2 marks for $951 (ignoring 1 task per worker rule) 3(c) Any other task would not have been allocated as given: 1 Answering the phone would have gone to Gene; Entering data would have gone to Jamie 3(d) Answering the phone 1 (Jamie would been allocated typing Letters first) (Casey or) Gene would have been allocated answering the phone before William if it had not been the last on the list 3(e)(i) Answering the phone – $3 3 Typing letters – $2 Entering data – $4 Filing documents – $4 1 mark for any one identified 2 marks for any two identified 3(e)(ii) $40 and $51 1
1 A rural hospital is planning the staff and beds it will need during the forthcoming months. Any patient arriving at the Accident and Emergency Department (A&E) needs to be seen by an Assessor. Each assessment takes 20 minutes. The Assessor classifies each patient as an Urgent case, a Supervision case, or a Home case. • Urgent cases are assigned a bed for 24 hours immediately after their assessment and are attended to as necessary by other staff. • Supervision cases need to be supervised until 6 hours after they arrived at A&E. They are assigned a bed for any supervision time remaining after their assessment. • Home cases can be sent home immediately after their assessment. The hospital has data, gathered over many years, about the number of different cases that have arrived at A&E during one-hour time periods. They have simplified this data as shown in the table below and intend to use this for their planning. Urgent Supervision Home Lower limit 0 0 2 Average (mean) 1 1 4 Upper limit 8 2 5 The hospital uses this data to model the arrivals of patients. To simplify their model, they assume that patients arrive as a group at the beginning of each hour. Patients are seen by an Assessor before any patient that arrived later. At present the hospital has two Assessors on duty at any time. (a) Explain why having at least two Assessors on duty can be justified by the row of averages in the table. [1] (b) Give an example of how patients could arrive over an 8-hour period that matches all the data in the table, and all be seen by two Assessors by the end of the period. [2] (c) How many beds does the hospital need if an average number of each of the different cases arrives every hour? [2] Consider an 8-hour period in which the numbers of arrivals are not beyond the limits in the table, and at the start of which there are no patients still waiting to be assessed. (d) If none of the beds is occupied just after this period, what are the least and the greatest number of arrivals there could have been? [2] (e) If there are three Assessors on duty at any time, what is the longest that someone who arrived during this period could wait for their assessment to begin? [3] [Turn over for Question 2]
10 marks
Mark scheme: Question Answer Marks 1(a) On average 6 arrivals. 1 assessment per 20 minutes = 3 per Assessor per 1 hour. 6 ÷ 3 = 2 Assessors needed. 1(b) 2 marks for any example with the correct totals AND values within the limits 2 AND must be at least cumulative 6,12,18….. 1 mark for any example with two of these features 1 mark for an example in which any one type of appointment has the correct total and values within the limits 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 total U 8 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 8 S 0 0 1 1 1 1 2 2 8 H 2 2 5 5 5 5 5 3 32 1(c) Supervision: 1 an hour for 24 hours, but they start leaving (one in one out) 2 after 6: 6 beds needed [1] Urgents: 1 an hour for 24 hours = 24 beds needed If (at any point in time) the Urgent case classified 24 hours ago was not assessed immediately upon arrival, then 1 more bed is needed Total = 31 SC: 2 marks for final answer 30 1(d) min = 8 2 homes = 16 arrivals [1] 2 max = (8 5 homes) + (2 3 supervision) = 46 arrivals [1] SC: If 0 scored, award 1 mark for max = 44. (from 2 2 supervision) 1(e) If all 15 (max of each) came at the same time then they would take 5 3 Assessor–hours to be seen If this happened every hour for 8 hours, 40 Assessor–hours needed [1] If there were only 3 Assessors, this would take 13 h 20 m to complete [1] Someone arriving at the beginning of the 8th hour could have to wait (13 h 20 m – 7 h – 20 m =) 6 hours [1] oe OR Only 9 patients can be assessed within an hour, so if 15 arrive there will be an overflow of 6 At the start of the 8th hour there could be 7 6 = 42 patients [1] from earlier hours still waiting, plus 15 arrivals for the 8th hour The total number of patients waiting to be seen at the start of the 8th hour could be 57 57 assessments takes 19 hours [1], so with 3 assessors 6 hours 20 minutes are required The assessment takes 20 minutes, so the longest wait would be 6 hours 20 minutes – 20 minutes = 6 hours [1]
2 Fansee is a ball sport in which two teams attempt to hit a target suspended above the ground at their opponents’ end of the pitch. A fansee match consists of fifteen periods of play, known as ‘flytes’. Each flyte lasts for a maximum of 4 minutes and points are scored as follows: • When one team hits their target, they score a ‘tap’, which is worth 5 points. This brings the flyte to an immediate end. • If neither team has hit their target after four minutes of play, the team which has the ball at the end of the flyte scores a ‘hold’, which is worth 2 points. During a match, there is a break of 8 minutes between the fifth and sixth flytes and a break of 8 minutes between the tenth and eleventh flytes. All the other flytes begin exactly 1 minute after the end of the previous one. (a) What is the longest possible time that a fansee match can take to complete? [2] The team with the greater number of points after fifteen flytes wins the match. If both teams have the same number of points at the end of the match, the team that has scored the greater number of taps is the winner. (b) Explain why there will always be a winner. [1] Six teams are competing in a two-day fansee tournament. By the end of the tournament, later today, each team will have played five matches, one against each of the other teams. Only one fansee court is available, so two matches cannot be played simultaneously. The winner of the tournament will be the team with the most wins. If two or more teams have the same number of wins, the winner will be the team which has scored the greatest total number of points. The teams taking part are the Aces, the Deuces, the Treys, the Quartos, the Pentads and the Hexyls. Eight matches were played yesterday. The table below shows the points scored in yesterday’s matches. Points scored by Aces Deuces Treys Quartos Pentads Hexyls Aces 23 34 20 Deuces 31 28 12 Points Treys 32 33 24 scored against Quartos 26 19 Pentads 18 21 Hexyls 28 24 29 The Aces, the Deuces and the Quartos each won two matches yesterday and the Pentads and the Hexyls both won one. Only the Quartos are so far unbeaten, having defeated the Aces 34–26 and the Hexyls 29–19. (c) The greatest margin of victory in any of yesterday’s matches was 12 points. Which team won this match and who did they beat by 12 points? [1] (d) Which team won the match between the Treys and the Hexyls? Explain your answer. [1] (e) Explain how it can be deduced that the longest of yesterday’s matches was the match between the Deuces and the Pentads. [2] (f) How many taps and how many holds did each team score in the match between the Aces and the Deuces? [2] (g) The total number of taps scored by the Quartos yesterday was the same as the total number of holds they scored. How many taps did they score against the Hexyls? [2] The first of today’s seven matches is in progress. The fifth flyte has just finished and the Pentads are leading the Quartos 17–5. (h) What is the minimum number of the remaining ten flytes that the Quartos must score points from to have any chance of avoiding their first defeat of the tournament? [2] When this match has finished, the teams will all have played three matches. The organisers are currently arranging the order of play for the remaining six matches. They will make sure that: • no team plays in two consecutive matches at any time during the day • all teams have played their fourth match before any team plays its fifth match • all teams will have played each other once during the tournament. (i) Construct an order of play for the remaining six matches that meets these criteria. [2]
15 marks
Mark scheme: 2(a) (15 4) + (2 8) + (12 1) = 88 minutes oe 2 1 mark for 12 intervals of 1 minute each between flytes soi SC: 1 mark for a final answer of 89 minutes 2(b) For the scores to be level with both teams having scored the same number of 1 taps, they would need to have scored the same number of holds, which is not possible as there is an odd number of flytes 2(c) The Pentads beat the Treys (33 – 21) 1 2(d) The Hexyls: 1 The Treys did not win any matches OR the Hexyls won one match, but lost to the Aces and the Quartos 2(e) The total number of points scored was 30 (18 + 12) [1] 2 (which means that all the scores were holds,) so every flyte lasted 4 minutes / the maximum possible time [1] OR It was the only match in which there were no taps scored [1] so it lasted the maximum amount of time [1] 1 mark for associating fewer points with more time 2(f) The Aces’ 31 could be scored by 5 taps and 3 holds, 3 taps and 8 holds, or 1 2 tap and 13 holds The Deuces’ 23 could be scored by 3 taps and 4 holds or 1 tap and 9 holds 1 mark for identifying all possibilities for one of the teams The only pair which constitutes 15 flytes is Aces: 5 taps and 3 holds Deuces: 3 taps and 4 holds OR 1 mark for noting 31 + 23 = 54 = 30 + 3t total, 8 taps, so 7 holds. SC: 1 mark for full answer but with names swapped 2(g) 63 points scored by the Quartos must be from 63/(5 + 2) = 9 taps (+ 9 holds) 2 [1] They must have scored 6 taps (and 2 holds) against the Aces, so they scored 3 taps [1] (and 7 holds) against the Hexyls OR 34 against the Aces could be scored by 6 taps and 2 holds, 4 taps and 7 holds, or 2 taps and 12 holds 29 against the Hexyls could be scored by 5 taps and 2 holds, 3 taps and 7 holds, or 1 tap and 12 holds 1 mark for either Only one pair of these is consistent with the opponents’ scores, so they must have scored 6 taps against the Aces and 3 taps [1] against the Hexyls 2(h) 5 flytes won with taps would give them 30 points; if the Pentads won the 2 remaining five with holds they would have 27 1 mark for establishing that either 4 or 3 would not be enough: 4 taps would give the Deuces 25 points, but the other six flytes would give the Treys at least 29 points.3 taps would give the Quartos 20 points, but the other seven flytes would give the Pentads at least 31 points 2(i) Any one of the solutions shown in the table: 2 A v T A v T A v T A v T D v Q D v Q P v H P v H P v H P v H D v Q D v Q T v Q T v Q A v P A v P A v P D v H D v H T v Q D v H A v P T v Q D v H D v H D v H D v H D v H T v Q T v Q A v P A v P A v P A v P T v Q T v Q D v Q D v Q P v H P v H A v T P v H A v T D v Q P v H A v T D v Q A v T 1 mark for a schedule which includes each team twice, but has at most one instance of any of the following: Either Pentads or Quartos in the first match A team name appearing on two consecutive lines A team name not appearing in the last three lines 1 mark for correct answer with final game missing
