Cambridge IGCSE Science - Combined 0653 — 2023 Oct/Nov Paper 2 · Variant 2
0653/22/O/N/23 · 40 questions · 40 marks · ≈45 min
The question paper and its mark scheme, free to read here and free to download. This is Cambridge’s own paper, exactly as it was sat.
Question paper16 pages
Mark scheme3 pages
Answers below. Sit the paper first if you are practising.
Questions as text
Q1 · Four types of cell are listed
1 Four types of cell are listed. 1 egg cell 2 palisade mesophyll cell 3 red blood cell 4 root hair cell Which cell contains chlorophyll and which cell contains haemoglobin? contains contains chlorophyll haemoglobin A 1 3 B 1 4 C 2 3 D 2 4
Mark scheme: C
Question 2
2 What is osmosis? A the movement of salt across a cell wall B the movement of salt across a partially permeable membrane C the movement of water across a cell wall D the movement of water across a partially permeable membrane
Mark scheme: D
Q3 · The graph shows enzyme activity as temperature increases
3. The graph shows enzyme activity as temperature increases. stage 1 stage 2 enzyme activity 0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 temperature /°C Which row best explains the changes in enzyme activity as temperature increases? stage 1 stage 2 change of shape of the shape of the active site of the active site of the enzyme enzyme changes back to original decrease in frequency of increase in kinetic energy collisions of substrate and enzyme increase in kinetic energy change of shape of the active site of the enzyme no change of shape of the decrease in frequency of active site of the enzyme collisions of substrate and enzyme
Mark scheme: C
Q4 · A vegetable contains a high concentration of iron
4 A vegetable contains a high concentration of iron. A person suffering from which condition would benefit the most from eating this vegetable? A anaemia B coronary heart disease C obesity D scurvy
Mark scheme: A
Q5 · The diagram shows starch being digested by amylase
5 The diagram shows starch being digested by amylase. starch amylase Which row shows the digestion taking place? chemical mechanical A x x B x v Cc v x D Jv v é % 00 *e $ é “ & ;
Mark scheme: C
Q6 · Which combination of humidity and temperature would give the lowest transpiration rate in…
6 Which combination of humidity and temperature would give the lowest transpiration rate in a plant? humidity temperature A low warm B low cool C high warm D high cool
Mark scheme: D
Q7 · Cigarette smoke contains carbon monoxide, nicotine and tar
7 Cigarette smoke contains carbon monoxide, nicotine and tar. These substances are harmful to human health. Which row gives the correct information about the harmful effects? combines with causes haemoglobin lung cancer A carbon monoxide nicotine B carbon monoxide tar C tar carbon monoxide D nicotine carbon monoxide
Mark scheme: B
Q8 · A student is investigating the differences in composition of samples of inspired and…
8 A student is investigating the differences in composition of samples of inspired and expired air. What can he use to test for carbon dioxide? A biuret solution B limewater C ethanol D iodine solution
Mark scheme: B
Q9 · A student sets up the experiment shown
9 A student sets up the experiment shown. oil layer limewater living animal Which statement is correct? A The limewater stays colourless because decomposition is occurring. B The limewater stays colourless because photosynthesis is occurring. C The limewater turns milky because aerobic respiration is occurring. D The limewater turns milky because photosynthesis is occurring.
Mark scheme: C
Q10 · Which statement about the growth response of plant roots is correct?
10 Which statement about the growth response of plant roots is correct? A They grow away from gravity and away from light. B They grow away from gravity and towards light. C They grow towards gravity and away from light. D They grow towards gravity and towards light.
Mark scheme: C
Q11 · Which row describes asexual reproduction?
11 Which row describes asexual reproduction? offspring number of a zygote is genetically identical parents produced to the parent A 1 no yes B 1 yes no C 2 no yes D 2 yes no
Mark scheme: A
Q12 · Which statement describes fertilisation in a flowering plant?
12 Which statement describes fertilisation in a flowering plant? A fusion of a pollen nucleus with a nucleus in the ovule B fusion of a pollen nucleus with the stigma C transfer of a pollen grain from the anther to the stigma D transfer of a pollen grain from the filament to the stigma
Mark scheme: A
Q13 · The diagram shows part of the carbon cycle
13 The diagram shows part of the carbon cycle. carbon dioxide in air 3 carbon compounds 4 in animals 1 2 carbon compounds in plants Where does respiration occur? A 1 only B 2 and 3 C 3 and 4 D 3 only
Mark scheme: C
Q14 · Substance X is an element
14 Substance X is an element. It is a gas at room temperature. It is made of X2 molecules. Which diagram represents X? A B C D
Mark scheme: C
Q15 · Which statement about tap water is correct?
