Cambridge IGCSE Science - Combined 0653 — 2024 Oct/Nov Paper 2 · Variant 2

This document has 16 pages. Any blank pages are indicated. IB24 11_0653_22/2RP © UCLES 2024 [Turn over *3523834122* Cambridge IGCSE™ COMBINED SCIENCE 0653/22 Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) October/November 2024 45 minutes You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet. You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet Soft clean eraser Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended) INSTRUCTIONS  There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.  For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.  Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.  Write in soft pencil.  Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the spaces provided unless this has been done for you.  Do not use correction fluid.  Do not write on any bar codes.  You may use a calculator. INFORMATION  The total mark for this paper is 40.  Each correct answer will score one mark.  Any rough working should be done on this question paper.  The Periodic Table is printed in the question paper.

2 © UCLES 2024 0653/22/O/N/24 1 A car is filled with fuel and is driven away. Which characteristic of living organisms is not matched by a similar process in the car? A excretion B growth C movement D respiration 2 Which row shows the site of chemical reactions in a cell and identifies the partially permeable structure in a cell? site of chemical reactions partially permeable structure A cytoplasm cell membrane B cytoplasm cell wall C vacuole cell membrane D vacuole cell wall 3 Uncooked potato pieces of identical size and mass are placed in different sugar solutions for two hours. Which sugar solutions cause a decrease in the mass of a potato piece? 1 a solution with a higher sugar concentration than the potato piece 2 a solution with a lower sugar concentration than the potato piece 3 a solution with a higher water potential than the potato piece 4 a solution with a lower water potential than the potato piece A 1 and 3 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 2 and 4

3 © UCLES 2024 0653/22/O/N/24 [Turn over 4 The graph shows the effect of temperature on the activity of an enzyme. At which point is the frequency of effective collisions the highest? 5 0 10 15 20 25 30 35 40 enzyme activity / arbitrary units temperature /
C 6 5 4 3 2 1 0 A B D C 5 Which substances produced by plants contain either magnesium ions or nitrogen atoms? chlorophyll enzymes starch A    B    C    D    6 The table shows two plant tissues with their possible functions. tissue functions support transport 1 phloem   2 phloem   3 xylem   4 xylem   Which rows show the correct functions for phloem and xylem? A 1 and 3 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 2 and 4

4 © UCLES 2024 0653/22/O/N/24 7 What is not a possible risk factor for coronary heart disease? A genetic predisposition B healthy diet C smoking D stress 8 What is the sequence of structures that air passes through when entering the body? A larynx  trachea  bronchi  bronchioles B larynx  trachea  bronchioles  bronchi C trachea  larynx  bronchi  bronchioles D trachea  larynx  bronchioles  bronchi 9 The chemical equation for aerobic respiration is shown with the numbers replaced by the letters P, Q and R. CPHQOP + POR  PCOR + PHRO Which row shows the correct values for P, Q and R? P Q R A 2 12 6 B 6 2 12 C 6 12 2 D 12 2 6 10 Which row shows the changes in pulse rate and pupil width that occur when a person is frightened? pulse rate pupil width A decreases decreases B decreases increases C increases decreases D increases increases

5 © UCLES 2024 0653/22/O/N/24 [Turn over 11 Which statement about auxin is correct? A It causes cell division. B It is equally distributed in response to gravity. C It is made in the leaves. D It is unequally distributed in response to light. 12 During pregnancy in humans, gas exchange occurs between a mother and her fetus. Where does this gas exchange occur? A amniotic fluid B amniotic sac C placenta D umbilical cord 13 Which animal gets its energy from eating other animals only? A carnivore B decomposer C herbivore D producer 14 Which process produces a chemical change? A adding ethanol to water B adding sodium to water C boiling water D melting ice 15 Which row describes an element and a compound? element compound A contains more than one type of atom contains elements chemically combined B contains more than one type of atom contains elements mixed together C contains only one type of atom contains elements chemically combined D contains only one type of atom contains elements mixed together

6 © UCLES 2024 0653/22/O/N/24 16 Potassium chloride, KCl, is a solid at room temperature. Ammonia, NH3, is a gas at room temperature. Which statement explains this difference? A Ionic bonds are stronger than covalent bonds. B Covalent bonds are stronger than ionic bonds. C The attractive forces between ions in KCl are much stronger than the covalent bonds in NH3. D Attractive forces between molecules are weaker than ionic bonds. 17 Titanium oxide contains Ti4+ ions and O2– ions. What is the formula of titanium oxide? A TiO B TiO2 C Ti2O D Ti4O2 18 Which statement about changes at the electrodes during electrolysis is correct? A Anions gain electrons at the positive electrode. B Anions lose electrons at the negative electrode. C Cations gain electrons at the negative electrode. D Cations lose electrons at the positive electrode. 19 The equation representing the formation of a chlorine molecule from two chlorine atoms is shown. 2Cl (g)  Cl 2(g) Which statement about this process is correct? A The chlorine molecule has less chemical energy than two chlorine atoms. B The two chlorine atoms obtain full outer electron shells by forming a double covalent bond. C The process is endothermic and energy is taken in. D The process involves only chlorine so energy is neither given out nor taken in.