1 A rural hospital is planning the staff and beds it will need during the forthcoming months. Any patient arriving at the Accident and Emergency Department (A&E) needs to be seen by an Assessor. Each assessment takes 20 minutes. The Assessor classifies each patient as an Urgent case, a Supervision case, or a Home case. • Urgent cases are assigned a bed for 24 hours immediately after their assessment and are attended to as necessary by other staff. • Supervision cases need to be supervised until 6 hours after they arrived at A&E. They are assigned a bed for any supervision time remaining after their assessment. • Home cases can be sent home immediately after their assessment. The hospital has data, gathered over many years, about the number of different cases that have arrived at A&E during one-hour time periods. They have simplified this data as shown in the table below and intend to use this for their planning. Urgent Supervision Home Lower limit 0 0 2 Average (mean) 1 1 4 Upper limit 8 2 5 The hospital uses this data to model the arrivals of patients. To simplify their model, they assume that patients arrive as a group at the beginning of each hour. Patients are seen by an Assessor before any patient that arrived later. At present the hospital has two Assessors on duty at any time. (a) Explain why having at least two Assessors on duty can be justified by the row of averages in the table. [1] (b) Give an example of how patients could arrive over an 8-hour period that matches all the data in the table, and all be seen by two Assessors by the end of the period. [2] (c) How many beds does the hospital need if an average number of each of the different cases arrives every hour? [2] Consider an 8-hour period in which the numbers of arrivals are not beyond the limits in the table, and at the start of which there are no patients still waiting to be assessed. (d) If none of the beds is occupied just after this period, what are the least and the greatest number of arrivals there could have been? [2] (e) If there are three Assessors on duty at any time, what is the longest that someone who arrived during this period could wait for their assessment to begin? [3] [Turn over for Question 2]
10 marks
Mark scheme: Question Answer Marks 1(a) On average 6 arrivals. 1 assessment per 20 minutes = 3 per Assessor per 1 hour. 6 ÷ 3 = 2 Assessors needed. 1(b) 2 marks for any example with the correct totals AND values within the limits 2 AND must be at least cumulative 6,12,18….. 1 mark for any example with two of these features 1 mark for an example in which any one type of appointment has the correct total and values within the limits 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 total U 8 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 8 S 0 0 1 1 1 1 2 2 8 H 2 2 5 5 5 5 5 3 32 1(c) Supervision: 1 an hour for 24 hours, but they start leaving (one in one out) 2 after 6: 6 beds needed [1] Urgents: 1 an hour for 24 hours = 24 beds needed If (at any point in time) the Urgent case classified 24 hours ago was not assessed immediately upon arrival, then 1 more bed is needed Total = 31 SC: 2 marks for final answer 30 1(d) min = 8 2 homes = 16 arrivals [1] 2 max = (8 5 homes) + (2 3 supervision) = 46 arrivals [1] SC: If 0 scored, award 1 mark for max = 44. (from 2 2 supervision) 1(e) If all 15 (max of each) came at the same time then they would take 5 3 Assessor–hours to be seen If this happened every hour for 8 hours, 40 Assessor–hours needed [1] If there were only 3 Assessors, this would take 13 h 20 m to complete [1] Someone arriving at the beginning of the 8th hour could have to wait (13 h 20 m – 7 h – 20 m =) 6 hours [1] oe OR Only 9 patients can be assessed within an hour, so if 15 arrive there will be an overflow of 6 At the start of the 8th hour there could be 7 6 = 42 patients [1] from earlier hours still waiting, plus 15 arrivals for the 8th hour The total number of patients waiting to be seen at the start of the 8th hour could be 57 57 assessments takes 19 hours [1], so with 3 assessors 6 hours 20 minutes are required The assessment takes 20 minutes, so the longest wait would be 6 hours 20 minutes – 20 minutes = 6 hours [1]
2 Fansee is a ball sport in which two teams attempt to hit a target suspended above the ground at their opponents’ end of the pitch. A fansee match consists of fifteen periods of play, known as ‘flytes’. Each flyte lasts for a maximum of 4 minutes and points are scored as follows: • When one team hits their target, they score a ‘tap’, which is worth 5 points. This brings the flyte to an immediate end. • If neither team has hit their target after four minutes of play, the team which has the ball at the end of the flyte scores a ‘hold’, which is worth 2 points. During a match, there is a break of 8 minutes between the fifth and sixth flytes and a break of 8 minutes between the tenth and eleventh flytes. All the other flytes begin exactly 1 minute after the end of the previous one. (a) What is the longest possible time that a fansee match can take to complete? [2] The team with the greater number of points after fifteen flytes wins the match. If both teams have the same number of points at the end of the match, the team that has scored the greater number of taps is the winner. (b) Explain why there will always be a winner. [1] Six teams are competing in a two-day fansee tournament. By the end of the tournament, later today, each team will have played five matches, one against each of the other teams. Only one fansee court is available, so two matches cannot be played simultaneously. The winner of the tournament will be the team with the most wins. If two or more teams have the same number of wins, the winner will be the team which has scored the greatest total number of points. The teams taking part are the Aces, the Deuces, the Treys, the Quartos, the Pentads and the Hexyls. Eight matches were played yesterday. The table below shows the points scored in yesterday’s matches. Points scored by Aces Deuces Treys Quartos Pentads Hexyls Aces 23 34 20 Deuces 31 28 12 Points Treys 32 33 24 scored against Quartos 26 19 Pentads 18 21 Hexyls 28 24 29 The Aces, the Deuces and the Quartos each won two matches yesterday and the Pentads and the Hexyls both won one. Only the Quartos are so far unbeaten, having defeated the Aces 34–26 and the Hexyls 29–19. (c) The greatest margin of victory in any of yesterday’s matches was 12 points. Which team won this match and who did they beat by 12 points? [1] (d) Which team won the match between the Treys and the Hexyls? Explain your answer. [1] (e) Explain how it can be deduced that the longest of yesterday’s matches was the match between the Deuces and the Pentads. [2] (f) How many taps and how many holds did each team score in the match between the Aces and the Deuces? [2] (g) The total number of taps scored by the Quartos yesterday was the same as the total number of holds they scored. How many taps did they score against the Hexyls? [2] The first of today’s seven matches is in progress. The fifth flyte has just finished and the Pentads are leading the Quartos 17–5. (h) What is the minimum number of the remaining ten flytes that the Quartos must score points from to have any chance of avoiding their first defeat of the tournament? [2] When this match has finished, the teams will all have played three matches. The organisers are currently arranging the order of play for the remaining six matches. They will make sure that: • no team plays in two consecutive matches at any time during the day • all teams have played their fourth match before any team plays its fifth match • all teams will have played each other once during the tournament. (i) Construct an order of play for the remaining six matches that meets these criteria. [2]
15 marks
Mark scheme: 2(a) (15 4) + (2 8) + (12 1) = 88 minutes oe 2 1 mark for 12 intervals of 1 minute each between flytes soi SC: 1 mark for a final answer of 89 minutes 2(b) For the scores to be level with both teams having scored the same number of 1 taps, they would need to have scored the same number of holds, which is not possible as there is an odd number of flytes 2(c) The Pentads beat the Treys (33 – 21) 1 2(d) The Hexyls: 1 The Treys did not win any matches OR the Hexyls won one match, but lost to the Aces and the Quartos 2(e) The total number of points scored was 30 (18 + 12) [1] 2 (which means that all the scores were holds,) so every flyte lasted 4 minutes / the maximum possible time [1] OR It was the only match in which there were no taps scored [1] so it lasted the maximum amount of time [1] 1 mark for associating fewer points with more time 2(f) The Aces’ 31 could be scored by 5 taps and 3 holds, 3 taps and 8 holds, or 1 2 tap and 13 holds The Deuces’ 23 could be scored by 3 taps and 4 holds or 1 tap and 9 holds 1 mark for identifying all possibilities for one of the teams The only pair which constitutes 15 flytes is Aces: 5 taps and 3 holds Deuces: 3 taps and 4 holds OR 1 mark for noting 31 + 23 = 54 = 30 + 3t total, 8 taps, so 7 holds. SC: 1 mark for full answer but with names swapped 2(g) 63 points scored by the Quartos must be from 63/(5 + 2) = 9 taps (+ 9 holds) 2 [1] They must have scored 6 taps (and 2 holds) against the Aces, so they scored 3 taps [1] (and 7 holds) against the Hexyls OR 34 against the Aces could be scored by 6 taps and 2 holds, 4 taps and 7 holds, or 2 taps and 12 holds 29 against the Hexyls could be scored by 5 taps and 2 holds, 3 taps and 7 holds, or 1 tap and 12 holds 1 mark for either Only one pair of these is consistent with the opponents’ scores, so they must have scored 6 taps against the Aces and 3 taps [1] against the Hexyls 2(h) 5 flytes won with taps would give them 30 points; if the Pentads won the 2 remaining five with holds they would have 27 1 mark for establishing that either 4 or 3 would not be enough: 4 taps would give the Deuces 25 points, but the other six flytes would give the Treys at least 29 points.3 taps would give the Quartos 20 points, but the other seven flytes would give the Pentads at least 31 points 2(i) Any one of the solutions shown in the table: 2 A v T A v T A v T A v T D v Q D v Q P v H P v H P v H P v H D v Q D v Q T v Q T v Q A v P A v P A v P D v H D v H T v Q D v H A v P T v Q D v H D v H D v H D v H D v H T v Q T v Q A v P A v P A v P A v P T v Q T v Q D v Q D v Q P v H P v H A v T P v H A v T D v Q P v H A v T D v Q A v T 1 mark for a schedule which includes each team twice, but has at most one instance of any of the following: Either Pentads or Quartos in the first match A team name appearing on two consecutive lines A team name not appearing in the last three lines 1 mark for correct answer with final game missing