15 Which statement about tap water is correct? A It is a compound. B It is a mixture of elements. C It is a pure substance. D It is a solution.
Mark scheme: D
Q16 · Which statement about the boiling points of covalent compounds such as CO2 and ionic…
16 Which statement about the boiling points of covalent compounds such as CO2 and ionic compounds is correct? A These covalent compounds have higher boiling points than ionic compounds because covalent bonds are stronger than ionic bonds. B These covalent compounds have higher boiling points than ionic compounds because the attractive forces between covalent molecules are stronger than the attractive forces between ions. C Ionic compounds have higher boiling points than these covalent compounds because ionic bonds are stronger than covalent bonds. D Ionic compounds have higher boiling points than these covalent compounds because the attractive forces between ions are stronger than the attractive forces between covalent molecules.
Mark scheme: D
Q17 · An ionic compound contains ammonium ions, NH4 +, iron(III) ions, Fe3+, and sulfate ions…
17 An ionic compound contains ammonium ions, NH4 +, iron(III) ions, Fe3+, and sulfate ions, SO4 2–. What is the formula of this compound? A NH4FeSO4 B NH4Fe(SO4)2 C (NH4)2FeSO4 D NH4Fe3(SO4)2
Mark scheme: B
Q18 · Which statement about chemical reactions is not correct?
18 Which statement about chemical reactions is not correct? A A higher temperature increases the rate of an endothermic reaction. B Chemical energy is transferred to thermal energy in an endothermic reaction. C Temperature decreases in an endothermic reaction and there is an increase in chemical energy. D Temperature increases in an exothermic reaction because there is an increase in thermal energy.
Mark scheme: B
Q19 · Lead can be extracted from lead(II) oxide by heating with carbon
19 Lead can be extracted from lead(II) oxide by heating with carbon. The equation for the reaction is shown. 2PbO + C 2Pb + CO2 Which statement about this reaction is correct? A Carbon is a reducing agent because it removes oxygen from lead(II) oxide. B Carbon is reduced because it forms a gas. C Lead(II) oxide is a reducing agent because it forms an element. D Lead is oxidised because lead(II) oxide contains oxygen.
Mark scheme: A
Q20 · Dilute hydrochloric acid is added to powdered solid X
20 Dilute hydrochloric acid is added to powdered solid X. Hydrogen gas is produced. dilute hydrochloric acid powdered solid X What is X? A zinc B zinc carbonate C zinc hydroxide D zinc oxide
Mark scheme: A
Q21 · Which test is used to identify ammonia?
21 Which test is used to identify ammonia? A A glowing splint relights. B Damp blue litmus paper is bleached. C Damp red litmus paper turns blue. D Limewater turns milky.
Mark scheme: C
Q22 · Which properties of argon, Ar, can be determined from its position in the Periodic Table?
22 Which properties of argon, Ar, can be determined from its position in the Periodic Table? 1 its number of outer-shell electrons 2 its density 3 its chemical reactivity A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only
Mark scheme: C
Q23 · The equation for the reaction between aqueous potassium iodide and aqueous bromine is…
23 The equation for the reaction between aqueous potassium iodide and aqueous bromine is shown. 2KI + Br2 2KBr + I2 Which statement about this reaction is correct? A Bromine acts as a reducing agent. B Bromine molecules change to bromine atoms in the reaction. C Iodine is displaced from its salt because it is less reactive than bromine. D The mixture becomes colourless as the reaction proceeds.
Mark scheme: C
Q24 · Which substance does not react with dilute hydrochloric acid to produce copper chloride?
24 Which substance does not react with dilute hydrochloric acid to produce copper chloride? A copper B copper carbonate C copper hydroxide D copper oxide
Mark scheme: A
Q25 · Part of the reactivity series of metals is shown
25 Part of the reactivity series of metals is shown. calcium most reactive magnesium aluminium iron copper silver least reactive Metal X is the most reactive metal that can be extracted from its ore using carbon. Where is X placed in the reactivity series? A above calcium B between aluminium and iron C between copper and silver D between magnesium and aluminium
Mark scheme: B
Q26 · Which two substances react together to increase the concentration of a gas in the air…
26 Which two substances react together to increase the concentration of a gas in the air that may contribute to climate change? A sodium oxide and carbon B potassium carbonate and dilute hydrochloric acid C sodium and water D zinc and dilute nitric acid
Mark scheme: B
Q27 · Decane is an alkane
27 Decane is an alkane. Which statement about decane is correct? A It burns in air to form carbon dioxide and hydrogen. B It is an unsaturated hydrocarbon. C It only contains single C–C and C–H bonds. D It rapidly decolourises bromine water.