7 © UCLES 2024 0653/22/O/N/24 [Turn over 20 The rate of a reaction increases when the temperature or the concentration of the reactants is increased. Which row explains why the rate of reaction increases? change activation energy collisions per second number of particles with energy greater than the activation energy A increase in concentration increases increases stays the same B increase in concentration stays the same stays the same increases C increase in temperature stays the same increases stays the same D increase in temperature stays the same increases increases 21 Magnesium chloride is a soluble salt which is made when excess magnesium reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid. Four separation techniques are listed. 1 chromatography 2 crystallisation 3 distillation 4 filtration Which processes are used to obtain a sample of magnesium chloride crystals from the reaction mixture? A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 4 D 3 and 4 22 What is used to show that a compound contains potassium? A a flame test B aqueous ammonia C aqueous silver nitrate D aqueous sodium hydroxide

8 © UCLES 2024 0653/22/O/N/24 23 Sodium has a melting point of 98 C and a density of 0.97 g / cm3. Which row shows the melting point and density of rubidium? melting point / C 3 cm / g density A 39 0.53 B 39 1.53 C 180 0.53 D 180 1.53 24 Which group of the Periodic Table contains monoatomic gaseous elements? A Group I B Group II C Group VII D Group VIII 25 W, X, Y and Z are metals. The metals are added to separate aqueous metal ion solutions. Some of the results are shown. W + Z2+  Z + W2+ X + Z2+  no reaction Y + Z2+  Z + Y2+ Y + W2+  no reaction Which row shows the order of reactivity of the metals? most reactive least reactive A W Y Z X B W Z Y X C X Y Z W D X Z Y W

9 © UCLES 2024 0653/22/O/N/24 [Turn over 26 Which metal can be extracted from its ore using hydrogen? A calcium B sodium C copper D zinc 27 An experiment is set up to show the effect of air and water on iron. air water iron wire tube X air water iron wire coated with grease tube Y The experiment is left for one week. What happens to the water level in each tube? tube X tube Y A falls falls B no change rises C rises rises D rises no change

10 © UCLES 2024 0653/22/O/N/24 28 A car is travelling along a straight road. The speed–time graph for part of its journey is shown. 0 0 time speed X Y Z Which row describes the motion of the car between X and Y and between Y and Z? between X and Y between Y and Z A changing speed constant speed B changing speed not moving C constant speed constant speed D constant speed not moving 29 The extension–load graph for a wire is shown. Which labelled point represents the limit of proportionality of the wire? extension load 0 0 D C B A

11 © UCLES 2024 0653/22/O/N/24 [Turn over 30 A flat door on the top of a submarine has an area of 1.2 m2. door of area 1.2 m2 submarine The pressure of the water above the door of the submarine is 3.0  105 Pa, and the pressure of the air inside the submarine is 1.0  105 Pa. What is the magnitude of the resultant force on the door? A 1.2  105 N B 2.4  105 N C 3.6  105 N D 4.8  105 N 31 A force F acts on an object as it moves a distance d across a smooth surface. The energy of the object changes by E. Which equation gives the work done W on the object by the force? A W = d F E   B W = E  d C W = d E  D W = E 32 Three beakers contain samples of the same substance. The diagrams indicate the molecular structures of the substance in each of the beakers. Which change of state is represented by the arrow? A liquid to gas B liquid to solid C solid to gas D solid to liquid

12 © UCLES 2024 0653/22/O/N/24 33 A room is heated by a heater on a wall. Which statement describes what happens to the heated air just above the heater? A The heated air becomes denser and falls. B The heated air becomes denser and rises. C The heated air becomes less dense and falls. D The heated air becomes less dense and rises. 34 Bread is toasted under a hot grill. grill bread What is the main part of the electromagnetic spectrum involved in transferring thermal energy from the grill to the bread? A infrared B gamma radiation C radio waves D X-rays 35 A sound wave is travelling at a speed of 300 m / s in air. The sound wave has a frequency of 7.5 kHz. What is the wavelength of the sound wave? A 4.0 cm B 25 cm C 4.0 m D 25 m 36 A ray of light is incident on a plane mirror at an angle of incidence of 20. What is the angle between the incident ray and the reflected ray? A 10 B 20 C 40 D 70

13 © UCLES 2024 0653/22/O/N/24 [Turn over 37 A thin converging lens is used as a magnifying glass to view an object. Where is the object placed? A further than two focal lengths from the lens B at exactly two focal lengths from the lens C between one and two focal lengths from the lens D closer to the lens than one focal length 38 A potential difference (p.d.) of 10 V across a resistor produces a current of 2.0 A in the resistor. What is the resistance of the resistor? A 0.050  B 0.20  C 5.0  D 20  39 Four wires are made of the same material. They have different lengths and different cross-sectional areas. Which wire has the smallest resistance? length cross-sectional area A l 2 A B l A C 2l 2 A D 2l A