1 A rural hospital is planning the staff and beds it will need during the forthcoming months. Any patient arriving at the Accident and Emergency Department (A&E) needs to be seen by an Assessor. Each assessment takes 20 minutes. The Assessor classifies each patient as an Urgent case, a Supervision case, or a Home case. • Urgent cases are assigned a bed for 24 hours immediately after their assessment and are attended to as necessary by other staff. • Supervision cases need to be supervised until 6 hours after they arrived at A&E. They are assigned a bed for any supervision time remaining after their assessment. • Home cases can be sent home immediately after their assessment. The hospital has data, gathered over many years, about the number of different cases that have arrived at A&E during one-hour time periods. They have simplified this data as shown in the table below and intend to use this for their planning. Urgent Supervision Home Lower limit 0 0 2 Average (mean) 1 1 4 Upper limit 8 2 5 The hospital uses this data to model the arrivals of patients. To simplify their model, they assume that patients arrive as a group at the beginning of each hour. Patients are seen by an Assessor before any patient that arrived later. At present the hospital has two Assessors on duty at any time. (a) Explain why having at least two Assessors on duty can be justified by the row of averages in the table. [1] (b) Give an example of how patients could arrive over an 8-hour period that matches all the data in the table, and all be seen by two Assessors by the end of the period. [2] (c) How many beds does the hospital need if an average number of each of the different cases arrives every hour? [2] Consider an 8-hour period in which the numbers of arrivals are not beyond the limits in the table, and at the start of which there are no patients still waiting to be assessed. (d) If none of the beds is occupied just after this period, what are the least and the greatest number of arrivals there could have been? [2] (e) If there are three Assessors on duty at any time, what is the longest that someone who arrived during this period could wait for their assessment to begin? [3] [Turn over for Question 2]
10 marks
Mark scheme: Question Answer Marks 1(a) On average 6 arrivals. 1 assessment per 20 minutes = 3 per Assessor per 1 hour. 6 ÷ 3 = 2 Assessors needed. 1(b) 2 marks for any example with the correct totals AND values within the limits 2 AND must be at least cumulative 6,12,18….. 1 mark for any example with two of these features 1 mark for an example in which any one type of appointment has the correct total and values within the limits 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 total U 8 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 8 S 0 0 1 1 1 1 2 2 8 H 2 2 5 5 5 5 5 3 32 1(c) Supervision: 1 an hour for 24 hours, but they start leaving (one in one out) 2 after 6: 6 beds needed [1] Urgents: 1 an hour for 24 hours = 24 beds needed If (at any point in time) the Urgent case classified 24 hours ago was not assessed immediately upon arrival, then 1 more bed is needed Total = 31 SC: 2 marks for final answer 30 1(d) min = 8 2 homes = 16 arrivals [1] 2 max = (8 5 homes) + (2 3 supervision) = 46 arrivals [1] SC: If 0 scored, award 1 mark for max = 44. (from 2 2 supervision) 1(e) If all 15 (max of each) came at the same time then they would take 5 3 Assessor–hours to be seen If this happened every hour for 8 hours, 40 Assessor–hours needed [1] If there were only 3 Assessors, this would take 13 h 20 m to complete [1] Someone arriving at the beginning of the 8th hour could have to wait (13 h 20 m – 7 h – 20 m =) 6 hours [1] oe OR Only 9 patients can be assessed within an hour, so if 15 arrive there will be an overflow of 6 At the start of the 8th hour there could be 7 6 = 42 patients [1] from earlier hours still waiting, plus 15 arrivals for the 8th hour The total number of patients waiting to be seen at the start of the 8th hour could be 57 57 assessments takes 19 hours [1], so with 3 assessors 6 hours 20 minutes are required The assessment takes 20 minutes, so the longest wait would be 6 hours 20 minutes – 20 minutes = 6 hours [1]
2 Fansee is a ball sport in which two teams attempt to hit a target suspended above the ground at their opponents’ end of the pitch. A fansee match consists of fifteen periods of play, known as ‘flytes’. Each flyte lasts for a maximum of 4 minutes and points are scored as follows: • When one team hits their target, they score a ‘tap’, which is worth 5 points. This brings the flyte to an immediate end. • If neither team has hit their target after four minutes of play, the team which has the ball at the end of the flyte scores a ‘hold’, which is worth 2 points. During a match, there is a break of 8 minutes between the fifth and sixth flytes and a break of 8 minutes between the tenth and eleventh flytes. All the other flytes begin exactly 1 minute after the end of the previous one. (a) What is the longest possible time that a fansee match can take to complete? [2] The team with the greater number of points after fifteen flytes wins the match. If both teams have the same number of points at the end of the match, the team that has scored the greater number of taps is the winner. (b) Explain why there will always be a winner. [1] Six teams are competing in a two-day fansee tournament. By the end of the tournament, later today, each team will have played five matches, one against each of the other teams. Only one fansee court is available, so two matches cannot be played simultaneously. The winner of the tournament will be the team with the most wins. If two or more teams have the same number of wins, the winner will be the team which has scored the greatest total number of points. The teams taking part are the Aces, the Deuces, the Treys, the Quartos, the Pentads and the Hexyls. Eight matches were played yesterday. The table below shows the points scored in yesterday’s matches. Points scored by Aces Deuces Treys Quartos Pentads Hexyls Aces 23 34 20 Deuces 31 28 12 Points Treys 32 33 24 scored against Quartos 26 19 Pentads 18 21 Hexyls 28 24 29 The Aces, the Deuces and the Quartos each won two matches yesterday and the Pentads and the Hexyls both won one. Only the Quartos are so far unbeaten, having defeated the Aces 34–26 and the Hexyls 29–19. (c) The greatest margin of victory in any of yesterday’s matches was 12 points. Which team won this match and who did they beat by 12 points? [1] (d) Which team won the match between the Treys and the Hexyls? Explain your answer. [1] (e) Explain how it can be deduced that the longest of yesterday’s matches was the match between the Deuces and the Pentads. [2] (f) How many taps and how many holds did each team score in the match between the Aces and the Deuces? [2] (g) The total number of taps scored by the Quartos yesterday was the same as the total number of holds they scored. How many taps did they score against the Hexyls? [2] The first of today’s seven matches is in progress. The fifth flyte has just finished and the Pentads are leading the Quartos 17–5. (h) What is the minimum number of the remaining ten flytes that the Quartos must score points from to have any chance of avoiding their first defeat of the tournament? [2] When this match has finished, the teams will all have played three matches. The organisers are currently arranging the order of play for the remaining six matches. They will make sure that: • no team plays in two consecutive matches at any time during the day • all teams have played their fourth match before any team plays its fifth match • all teams will have played each other once during the tournament. (i) Construct an order of play for the remaining six matches that meets these criteria. [2]
15 marks
Mark scheme: 2(a) (15 4) + (2 8) + (12 1) = 88 minutes oe 2 1 mark for 12 intervals of 1 minute each between flytes soi SC: 1 mark for a final answer of 89 minutes 2(b) For the scores to be level with both teams having scored the same number of 1 taps, they would need to have scored the same number of holds, which is not possible as there is an odd number of flytes 2(c) The Pentads beat the Treys (33 – 21) 1 2(d) The Hexyls: 1 The Treys did not win any matches OR the Hexyls won one match, but lost to the Aces and the Quartos 2(e) The total number of points scored was 30 (18 + 12) [1] 2 (which means that all the scores were holds,) so every flyte lasted 4 minutes / the maximum possible time [1] OR It was the only match in which there were no taps scored [1] so it lasted the maximum amount of time [1] 1 mark for associating fewer points with more time 2(f) The Aces’ 31 could be scored by 5 taps and 3 holds, 3 taps and 8 holds, or 1 2 tap and 13 holds The Deuces’ 23 could be scored by 3 taps and 4 holds or 1 tap and 9 holds 1 mark for identifying all possibilities for one of the teams The only pair which constitutes 15 flytes is Aces: 5 taps and 3 holds Deuces: 3 taps and 4 holds OR 1 mark for noting 31 + 23 = 54 = 30 + 3t total, 8 taps, so 7 holds. SC: 1 mark for full answer but with names swapped 2(g) 63 points scored by the Quartos must be from 63/(5 + 2) = 9 taps (+ 9 holds) 2 [1] They must have scored 6 taps (and 2 holds) against the Aces, so they scored 3 taps [1] (and 7 holds) against the Hexyls OR 34 against the Aces could be scored by 6 taps and 2 holds, 4 taps and 7 holds, or 2 taps and 12 holds 29 against the Hexyls could be scored by 5 taps and 2 holds, 3 taps and 7 holds, or 1 tap and 12 holds 1 mark for either Only one pair of these is consistent with the opponents’ scores, so they must have scored 6 taps against the Aces and 3 taps [1] against the Hexyls 2(h) 5 flytes won with taps would give them 30 points; if the Pentads won the 2 remaining five with holds they would have 27 1 mark for establishing that either 4 or 3 would not be enough: 4 taps would give the Deuces 25 points, but the other six flytes would give the Treys at least 29 points.3 taps would give the Quartos 20 points, but the other seven flytes would give the Pentads at least 31 points 2(i) Any one of the solutions shown in the table: 2 A v T A v T A v T A v T D v Q D v Q P v H P v H P v H P v H D v Q D v Q T v Q T v Q A v P A v P A v P D v H D v H T v Q D v H A v P T v Q D v H D v H D v H D v H D v H T v Q T v Q A v P A v P A v P A v P T v Q T v Q D v Q D v Q P v H P v H A v T P v H A v T D v Q P v H A v T D v Q A v T 1 mark for a schedule which includes each team twice, but has at most one instance of any of the following: Either Pentads or Quartos in the first match A team name appearing on two consecutive lines A team name not appearing in the last three lines 1 mark for correct answer with final game missing
3 Alfred and Zoe are planning their wedding and need to send invitations to the guests. The company that produces the invitations offers two services – either the invitations can be fully printed and sent, or Alfred and Zoe can hand-write part of the invitation before it is sent. The company sends all of the invitations, whether they are fully printed or hand-written. It is possible to have some of the invitations printed and the rest hand-written. Alfred and Zoe believe that it will take 2 minutes to write 1 invitation. They will take a break of 30 minutes after every 2 hours of writing invitations. There will be a total of 200 invitations. (a) If Alfred and Zoe write half of the invitations each and both start at 09:00, what time will it be when they have finished writing all 200 invitations? [1] Alfred and Zoe decide to have some of the invitations fully printed. Zoe is writing all of the hand- written invitations. They have worked out that Zoe will finish writing invitations at exactly 12:00 if she starts at 09:00. The company charges $3 for each fully printed invitation and $4 for each hand-written invitation. (b) What will be the total charge for the 200 invitations? [2] The company that sends out the invitations also collects the replies. There are three possible replies for each invitation: • Unable to attend • One guest attending • Two guests attending 144 replies have been received. The number of guests attending the wedding from the replies received so far is 195. There are twice as many replies indicating two guests attending as there are indicating one guest attending. (c) How many of the replies were ‘Unable to attend’? [2] (d) What is the largest number of guests that there might be at the wedding? [1] Each guest will have a meal at the wedding reception. Alfred and Zoe are able to pre-order meals now at a cost of $40 each; this cost is not refundable. Any extra meals that are ordered later will cost $50 each. After the wedding, Alfred and Zoe will calculate the amount that they have overspent on meals. They will do this by finding the difference between the amount that they spent on meals and the amount that they would have spent if they had pre-ordered the correct number of meals. Alfred and Zoe have estimated that there will be between 205 and 250 guests at the wedding. (e) Suppose that 205 meals for guests are pre-ordered, but 250 guests attend the wedding. Show that Alfred and Zoe would have overspent by $450. [1] Alfred and Zoe will pre-order the number of meals so that the greatest possible amount by which they have overspent is as small as possible if there are between 205 and 250 guests at the wedding. (f) How many meals for guests will they pre-order? [3]