Mark scheme: C
Q28 · An object travels 6.0 km in two minutes
28 An object travels 6.0 km in two minutes. What is its speed? A 0.050 m / s B 3.0 m / s C 50 m / s D 3000 m / s
Mark scheme: C
Q29 · An object is moved from one location to a second location where the gravitational field…
29 An object is moved from one location to a second location where the gravitational field strength is different. What happens to the mass of the object and what happens to the weight of the object because of this change of location? mass weight A changes changes B changes stays the same C stays the same changes D stays the same stays the same
Mark scheme: C
Q30 · A car has an initial kinetic energy of 120 kJ at the bottom of a slope
30 A car has an initial kinetic energy of 120 kJ at the bottom of a slope. The car is driven up the slope. At the top of the slope, the car has 260 kJ of kinetic energy and has gained 570 kJ of gravitational potential energy. What is the total increase in kinetic energy and gravitational potential energy of the car as it moves up the slope? A 430 kJ B 710 kJ C 830 kJ D 950 kJ
Mark scheme: B
Q31 · For which energy resource is the Sun the only source?
31 For which energy resource is the Sun the only source? A geothermal B natural gas C nuclear D tidal
Mark scheme: B
Q32 · Which source of energy used on Earth is due mainly to the Moon?
32 Which source of energy used on Earth is due mainly to the Moon? A geothermal B hydroelectric C tidal D wind
Mark scheme: C
Q33 · Which statement about the boiling point of a substance is correct?
33 Which statement about the boiling point of a substance is correct? A At all temperatures above its boiling point, a substance must be a gas. B At all temperatures above its boiling point, a substance must be a liquid. C At all temperatures below its boiling point, a substance must be a gas. D At all temperatures below its boiling point, a substance must be a liquid.
Mark scheme: A
Q34 · The diagram shows three wave crests on a wave formed by dipping a finger into water at P…
34 The diagram shows three wave crests on a wave formed by dipping a finger into water at P at regular intervals. wave crests P x Three wave crests are produced every six seconds. Distance x is equal to 40 cm. What is the speed and the frequency of the wave? speed frequency cm / s / Hz A 10 0.50 B 10 2.0 C 40 0.50 D 40 2.0
Mark scheme: A
Q35 · The ray diagram shows a thin converging lens used as a magnifying glass
35 The ray diagram shows a thin converging lens used as a magnifying glass. image object 20 cm 10 cm 15 cm What is the focal length of the lens? A 10 cm B 15 cm C 20 cm D 30 cm
Mark scheme: B
Q36 · A loudspeaker vibrates at different frequencies
36 A loudspeaker vibrates at different frequencies. Which frequency of vibration does not produce a sound that a human can hear? A 60 Hz B 600 Hz C 6.0 kHz D 60 kHz
Mark scheme: D
Q37 · A plastic rod is rubbed with a woollen cloth
37 A plastic rod is rubbed with a woollen cloth. The rod becomes negatively charged. What happens to the woollen cloth? A It gains electrons and becomes negatively charged. B It gains electrons and becomes positively charged. C It loses electrons and becomes negatively charged. D It loses electrons and becomes positively charged.
Mark scheme: D
Q38 · In an X-ray machine, a beam of electrons hits a metal block
38 In an X-ray machine, a beam of electrons hits a metal block. The moving electrons in the beam are a current of 0.30 A. How long does it take for 60 mC of charge to hit the block? A 0.018 s B 0.20 s C 5.0 s D 200 s
Mark scheme: B
Q39 · A copper wire has a resistance of 8.0
39 A copper wire has a resistance of 8.0 . A second copper wire has double the length and double the diameter of the first wire. What is the resistance of the second copper wire? A 1.0 B 4.0 C 8.0 D 16
Mark scheme: B
Q40 · Which two combinations of resistors in parallel have an equal combined resistance?
40 Which two combinations of resistors in parallel have an equal combined resistance? P Q R S) 30Q 200 15Q 16Q 30Q A PandQ B PandS C QandR D RandS
Mark scheme: A
What was in this paper
The subtopics covered by these 40 questions, and how many questions each got. Open one in a new tab to see every Cambridge question on it.
3Energy, work and power3Reactivity series3Identification of ions and gases2Redox2Sexual reproduction in plants2Simple molecules and covalent bonds2Air quality and climate1Alkanes1Arrangement of elements1Carbon cycle1Cell structure1Characteristics of living organisms1Diet1Digestion1Drugs1Electrical circuits1Elements, compounds and mixtures1Enzymes1Exothermic and endothermic reactions1Formulas1General properties of waves1Kinetic particle model of matter1Light1Mass and weight1Motion1Osmosis1Respiration1Sound1Transpiration1What you needed in this session
Cambridge’s own grade thresholds for 2023 Oct/Nov, Paper 2 · Variant 2. A higher threshold means an easier paper — the bar moves with how the cohort did.