14 © UCLES 2024 0653/22/O/N/24 40 The diagram shows a circuit containing a 12 V battery, four identical resistors, an ammeter and a voltmeter. Two values of current are shown. A V 12 V 3.0 A 3.0 A What is the reading on the ammeter, and what is the reading on the voltmeter? reading on ammeter / A reading on voltmeter / V A 3.0 6.0 B 3.0 12 C 6.0 6.0 D 6.0 12

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16 © UCLES 2024 0653/22/O/N/24 Group The Periodic Table of Elements 1 H hydrogen 1 2 He helium 4 I II III IV V VI VII VIII 3 Li lithium 7 4 Be beryllium 9 atomic number atomic symbol Key name relative atomic mass 11 Na sodium 23 12 Mg magnesium 24 19 K potassium 39 20 Ca calcium 40 37 Rb rubidium 85 38 Sr strontium 88 55 Cs caesium 133 56 Ba barium 137 87 Fr francium – 88 Ra radium – 5 B boron 11 13 Al aluminium 27 31 Ga gallium 70 49 In indium 115 81 Tl thallium 204 113 Nh nihonium – 6 C carbon 12 14 Si silicon 28 32 Ge germanium 73 50 Sn tin 119 82 Pb lead 207 22 Ti titanium 48 40 Zr zirconium 91 72 Hf hafnium 178 104 Rf rutherfordium – 23 V vanadium 51 41 Nb niobium 93 73 Ta tantalum 181 105 Db dubnium – 24 Cr chromium 52 42 Mo molybdenum 96 74 W tungsten 184 106 Sg seaborgium – 25 Mn manganese 55 43 Tc technetium – 75 Re rhenium 186 107 Bh bohrium – 26 Fe iron 56 44 Ru ruthenium 101 76 Os osmium 190 108 Hs hassium – 27 Co cobalt 59 45 Rh rhodium 103 77 Ir iridium 192 109 Mt meitnerium – 28 Ni nickel 59 46 Pd palladium 106 78 Pt platinum 195 110 Ds darmstadtium – 29 Cu copper 64 47 Ag silver 108 79 Au gold 197 111 Rg roentgenium – 30 Zn zinc 65 48 Cd cadmium 112 80 Hg mercury 201 112 Cn copernicium – 114 Fl flerovium – 116 Lv livermorium – 7 N nitrogen 14 15 P phosphorus 31 33 As arsenic 75 51 Sb antimony 122 83 Bi bismuth 209 115 Mc moscovium – 8 O oxygen 16 16 S sulfur 32 34 Se selenium 79 52 Te tellurium 128 84 Po polonium – 9 F fluorine 19 17 Cl chlorine 35.5 35 Br bromine 80 53 I iodine 127 85 At astatine – 117 Ts tennessine – 10 Ne neon 20 18 Ar argon 40 36 Kr krypton 84 54 Xe xenon 131 86 Rn radon – 118 Og oganesson – 21 Sc scandium 45 39 Y yttrium 89 57–71 lanthanoids 89–103 actinoids 57 La lanthanum 139 89 Ac lanthanoids actinoids The volume of one mole of any gas is 24 dm3 at room temperature and pressure (r.t.p.). actinium – 58 Ce cerium 140 90 Th thorium 232 59 Pr praseodymium 141 91 Pa protactinium 231 60 Nd neodymium 144 92 U uranium 238 61 Pm promethium – 93 Np neptunium – 62 Sm samarium 150 94 Pu plutonium – 63 Eu europium 152 95 Am americium – 64 Gd gadolinium 157 96 Cm curium – 65 Tb terbium 159 97 Bk berkelium – 66 Dy dysprosium 163 98 Cf californium – 67 Ho holmium 165 99 Es einsteinium – 68 Er erbium 167 100 Fm fermium – 69 Tm thulium 169 101 Md mendelevium – 70 Yb ytterbium 173 102 No nobelium – 71 Lu lutetium 175 103 Lr lawrencium –

This document consists of 3 printed pages. © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 [Turn over Cambridge IGCSE™ COMBINED SCIENCE 0653/22 Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) October/November 2024 MARK SCHEME Maximum Mark: 40 Published This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the examination. Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for Teachers. Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes. Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2024 series for most Cambridge IGCSE, Cambridge International A and AS Level components, and some Cambridge O Level components.

0653/22 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 2 of 3 Question Answer Marks 1 B 1 2 A 1 3 B 1 4 C 1 5 D 1 6 C 1 7 B 1 8 A 1 9 C 1 10 D 1 11 D 1 12 C 1 13 A 1 14 B 1 15 C 1 16 D 1 17 B 1 18 C 1 19 A 1 20 D 1 21 C 1 22 A 1 23 B 1 24 D 1 25 A 1 26 C 1 27 D 1 28 A 1

0653/22 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 3 of 3 Question Answer Marks 29 B 1 30 B 1 31 D 1 32 B 1 33 D 1 34 A 1 35 A 1 36 C 1 37 D 1 38 C 1 39 B 1 40 C 1