10 marks
Mark scheme: 3(a) 12:50 1 3(b) There will be one break of 30 minutes, so Zoe will be writing invitations for 2 150 minutes [1] 75 $4 + 125 $3 = $675 SC: 1 mark for answer of $690 (deriving from Zoe taking no break) 3(c) 2 with two attending and one attending alone is a total of 5 guests from 3 replies 2 195 / 5 = 39 [1] The number unable to attend is therefore 144 – 3 39 = 27 3(d) 307 1 3(e) 45 meals will have cost $10 more than if they had been ordered initially 1 so 45 $10 = $450 AG 3(f) An additional meal that is not booked adds $10 to the overspend, while a meal 3 that is booked, but not used adds $40 to the overspend [1] The range of 45 meals must be split in the ratio 1:4 [1] 214 Alternative solution: If 205 + x meals are booked: Overspend with 205 guests is 40x Overspend with 250 guests is 10(45 – x) [1] 40x = 450 – 10x [1] x = 9 and so 214 meals need to be booked Alternative solution: 1 mark for any correct pair of maximum overspends for any number of pre- ordered meals 1 mark for a second pair with a lower highest value
2 Grace is a children’s entertainer who can be booked for parties. When she receives a request to perform at a party, Grace collects the following information: • The number of hours for which she will need to perform. • The distance that she will need to travel to reach the party. • Her own rating for the party, to indicate how much she thinks she will enjoy performing. The rating is either 1, 2 or 3. A rating of 3 is given to the parties that she will most enjoy performing at. • The fee that she will be paid for performing at the party, which must always be a whole number of dollars. Grace uses the following method to calculate a score for each request: • She subtracts the number of kilometres that she will need to travel to reach the party from the fee that she will be paid for performing. • She then divides this value by the number of hours for which she will perform. • If her rating for how much she would enjoy performing at the party is 1 then she reduces this amount by 10%. • If her rating for how much she would enjoy performing at the party is 3 then she increases this amount by 10%. Grace will not perform at any party with a score of less than 25. If she has more than one request scoring 25 or more for the same day then she will choose the one with the highest score. Grace has four requests to perform at parties next Saturday. The details are shown in the table. Customer Length (hours) Fee ($) Distance (km) Grace’s rating Mollie 3 88 10 1 John 2 68 6 2 Frank 3 99 12 3 Wendy 4 135 9 Grace has not yet decided on her rating for Wendy’s party. (a) Show that Grace will not perform at Mollie’s party. [2] (b) Show that Grace will not perform at John’s party. [2] Once she had allocated a rating to Wendy’s party, Grace used her system to decide that she would perform at Frank’s party. (c) What rating or ratings might Grace have given to Wendy’s party? [1] When Grace contacted John to tell him that she would not perform at his party, John offered to increase the fee. (d) What is the smallest fee that John could offer so that Grace would choose to perform at his party? [2] Grace decides that she would like to change her system so that she is more likely to choose longer parties. To do this she calculates the score as before, but then adds on a fixed amount for each hour that the party lasts. To decide on this fixed amount, Grace considers parties that she would need to travel 5 km to reach and that she would award a rating of 2. Initially, she wants to set the additional amount for each hour so that a 2-hour party with a fee of $69 will receive the same score as a 4-hour party with a fee of $109. (e) What is the amount that Grace would need to set for each hour that the party lasts? [2] Instead, Grace decides to set the fixed amount for each hour that the party lasts to 5. She realises that she needs to change the minimum score that a party needs to be given in order for her to choose to perform at it. She would like to choose a value that ensures that she will reject the same 3-hour parties as she would have rejected under her original system. (f) What is the minimum value that a party will need to score for Grace to perform at it? [1] (g) Show that, under the new system, Wendy’s party would have been chosen no matter what rating Grace gave it. [2] Grace considers the two parties shown below: Customer Length (hours) Fee ($) Distance (km) Grace’s rating Polly 5 180 5 1 Quentin 4 7 2 (h) What fee would need to be offered for Quentin’s party in order for both parties to receive the same score under the new system? [3]
15 marks
Mark scheme: 2(a) (88 – 10) / 3 = 26 [1] 2 90 % of 26 = 23.4 < 25 [1] Alternative solution: Mollie: (88 – 10) / 3 = 26 [1] 90 % of 26 = 23.4 Frank: 1.1 (99 – 12) / 3 = 31.9 Mollie’s rating of 23.4 is less than Frank’s 31.9, so not chosen [1] 2(b) John’s party has a rating of 31 2 Frank’s party has a rating of 31.9 1 mark for either rating calculated correctly Since 31 < 31.9, John’s party will not be chosen [1] 2(c) 135 – 9 = 126 and 126 ÷ 4 = 31.5 1 31.5 < 31.9 < 31.5 + 3.15 1 or 2 2(d) 31.9 2 = 63.8 [1] 2 The fee must be more than 63.8 + 6 = 69.8 $70 2(e) (69 – 5) ÷ 2 = 32 2 (109 – 5) ÷ 4 = 26 1 mark for both scores So 2 additional hours increases the score by 6 3 for each hour 2(f) 25 + 3 5 = 40 1 2(g) Under the new system, Frank’s party is the best of the others with a score of 2 46.9 [1] The lowest score Wendy’s party could be given is: (135 – 9) ÷ 4 = 31.5 31.5 – 3.15 = 28.35 28.35 + 4 5 = 48.35 [1] 2(h) Polly’s party would have a score of (180 – 5) / 5 = 35, 3 reduced by 10 % to 31.5 [1] plus the fixed amount of 25 = 56.5 To achieve a score of 56.5 would require a fee of (56.5 – 20) [1] 4 + 7 = $153 1 mark for calculating the score for Quentin’s for two choices of fee with improvement towards their value of Polly’s score SC: 2 marks for final answer $133
3 Roadworks have blocked the main road, and all drivers are following the instructions of one of two navigation systems to determine whether to go left or right at the junction before the blockage. One system, Beng, is alternately sending its users left (L) and right (R) to spread the traffic. The other, Dikdik, is repeatedly sending one of its users left and then the next two right. Neither system takes account of what the other one is doing. (a) If each driver is as likely to use one system as the other, what proportion turn left? [1] (b) What is the shortest list of consecutive turns that could never be seen? [1] (c) The first six drivers are sent L, L, R, L, R, R (in that order). For two of these drivers, the system that they are using can be determined. Identify these two drivers and which system each is using, and explain how it can be known. [3] (d) Give an example of a sequence of nine consecutive turns with the smallest possible number of left turns. Indicate which system is used by each driver. [1] (e) What is the smallest possible number of right turns in any nine consecutive turns? Give an example of this which has each system used by at least three drivers, indicating which system is used by each driver. [2] (f) If 57 out of 156 drivers turned left, estimate what proportion used Beng. [2] [Turn over for Question 4]
10 marks
Mark scheme: 3(a) 5 / 12 oe 1 3(b) LLL 1 3(c) Third and fourth, who both use Beng [1] 3 The third cannot be Dikdik, as that would require the fourth to be a right turn [1] The fourth cannot be Dikdik as that must be one of the first two Ls, and there have to be two Rs before another [1] OR The third cannot be Dikdik, as that would require the fourth to be a right turn [1] Hence the fourth must be Beng as Dikdik would have sent the driver right [1] OR The fourth cannot be Dikdik as that must be one of the first two Ls, and there have to be two Rs before another [1] Since the fourth and one of the first two are L/Beng, the third must be Beng [1] 3(d) Any sequence RRLRRLRR, all from Dikdik, with an extra R at any point from 1 Beng and with each driver’s system identified 3(e) 4 [1] 2 Any sequence LRLRL from Beng, with LRRL from Dikdik interspersed in any way and with each driver’s system identified [1] 3(f) 156 / 3 (52) if all D, 156 / 2 (78) if all B 2 1 mark for either (57 – 52) / (78 – 52) = 5 / 26 oe Alternative solution: 1 mark for x + y = 156, x/2 + y/3 = 57 30 / 156 oe
2 Grace is a children’s entertainer who can be booked for parties. When she receives a request to perform at a party, Grace collects the following information: • The number of hours for which she will need to perform. • The distance that she will need to travel to reach the party. • Her own rating for the party, to indicate how much she thinks she will enjoy performing. The rating is either 1, 2 or 3. A rating of 3 is given to the parties that she will most enjoy performing at. • The fee that she will be paid for performing at the party, which must always be a whole number of dollars. Grace uses the following method to calculate a score for each request: • She subtracts the number of kilometres that she will need to travel to reach the party from the fee that she will be paid for performing. • She then divides this value by the number of hours for which she will perform. • If her rating for how much she would enjoy performing at the party is 1 then she reduces this amount by 10%. • If her rating for how much she would enjoy performing at the party is 3 then she increases this amount by 10%. Grace will not perform at any party with a score of less than 25. If she has more than one request scoring 25 or more for the same day then she will choose the one with the highest score. Grace has four requests to perform at parties next Saturday. The details are shown in the table. Customer Length (hours) Fee ($) Distance (km) Grace’s rating Mollie 3 88 10 1 John 2 68 6 2 Frank 3 99 12 3 Wendy 4 135 9 Grace has not yet decided on her rating for Wendy’s party. (a) Show that Grace will not perform at Mollie’s party. [2] (b) Show that Grace will not perform at John’s party. [2] Once she had allocated a rating to Wendy’s party, Grace used her system to decide that she would perform at Frank’s party. (c) What rating or ratings might Grace have given to Wendy’s party? [1] When Grace contacted John to tell him that she would not perform at his party, John offered to increase the fee. (d) What is the smallest fee that John could offer so that Grace would choose to perform at his party? [2] Grace decides that she would like to change her system so that she is more likely to choose longer parties. To do this she calculates the score as before, but then adds on a fixed amount for each hour that the party lasts. To decide on this fixed amount, Grace considers parties that she would need to travel 5 km to reach and that she would award a rating of 2. Initially, she wants to set the additional amount for each hour so that a 2-hour party with a fee of $69 will receive the same score as a 4-hour party with a fee of $109. (e) What is the amount that Grace would need to set for each hour that the party lasts? [2] Instead, Grace decides to set the fixed amount for each hour that the party lasts to 5. She realises that she needs to change the minimum score that a party needs to be given in order for her to choose to perform at it. She would like to choose a value that ensures that she will reject the same 3-hour parties as she would have rejected under her original system. (f) What is the minimum value that a party will need to score for Grace to perform at it? [1] (g) Show that, under the new system, Wendy’s party would have been chosen no matter what rating Grace gave it. [2] Grace considers the two parties shown below: Customer Length (hours) Fee ($) Distance (km) Grace’s rating Polly 5 180 5 1 Quentin 4 7 2 (h) What fee would need to be offered for Quentin’s party in order for both parties to receive the same score under the new system? [3]
15 marks
Mark scheme: 2(a) (88 – 10) / 3 = 26 [1] 2 90 % of 26 = 23.4 < 25 [1] Alternative solution: Mollie: (88 – 10) / 3 = 26 [1] 90 % of 26 = 23.4 Frank: 1.1 (99 – 12) / 3 = 31.9 Mollie’s rating of 23.4 is less than Frank’s 31.9, so not chosen [1] 2(b) John’s party has a rating of 31 2 Frank’s party has a rating of 31.9 1 mark for either rating calculated correctly Since 31 < 31.9, John’s party will not be chosen [1] 2(c) 135 – 9 = 126 and 126 ÷ 4 = 31.5 1 31.5 < 31.9 < 31.5 + 3.15 1 or 2 2(d) 31.9 2 = 63.8 [1] 2 The fee must be more than 63.8 + 6 = 69.8 $70 2(e) (69 – 5) ÷ 2 = 32 2 (109 – 5) ÷ 4 = 26 1 mark for both scores So 2 additional hours increases the score by 6 3 for each hour 2(f) 25 + 3 5 = 40 1 2(g) Under the new system, Frank’s party is the best of the others with a score of 2 46.9 [1] The lowest score Wendy’s party could be given is: (135 – 9) ÷ 4 = 31.5 31.5 – 3.15 = 28.35 28.35 + 4 5 = 48.35 [1] 2(h) Polly’s party would have a score of (180 – 5) / 5 = 35, 3 reduced by 10 % to 31.5 [1] plus the fixed amount of 25 = 56.5 To achieve a score of 56.5 would require a fee of (56.5 – 20) [1] 4 + 7 = $153 1 mark for calculating the score for Quentin’s for two choices of fee with improvement towards their value of Polly’s score SC: 2 marks for final answer $133
3 Roadworks have blocked the main road, and all drivers are following the instructions of one of two navigation systems to determine whether to go left or right at the junction before the blockage. One system, Beng, is alternately sending its users left (L) and right (R) to spread the traffic. The other, Dikdik, is repeatedly sending one of its users left and then the next two right. Neither system takes account of what the other one is doing. (a) If each driver is as likely to use one system as the other, what proportion turn left? [1] (b) What is the shortest list of consecutive turns that could never be seen? [1] (c) The first six drivers are sent L, L, R, L, R, R (in that order). For two of these drivers, the system that they are using can be determined. Identify these two drivers and which system each is using, and explain how it can be known. [3] (d) Give an example of a sequence of nine consecutive turns with the smallest possible number of left turns. Indicate which system is used by each driver. [1] (e) What is the smallest possible number of right turns in any nine consecutive turns? Give an example of this which has each system used by at least three drivers, indicating which system is used by each driver. [2] (f) If 57 out of 156 drivers turned left, estimate what proportion used Beng. [2] [Turn over for Question 4]
10 marks
Mark scheme: 3(a) 5 / 12 oe 1 3(b) LLL 1 3(c) Third and fourth, who both use Beng [1] 3 The third cannot be Dikdik, as that would require the fourth to be a right turn [1] The fourth cannot be Dikdik as that must be one of the first two Ls, and there have to be two Rs before another [1] OR The third cannot be Dikdik, as that would require the fourth to be a right turn [1] Hence the fourth must be Beng as Dikdik would have sent the driver right [1] OR The fourth cannot be Dikdik as that must be one of the first two Ls, and there have to be two Rs before another [1] Since the fourth and one of the first two are L/Beng, the third must be Beng [1] 3(d) Any sequence RRLRRLRR, all from Dikdik, with an extra R at any point from 1 Beng and with each driver’s system identified 3(e) 4 [1] 2 Any sequence LRLRL from Beng, with LRRL from Dikdik interspersed in any way and with each driver’s system identified [1] 3(f) 156 / 3 (52) if all D, 156 / 2 (78) if all B 2 1 mark for either (57 – 52) / (78 – 52) = 5 / 26 oe Alternative solution: 1 mark for x + y = 156, x/2 + y/3 = 57 30 / 156 oe
1 A government scheme for supporting the poor was badly designed. The idea was to make a payment, called a ‘benefit’, each (calendar) month to people whose income is below a certain level (threshold). The amount someone would receive was calculated so that, in order to ‘make work pay’, at every level of income, an increase in earned income would always result in an increase in the total of earned income and benefit. Anyone whose income went above the threshold in any month would automatically be removed from the scheme on the assumption that they had now found higher-paid employment. This policy assumed that everyone receives their pay just once each month, and was problematic for people whose pay comes at some other interval. (a) Consider people who are paid three-quarters of the threshold by their employer every four weeks. (i) Which is the only month when there could not be any of these people removed from the scheme? [1] (ii) Explain how it can be deduced that such people would be removed from the scheme at least once per year (52 weeks). [1] (b) Consider people who are paid a fixed amount by their employer every Friday. (i) What percentage pay rise could they appear to get from one month to the next when there was no actual change to their income? [1] (ii) What is the maximum number of times in a year with 53 Fridays that such people could be removed from the scheme? [1] The graph shows the relationship between earned income and benefit. 600 500 Total of 400 earned income 300 and benefit ($ per month) 200 100 0 0 100 200 300 400 500 600 Earned income ($ per month) (c) Boris is paid a fixed amount each month, and his total of earned income and benefit for the year is $5400. How much of this is benefit? [2] (d) How much is the threshold? [1] (e) Consider people on a high annual income, well above the threshold, who are able to control when they receive their pay and how much each payment is. Explain how such people could arrange to receive the most total money in a year from earned income and benefit, and calculate their total benefit for the year. [3] [Turn over for Question 2]
10 marks
Mark scheme: Question Answer Marks 1(a)(i) February 1 1(a)(ii) 13 payments in 12 months, so at least one month must have two payments 1 1(b)(i) 5 weeks after 4 would give 1 25% increase 1(b)(ii) 53 – 48 = 1 5 times 1(c) $5400 per annum = $450 per month, so $400 monthly income [1] 2 12 $50 = $600 1(d) $500 1 1(e) Take benefit in 11 months and pay rest of income in the other month [1] 3 Maximum benefit per month is $150 (at $200 income) [1] 11 $150 = $1650 [1]
2 In the Double Triple Quiz there are 4 rounds of questions. In each round each contestant is asked 5 questions. Points are awarded for correct answers. In round 1, there is no penalty for an incorrect answer or a ‘pass’ (no answer given). In subsequent rounds, points are deducted for incorrect answers or passes. The following table shows the points that are awarded and deducted, where for example ‘–10’ means that 10 points are deducted. Correct Incorrect Round Pass answer answer 1 10 0 0 2 20 –5 –15 3 30 –10 –25 4 50 –20 –35 It is possible for a contestant’s score (total number of points) to be negative (less than zero). Fred answered 3 questions correctly in each round. (a) Show that his least possible total number of points is 180. [2] Leah scored 15 points in the second round. (b) How many questions did Leah answer correctly, how many did she answer incorrectly and how many did she pass? [1] The notation (1, 4, 0) is used to denote that a contestant has answered 1 question correctly, answered 4 questions incorrectly and passed on 0 questions. Henry’s score in the second round was 40 points greater than Isaac’s score in the second round. Both of them answered at least one question correctly in the second round. (c) Find the four possible pairs of scores for Henry and Isaac with which this could have been achieved. [3] Four contestants took part in last night’s Double Triple Quiz. Their scores in each round and their total scores are shown in the following table. Round 1 Round 2 Round 3 Round 4 Total score Alexa 30 75 70 110 285 Betty 10 30 110 110 260 Charlie 50 100 40 80 270 Damon 40 50 15 180 285 (d) (i) Using the notation described above, state how many questions each contestant answered correctly, answered incorrectly, and passed in Round 4. [2] (ii) Charlie realises that he could have had the highest total score without answering any more questions correctly in round 4. How could he have achieved this? [1] Alexa and Damon progressed to the final. In the final, each contestant is asked 8 questions. For each question they can choose whether it is Easy or Hard. An Easy question scores 1 point for the correct answer and a Hard question scores 2 points for the correct answer. There are no deductions for incorrect answers or passes. Each contestant has a ‘Double’ which doubles the points for that question and a ‘Triple’ which triples the points for that question. They must use their Double and Triple once each, but not on the same question. They must choose which question they want to use each one on before they hear the question. In the event of a tie, the contestant who has answered the most questions correctly in the final will be the winner. (e) Show that the greatest number of points that a contestant can score in the final is 22. [1] Alexa chose to attempt Easy and Hard questions alternately, beginning with an Easy one. (f) Suppose she had scored 7 points after 5 questions and then answered the remaining 3 questions correctly. What would be her greatest and least possible total scores? Give an example of how each of these could be achieved. [2] Damon chose to attempt Hard questions for all 8 of his questions. After 5 questions, Alexa had 7 points and she had (in fact) already used her Double. After 5 questions, Damon had 6 points and he had not yet used his Double. After 8 questions, Alexa and Damon each had 16 points. (g) Explain why Alexa was declared as the winner of the final. [3]
15 marks
Mark scheme: 2(a) Points awarded are 3 (10 + 20 + 30 + 50) = 330 2 Biggest deduction for 2 questions is 0 – 30 – 50 – 70 = (−)150 [1] So least possible total is 330 – 150 = 180 [1] AG 2(b) 2 correct, 2 incorrect and 1 pass 1 2(c) 65, 25 from (4, 0, 1) and (2, 3, 0) 3 40, 0 from (3, 1, 1) and (1, 4, 0) 30, –10 from (3, 0, 2) and (1, 3, 1) 0, –40 from (1, 4, 0) and (1, 0, 4) 2 marks for 3 correct with at most one incorrect OR 2 marks for a list of 4 containing only correct pairs of scores or pairs of scores in which one player answered no questions correctly: 15, –25 from (2,2,1) and (0,5,0), 5, –35 from (2,1,2) and (0,4,1), –5, –45 from (2, 0, 3) and (0, 3, 2), –25, –65 from (0,5,0) and (0,1,4), –35, –75 from (0,4,1) and (0,0,5) OR 1 mark for 2 correct or finding vectors (-2, +3, –1) or (0, +4, –4) 2(d)(i) Alexa (3, 2, 0) 2 Betty (3, 2, 0) Charlie (3, 0, 2) Damon (4, 1, 0) 1 mark for any pair from AC, AD, BC, BD, CD correct 2(d)(ii) If Charlie had given answers (even if incorrect) to the two questions he 1 passed, then he would have at least 30 points more, so a total of at least 300, which is more than 285 2(e) 8 Hard questions, one with Double and one with Triple, 1 so 6 2 + 4 + 6 = 22 AG 2(f) Highest: scores in first 5 questions 1, 2, 1, 2, 1 (7) then Hard Double (4), Easy 2 (1), Hard Triple (6), total 18 [1] Lowest: Valid example for questions 1-5, e.g. 3, 4, 0, 0, 0 or 3, 2, 2, 0, 0 then Hard (2), Easy (1), Hard (2), total 12 [1] SC: 1 mark for 12 and 18 with no/incorrect example given 2(g) • Alexa must have answered her last three questions correctly to score 16 3 with one of them tripled. • Therefore she answered at most 2 questions incorrectly. • The only possibility is that Damon scores 6, 4 and 0 from his final three questions. • This means that he must have answered 3 questions incorrectly. 3 marks for all four steps in the reasoning given. 2 marks for any two given. 1 mark for any one given
4 George and Rachel are playing a game of CounterBid. The equipment consists of a bag of counters, two small trays and two sets of the three cards shown below. Double the number of Add 5 counters Your opponent loses counters in your tray to your tray 5 counters from their tray At the start of the first round of the game, each player takes one set of the cards and one tray, into which they place 10 counters from the bag. For subsequent rounds, each player begins the round with the set of cards and the counters in their tray that they finished the previous round with. (They do not take another 10 counters from the bag at the start of the round.) In each round of the game the two players place their cards face down on the table in the order that they wish to play them. They then take up to 5 counters from their tray, which they place underneath their three cards such that their opponent cannot see how many have been assigned to each card. It is possible for one or more cards to have no counters assigned to it. The two players then reveal their first cards and the numbers of counters assigned to them, and the game progresses as follows: • The player who placed more counters under their card returns those counters to the bag and applies the effect of their card. The other player returns their counters to their tray and ignores the instruction on their own card. • If the two players placed the same number of counters, they both return their counters to the bag and apply the effects of their own cards. • If neither player placed any counters then both cards are ignored. The same procedure is then applied to the cards placed second, and then to the cards placed third. Counters added to or removed from players’ trays as a result of the cards are taken from or returned to the bag. If either player needs to remove more counters from their tray than they have available then they immediately lose the game. In the first round of the game, George and Rachel placed their cards and assigned counters to them as shown below. George Rachel Position Card played Counters Card played Counters Add 5 counters Double the number of 1 2 2 to your tray counters in your tray Double the number of Your opponent loses 2 2 0 counters in your tray 5 counters from their tray Your opponent loses Add 5 counters 3 1 2 5 counters from their tray to your tray (a) Show that, at the end of this round, George had 21 counters in his tray. [2] (b) How many counters did Rachel have in her tray at the end of this round? [1] (c) How would the outcome of this round have changed if (i) George had placed just 1 counter on his second card, rather than 2? [1] (ii) Rachel had placed 3 counters on her first card, rather than 2? [2] The positions in which the cards were placed in the second round were as shown below. George Rachel Position Card played Counters Card played Counters Double the number of Add 5 counters 1 counters in your tray to your tray Your opponent loses Double the number of 2 5 counters from their tray counters in your tray Add 5 counters Your opponent loses 3 to your tray 5 counters from their tray In this round, George placed 1 more counter than Rachel in two of the positions, but 2 fewer counters in the other position. He had a total of 24 counters in his tray at the end of the round. (d) (i) In which position did George allocate 2 fewer counters than Rachel? Explain your reasoning. [1] (ii) How many counters did George assign to each of the other two positions? [2] Simon is thinking about the best and worst possible starts to a game of CounterBid. (e) (i) What is the greatest number of counters that a player could have in their tray at the end of the first round? Give an example of such a round. [3] (ii) Give an example of a first round in which one of the players finishes the round with no counters in their tray. [3]
15 marks
Mark scheme: 4(a) George has 5 counters in his tray once the counters have been placed. 2 After the first card has been applied, this will increase to 10 counters. [1] The second card will be applied and double this to 20 counters. The final card will not be applied, so he will return the 1 counter to his tray. [1] 4(b) Rachel has 6 counters in her tray once the counters have been placed. 1 After the first card has been applied, this will increase to 12 counters, and once the final card has been applied it will increase to 17 counters. 4(c)(i) George would have two more / 23 counters 1 4(c)(ii) George would have 15 counters [1] 2 Rachel would have 15 counters [1] 4(d)(i) George cannot have placed more counters than Rachel on the first position, 1 as he would have to have more than 24 counters at the end of the round in that case [1] 4(d)(ii) To get 24 counters, he must have gained 5 and lost 2 [1] 2 From the given information, he must have placed at least 1 in each position So 1 and 1 4(e)(i) Score (8 + 5) 2 = 26 [1] 3 Any example with the following features (where Player 1 achieves the maximum possible): Player 1 adds no counters to ‘Your opponent loses 5 counters’ and Player 2 does not apply the ‘Your opponent loses 5 counters’ card [1] Player 1 adds 1 counter to ‘Add 5 counters to your tray’, in an earlier position than 1 counter added to ‘Double the number of counters in your tray’ card [1] 4(e)(ii) Any example in which 5 counters are allocated by the player who ends on 0 3 counters with the following features: For each position where counters are allocated, the opponent has not allocated more counters (so no counters are returned to the tray) [1] The player adds no counters to ‘You gain 5 counters’ [1] The player adds no counters to the Double card [1] OR The opponent will apply the ‘Your opponent loses 5 counters’ card before the player applies the Double card [1] SC: 1 mark for an example in which no counters are allocated to ‘Add 5’ or to ‘Double’
1 A government scheme for supporting the poor was badly designed. The idea was to make a payment, called a ‘benefit’, each (calendar) month to people whose income is below a certain level (threshold). The amount someone would receive was calculated so that, in order to ‘make work pay’, at every level of income, an increase in earned income would always result in an increase in the total of earned income and benefit. Anyone whose income went above the threshold in any month would automatically be removed from the scheme on the assumption that they had now found higher-paid employment. This policy assumed that everyone receives their pay just once each month, and was problematic for people whose pay comes at some other interval. (a) Consider people who are paid three-quarters of the threshold by their employer every four weeks. (i) Which is the only month when there could not be any of these people removed from the scheme? [1] (ii) Explain how it can be deduced that such people would be removed from the scheme at least once per year (52 weeks). [1] (b) Consider people who are paid a fixed amount by their employer every Friday. (i) What percentage pay rise could they appear to get from one month to the next when there was no actual change to their income? [1] (ii) What is the maximum number of times in a year with 53 Fridays that such people could be removed from the scheme? [1] The graph shows the relationship between earned income and benefit. 600 500 Total of 400 earned income 300 and benefit ($ per month) 200 100 0 0 100 200 300 400 500 600 Earned income ($ per month) (c) Boris is paid a fixed amount each month, and his total of earned income and benefit for the year is $5400. How much of this is benefit? [2] (d) How much is the threshold? [1] (e) Consider people on a high annual income, well above the threshold, who are able to control when they receive their pay and how much each payment is. Explain how such people could arrange to receive the most total money in a year from earned income and benefit, and calculate their total benefit for the year. [3] [Turn over for Question 2]
10 marks
Mark scheme: Question Answer Marks 1(a)(i) February 1 1(a)(ii) 13 payments in 12 months, so at least one month must have two payments 1 1(b)(i) 5 weeks after 4 would give 1 25% increase 1(b)(ii) 53 – 48 = 1 5 times 1(c) $5400 per annum = $450 per month, so $400 monthly income [1] 2 12 $50 = $600 1(d) $500 1 1(e) Take benefit in 11 months and pay rest of income in the other month [1] 3 Maximum benefit per month is $150 (at $200 income) [1] 11 $150 = $1650 [1]
2 In the Double Triple Quiz there are 4 rounds of questions. In each round each contestant is asked 5 questions. Points are awarded for correct answers. In round 1, there is no penalty for an incorrect answer or a ‘pass’ (no answer given). In subsequent rounds, points are deducted for incorrect answers or passes. The following table shows the points that are awarded and deducted, where for example ‘–10’ means that 10 points are deducted. Correct Incorrect Round Pass answer answer 1 10 0 0 2 20 –5 –15 3 30 –10 –25 4 50 –20 –35 It is possible for a contestant’s score (total number of points) to be negative (less than zero). Fred answered 3 questions correctly in each round. (a) Show that his least possible total number of points is 180. [2] Leah scored 15 points in the second round. (b) How many questions did Leah answer correctly, how many did she answer incorrectly and how many did she pass? [1] The notation (1, 4, 0) is used to denote that a contestant has answered 1 question correctly, answered 4 questions incorrectly and passed on 0 questions. Henry’s score in the second round was 40 points greater than Isaac’s score in the second round. Both of them answered at least one question correctly in the second round. (c) Find the four possible pairs of scores for Henry and Isaac with which this could have been achieved. [3] Four contestants took part in last night’s Double Triple Quiz. Their scores in each round and their total scores are shown in the following table. Round 1 Round 2 Round 3 Round 4 Total score Alexa 30 75 70 110 285 Betty 10 30 110 110 260 Charlie 50 100 40 80 270 Damon 40 50 15 180 285 (d) (i) Using the notation described above, state how many questions each contestant answered correctly, answered incorrectly, and passed in Round 4. [2] (ii) Charlie realises that he could have had the highest total score without answering any more questions correctly in round 4. How could he have achieved this? [1] Alexa and Damon progressed to the final. In the final, each contestant is asked 8 questions. For each question they can choose whether it is Easy or Hard. An Easy question scores 1 point for the correct answer and a Hard question scores 2 points for the correct answer. There are no deductions for incorrect answers or passes. Each contestant has a ‘Double’ which doubles the points for that question and a ‘Triple’ which triples the points for that question. They must use their Double and Triple once each, but not on the same question. They must choose which question they want to use each one on before they hear the question. In the event of a tie, the contestant who has answered the most questions correctly in the final will be the winner. (e) Show that the greatest number of points that a contestant can score in the final is 22. [1] Alexa chose to attempt Easy and Hard questions alternately, beginning with an Easy one. (f) Suppose she had scored 7 points after 5 questions and then answered the remaining 3 questions correctly. What would be her greatest and least possible total scores? Give an example of how each of these could be achieved. [2] Damon chose to attempt Hard questions for all 8 of his questions. After 5 questions, Alexa had 7 points and she had (in fact) already used her Double. After 5 questions, Damon had 6 points and he had not yet used his Double. After 8 questions, Alexa and Damon each had 16 points. (g) Explain why Alexa was declared as the winner of the final. [3]
15 marks
Mark scheme: 2(a) Points awarded are 3 (10 + 20 + 30 + 50) = 330 2 Biggest deduction for 2 questions is 0 – 30 – 50 – 70 = (−)150 [1] So least possible total is 330 – 150 = 180 [1] AG 2(b) 2 correct, 2 incorrect and 1 pass 1 2(c) 65, 25 from (4, 0, 1) and (2, 3, 0) 3 40, 0 from (3, 1, 1) and (1, 4, 0) 30, –10 from (3, 0, 2) and (1, 3, 1) 0, –40 from (1, 4, 0) and (1, 0, 4) 2 marks for 3 correct with at most one incorrect OR 2 marks for a list of 4 containing only correct pairs of scores or pairs of scores in which one player answered no questions correctly: 15, –25 from (2,2,1) and (0,5,0), 5, –35 from (2,1,2) and (0,4,1), –5, –45 from (2, 0, 3) and (0, 3, 2), –25, –65 from (0,5,0) and (0,1,4), –35, –75 from (0,4,1) and (0,0,5) OR 1 mark for 2 correct or finding vectors (-2, +3, –1) or (0, +4, –4) 2(d)(i) Alexa (3, 2, 0) 2 Betty (3, 2, 0) Charlie (3, 0, 2) Damon (4, 1, 0) 1 mark for any pair from AC, AD, BC, BD, CD correct 2(d)(ii) If Charlie had given answers (even if incorrect) to the two questions he 1 passed, then he would have at least 30 points more, so a total of at least 300, which is more than 285 2(e) 8 Hard questions, one with Double and one with Triple, 1 so 6 2 + 4 + 6 = 22 AG 2(f) Highest: scores in first 5 questions 1, 2, 1, 2, 1 (7) then Hard Double (4), Easy 2 (1), Hard Triple (6), total 18 [1] Lowest: Valid example for questions 1-5, e.g. 3, 4, 0, 0, 0 or 3, 2, 2, 0, 0 then Hard (2), Easy (1), Hard (2), total 12 [1] SC: 1 mark for 12 and 18 with no/incorrect example given 2(g) • Alexa must have answered her last three questions correctly to score 16 3 with one of them tripled. • Therefore she answered at most 2 questions incorrectly. • The only possibility is that Damon scores 6, 4 and 0 from his final three questions. • This means that he must have answered 3 questions incorrectly. 3 marks for all four steps in the reasoning given. 2 marks for any two given. 1 mark for any one given
4 George and Rachel are playing a game of CounterBid. The equipment consists of a bag of counters, two small trays and two sets of the three cards shown below. Double the number of Add 5 counters Your opponent loses counters in your tray to your tray 5 counters from their tray At the start of the first round of the game, each player takes one set of the cards and one tray, into which they place 10 counters from the bag. For subsequent rounds, each player begins the round with the set of cards and the counters in their tray that they finished the previous round with. (They do not take another 10 counters from the bag at the start of the round.) In each round of the game the two players place their cards face down on the table in the order that they wish to play them. They then take up to 5 counters from their tray, which they place underneath their three cards such that their opponent cannot see how many have been assigned to each card. It is possible for one or more cards to have no counters assigned to it. The two players then reveal their first cards and the numbers of counters assigned to them, and the game progresses as follows: • The player who placed more counters under their card returns those counters to the bag and applies the effect of their card. The other player returns their counters to their tray and ignores the instruction on their own card. • If the two players placed the same number of counters, they both return their counters to the bag and apply the effects of their own cards. • If neither player placed any counters then both cards are ignored. The same procedure is then applied to the cards placed second, and then to the cards placed third. Counters added to or removed from players’ trays as a result of the cards are taken from or returned to the bag. If either player needs to remove more counters from their tray than they have available then they immediately lose the game. In the first round of the game, George and Rachel placed their cards and assigned counters to them as shown below. George Rachel Position Card played Counters Card played Counters Add 5 counters Double the number of 1 2 2 to your tray counters in your tray Double the number of Your opponent loses 2 2 0 counters in your tray 5 counters from their tray Your opponent loses Add 5 counters 3 1 2 5 counters from their tray to your tray (a) Show that, at the end of this round, George had 21 counters in his tray. [2] (b) How many counters did Rachel have in her tray at the end of this round? [1] (c) How would the outcome of this round have changed if (i) George had placed just 1 counter on his second card, rather than 2? [1] (ii) Rachel had placed 3 counters on her first card, rather than 2? [2] The positions in which the cards were placed in the second round were as shown below. George Rachel Position Card played Counters Card played Counters Double the number of Add 5 counters 1 counters in your tray to your tray Your opponent loses Double the number of 2 5 counters from their tray counters in your tray Add 5 counters Your opponent loses 3 to your tray 5 counters from their tray In this round, George placed 1 more counter than Rachel in two of the positions, but 2 fewer counters in the other position. He had a total of 24 counters in his tray at the end of the round. (d) (i) In which position did George allocate 2 fewer counters than Rachel? Explain your reasoning. [1] (ii) How many counters did George assign to each of the other two positions? [2] Simon is thinking about the best and worst possible starts to a game of CounterBid. (e) (i) What is the greatest number of counters that a player could have in their tray at the end of the first round? Give an example of such a round. [3] (ii) Give an example of a first round in which one of the players finishes the round with no counters in their tray. [3]
15 marks
Mark scheme: 4(a) George has 5 counters in his tray once the counters have been placed. 2 After the first card has been applied, this will increase to 10 counters. [1] The second card will be applied and double this to 20 counters. The final card will not be applied, so he will return the 1 counter to his tray. [1] 4(b) Rachel has 6 counters in her tray once the counters have been placed. 1 After the first card has been applied, this will increase to 12 counters, and once the final card has been applied it will increase to 17 counters. 4(c)(i) George would have two more / 23 counters 1 4(c)(ii) George would have 15 counters [1] 2 Rachel would have 15 counters [1] 4(d)(i) George cannot have placed more counters than Rachel on the first position, 1 as he would have to have more than 24 counters at the end of the round in that case [1] 4(d)(ii) To get 24 counters, he must have gained 5 and lost 2 [1] 2 From the given information, he must have placed at least 1 in each position So 1 and 1 4(e)(i) Score (8 + 5) 2 = 26 [1] 3 Any example with the following features (where Player 1 achieves the maximum possible): Player 1 adds no counters to ‘Your opponent loses 5 counters’ and Player 2 does not apply the ‘Your opponent loses 5 counters’ card [1] Player 1 adds 1 counter to ‘Add 5 counters to your tray’, in an earlier position than 1 counter added to ‘Double the number of counters in your tray’ card [1] 4(e)(ii) Any example in which 5 counters are allocated by the player who ends on 0 3 counters with the following features: For each position where counters are allocated, the opponent has not allocated more counters (so no counters are returned to the tray) [1] The player adds no counters to ‘You gain 5 counters’ [1] The player adds no counters to the Double card [1] OR The opponent will apply the ‘Your opponent loses 5 counters’ card before the player applies the Double card [1] SC: 1 mark for an example in which no counters are allocated to ‘Add 5’ or to ‘Double’
1 A government scheme for supporting the poor was badly designed. The idea was to make a payment, called a ‘benefit’, each (calendar) month to people whose income is below a certain level (threshold). The amount someone would receive was calculated so that, in order to ‘make work pay’, at every level of income, an increase in earned income would always result in an increase in the total of earned income and benefit. Anyone whose income went above the threshold in any month would automatically be removed from the scheme on the assumption that they had now found higher-paid employment. This policy assumed that everyone receives their pay just once each month, and was problematic for people whose pay comes at some other interval. (a) Consider people who are paid three-quarters of the threshold by their employer every four weeks. (i) Which is the only month when there could not be any of these people removed from the scheme? [1] (ii) Explain how it can be deduced that such people would be removed from the scheme at least once per year (52 weeks). [1] (b) Consider people who are paid a fixed amount by their employer every Friday. (i) What percentage pay rise could they appear to get from one month to the next when there was no actual change to their income? [1] (ii) What is the maximum number of times in a year with 53 Fridays that such people could be removed from the scheme? [1] The graph shows the relationship between earned income and benefit. 600 500 Total of 400 earned income 300 and benefit ($ per month) 200 100 0 0 100 200 300 400 500 600 Earned income ($ per month) (c) Boris is paid a fixed amount each month, and his total of earned income and benefit for the year is $5400. How much of this is benefit? [2] (d) How much is the threshold? [1] (e) Consider people on a high annual income, well above the threshold, who are able to control when they receive their pay and how much each payment is. Explain how such people could arrange to receive the most total money in a year from earned income and benefit, and calculate their total benefit for the year. [3] [Turn over for Question 2]
10 marks
Mark scheme: Question Answer Marks 1(a)(i) February 1 1(a)(ii) 13 payments in 12 months, so at least one month must have two payments 1 1(b)(i) 5 weeks after 4 would give 1 25% increase 1(b)(ii) 53 – 48 = 1 5 times 1(c) $5400 per annum = $450 per month, so $400 monthly income [1] 2 12 $50 = $600 1(d) $500 1 1(e) Take benefit in 11 months and pay rest of income in the other month [1] 3 Maximum benefit per month is $150 (at $200 income) [1] 11 $150 = $1650 [1]
2 In the Double Triple Quiz there are 4 rounds of questions. In each round each contestant is asked 5 questions. Points are awarded for correct answers. In round 1, there is no penalty for an incorrect answer or a ‘pass’ (no answer given). In subsequent rounds, points are deducted for incorrect answers or passes. The following table shows the points that are awarded and deducted, where for example ‘–10’ means that 10 points are deducted. Correct Incorrect Round Pass answer answer 1 10 0 0 2 20 –5 –15 3 30 –10 –25 4 50 –20 –35 It is possible for a contestant’s score (total number of points) to be negative (less than zero). Fred answered 3 questions correctly in each round. (a) Show that his least possible total number of points is 180. [2] Leah scored 15 points in the second round. (b) How many questions did Leah answer correctly, how many did she answer incorrectly and how many did she pass? [1] The notation (1, 4, 0) is used to denote that a contestant has answered 1 question correctly, answered 4 questions incorrectly and passed on 0 questions. Henry’s score in the second round was 40 points greater than Isaac’s score in the second round. Both of them answered at least one question correctly in the second round. (c) Find the four possible pairs of scores for Henry and Isaac with which this could have been achieved. [3] Four contestants took part in last night’s Double Triple Quiz. Their scores in each round and their total scores are shown in the following table. Round 1 Round 2 Round 3 Round 4 Total score Alexa 30 75 70 110 285 Betty 10 30 110 110 260 Charlie 50 100 40 80 270 Damon 40 50 15 180 285 (d) (i) Using the notation described above, state how many questions each contestant answered correctly, answered incorrectly, and passed in Round 4. [2] (ii) Charlie realises that he could have had the highest total score without answering any more questions correctly in round 4. How could he have achieved this? [1] Alexa and Damon progressed to the final. In the final, each contestant is asked 8 questions. For each question they can choose whether it is Easy or Hard. An Easy question scores 1 point for the correct answer and a Hard question scores 2 points for the correct answer. There are no deductions for incorrect answers or passes. Each contestant has a ‘Double’ which doubles the points for that question and a ‘Triple’ which triples the points for that question. They must use their Double and Triple once each, but not on the same question. They must choose which question they want to use each one on before they hear the question. In the event of a tie, the contestant who has answered the most questions correctly in the final will be the winner. (e) Show that the greatest number of points that a contestant can score in the final is 22. [1] Alexa chose to attempt Easy and Hard questions alternately, beginning with an Easy one. (f) Suppose she had scored 7 points after 5 questions and then answered the remaining 3 questions correctly. What would be her greatest and least possible total scores? Give an example of how each of these could be achieved. [2] Damon chose to attempt Hard questions for all 8 of his questions. After 5 questions, Alexa had 7 points and she had (in fact) already used her Double. After 5 questions, Damon had 6 points and he had not yet used his Double. After 8 questions, Alexa and Damon each had 16 points. (g) Explain why Alexa was declared as the winner of the final. [3]
15 marks
Mark scheme: 2(a) Points awarded are 3 (10 + 20 + 30 + 50) = 330 2 Biggest deduction for 2 questions is 0 – 30 – 50 – 70 = (−)150 [1] So least possible total is 330 – 150 = 180 [1] AG 2(b) 2 correct, 2 incorrect and 1 pass 1 2(c) 65, 25 from (4, 0, 1) and (2, 3, 0) 3 40, 0 from (3, 1, 1) and (1, 4, 0) 30, –10 from (3, 0, 2) and (1, 3, 1) 0, –40 from (1, 4, 0) and (1, 0, 4) 2 marks for 3 correct with at most one incorrect OR 2 marks for a list of 4 containing only correct pairs of scores or pairs of scores in which one player answered no questions correctly: 15, –25 from (2,2,1) and (0,5,0), 5, –35 from (2,1,2) and (0,4,1), –5, –45 from (2, 0, 3) and (0, 3, 2), –25, –65 from (0,5,0) and (0,1,4), –35, –75 from (0,4,1) and (0,0,5) OR 1 mark for 2 correct or finding vectors (-2, +3, –1) or (0, +4, –4) 2(d)(i) Alexa (3, 2, 0) 2 Betty (3, 2, 0) Charlie (3, 0, 2) Damon (4, 1, 0) 1 mark for any pair from AC, AD, BC, BD, CD correct 2(d)(ii) If Charlie had given answers (even if incorrect) to the two questions he 1 passed, then he would have at least 30 points more, so a total of at least 300, which is more than 285 2(e) 8 Hard questions, one with Double and one with Triple, 1 so 6 2 + 4 + 6 = 22 AG 2(f) Highest: scores in first 5 questions 1, 2, 1, 2, 1 (7) then Hard Double (4), Easy 2 (1), Hard Triple (6), total 18 [1] Lowest: Valid example for questions 1-5, e.g. 3, 4, 0, 0, 0 or 3, 2, 2, 0, 0 then Hard (2), Easy (1), Hard (2), total 12 [1] SC: 1 mark for 12 and 18 with no/incorrect example given 2(g) • Alexa must have answered her last three questions correctly to score 16 3 with one of them tripled. • Therefore she answered at most 2 questions incorrectly. • The only possibility is that Damon scores 6, 4 and 0 from his final three questions. • This means that he must have answered 3 questions incorrectly. 3 marks for all four steps in the reasoning given. 2 marks for any two given. 1 mark for any one given
4 George and Rachel are playing a game of CounterBid. The equipment consists of a bag of counters, two small trays and two sets of the three cards shown below. Double the number of Add 5 counters Your opponent loses counters in your tray to your tray 5 counters from their tray At the start of the first round of the game, each player takes one set of the cards and one tray, into which they place 10 counters from the bag. For subsequent rounds, each player begins the round with the set of cards and the counters in their tray that they finished the previous round with. (They do not take another 10 counters from the bag at the start of the round.) In each round of the game the two players place their cards face down on the table in the order that they wish to play them. They then take up to 5 counters from their tray, which they place underneath their three cards such that their opponent cannot see how many have been assigned to each card. It is possible for one or more cards to have no counters assigned to it. The two players then reveal their first cards and the numbers of counters assigned to them, and the game progresses as follows: • The player who placed more counters under their card returns those counters to the bag and applies the effect of their card. The other player returns their counters to their tray and ignores the instruction on their own card. • If the two players placed the same number of counters, they both return their counters to the bag and apply the effects of their own cards. • If neither player placed any counters then both cards are ignored. The same procedure is then applied to the cards placed second, and then to the cards placed third. Counters added to or removed from players’ trays as a result of the cards are taken from or returned to the bag. If either player needs to remove more counters from their tray than they have available then they immediately lose the game. In the first round of the game, George and Rachel placed their cards and assigned counters to them as shown below. George Rachel Position Card played Counters Card played Counters Add 5 counters Double the number of 1 2 2 to your tray counters in your tray Double the number of Your opponent loses 2 2 0 counters in your tray 5 counters from their tray Your opponent loses Add 5 counters 3 1 2 5 counters from their tray to your tray (a) Show that, at the end of this round, George had 21 counters in his tray. [2] (b) How many counters did Rachel have in her tray at the end of this round? [1] (c) How would the outcome of this round have changed if (i) George had placed just 1 counter on his second card, rather than 2? [1] (ii) Rachel had placed 3 counters on her first card, rather than 2? [2] The positions in which the cards were placed in the second round were as shown below. George Rachel Position Card played Counters Card played Counters Double the number of Add 5 counters 1 counters in your tray to your tray Your opponent loses Double the number of 2 5 counters from their tray counters in your tray Add 5 counters Your opponent loses 3 to your tray 5 counters from their tray In this round, George placed 1 more counter than Rachel in two of the positions, but 2 fewer counters in the other position. He had a total of 24 counters in his tray at the end of the round. (d) (i) In which position did George allocate 2 fewer counters than Rachel? Explain your reasoning. [1] (ii) How many counters did George assign to each of the other two positions? [2] Simon is thinking about the best and worst possible starts to a game of CounterBid. (e) (i) What is the greatest number of counters that a player could have in their tray at the end of the first round? Give an example of such a round. [3] (ii) Give an example of a first round in which one of the players finishes the round with no counters in their tray. [3]
15 marks
Mark scheme: 4(a) George has 5 counters in his tray once the counters have been placed. 2 After the first card has been applied, this will increase to 10 counters. [1] The second card will be applied and double this to 20 counters. The final card will not be applied, so he will return the 1 counter to his tray. [1] 4(b) Rachel has 6 counters in her tray once the counters have been placed. 1 After the first card has been applied, this will increase to 12 counters, and once the final card has been applied it will increase to 17 counters. 4(c)(i) George would have two more / 23 counters 1 4(c)(ii) George would have 15 counters [1] 2 Rachel would have 15 counters [1] 4(d)(i) George cannot have placed more counters than Rachel on the first position, 1 as he would have to have more than 24 counters at the end of the round in that case [1] 4(d)(ii) To get 24 counters, he must have gained 5 and lost 2 [1] 2 From the given information, he must have placed at least 1 in each position So 1 and 1 4(e)(i) Score (8 + 5) 2 = 26 [1] 3 Any example with the following features (where Player 1 achieves the maximum possible): Player 1 adds no counters to ‘Your opponent loses 5 counters’ and Player 2 does not apply the ‘Your opponent loses 5 counters’ card [1] Player 1 adds 1 counter to ‘Add 5 counters to your tray’, in an earlier position than 1 counter added to ‘Double the number of counters in your tray’ card [1] 4(e)(ii) Any example in which 5 counters are allocated by the player who ends on 0 3 counters with the following features: For each position where counters are allocated, the opponent has not allocated more counters (so no counters are returned to the tray) [1] The player adds no counters to ‘You gain 5 counters’ [1] The player adds no counters to the Double card [1] OR The opponent will apply the ‘Your opponent loses 5 counters’ card before the player applies the Double card [1] SC: 1 mark for an example in which no counters are allocated to ‘Add 5’ or to ‘Double’