Cambridge IGCSE Sciences - Co-ordinated (Double) 0654 — 2022 Oct/Nov Paper 2 · Variant 3

0654/23/O/N/22 · 40 questions · 40 marks · ≈45 min

The question paper and its mark scheme, free to read here and free to download. This is Cambridge’s own paper, exactly as it was sat.

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Question paper16 pages

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Mark scheme3 pages

Answers below. Sit the paper first if you are practising.

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Questions as text

Q1 · What do plants need for their nutrition?

1 What do plants need for their nutrition? A carbon dioxide, ions, organic compounds and light B carbon dioxide, ions, organic compounds and water C carbon dioxide, ions, light and water D carbon dioxide, organic compounds, light and water

Mark scheme: C

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Q2 · The photograph shows red onion cells placed in a concentrated salt solution

2 The photograph shows red onion cells placed in a concentrated salt solution. Which statement explains their appearance? A Water has moved into the cells against a water potential gradient. B Water has moved out of the cells down a water potential gradient. C Water has moved out of the cells against a water potential gradient. D Water has moved into the cells down a water potential gradient.

Mark scheme: B

More questions on Osmosis

Q3 · Glycerol is a component of which large molecules?

3 Glycerol is a component of which large molecules? A fats B glycogen C proteins D starch

Mark scheme: A

More questions on Biological molecules

Q4 · The graph shows the rate of reaction of salivary amylase at different temperatures

4 The graph shows the rate of reaction of salivary amylase at different temperatures. rate of X reaction 10 20 30 40 50 temperature / °C What does the graph show at point X? A The enzyme has stopped working. B The reaction is nearly completed. C The reaction rate is controlled by pH. D The temperature is higher than the optimum.

Mark scheme: D

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Q5 · The diagram shows a section of a dicotyledonous leaf

5 The diagram shows a section of a dicotyledonous leaf. Which layer is the spongy mesophyll? A B C D

Mark scheme: C

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Q6 · The condition kwashiorkor is characterised by a poor growth rate, swelling of the hands…

6 The condition kwashiorkor is characterised by a poor growth rate, swelling of the hands and feet, and a bulging stomach. Which component of a balanced diet is lacking in someone with kwashiorkor? A fibre B protein C iron D vitamin D

Mark scheme: B

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Q7 · Which sequence is correct for part of the blood flow pathway in a mammal?

7 Which sequence is correct for part of the blood flow pathway in a mammal? A heart → pulmonary artery → lungs → pulmonary vein B heart → pulmonary vein → lungs → vena cava C lungs → pulmonary artery → heart → pulmonary vein D lungs → pulmonary vein → heart → pulmonary artery

Mark scheme: A

More questions on Circulatory systems

Q8 · An athlete is running 1000 m

8 An athlete is running 1000 m. Which graph shows the changes in their breathing rate and the concentration of carbon dioxide in their vena cava during the run? A B breathing rate breathing rate CO2 concentration CO2 concentration in the vena cava in the vena cava time time start end start end of run of run of run of run C D breathing breathing rate rate CO2 concentration in the vena cava CO2 concentration in the vena cava time time start end start end of run of run of run of run

Mark scheme: C

More questions on Gas exchange in humans

Q9 · The graph shows the variation of body temperature over time of a healthy person at rest

9 The graph shows the variation of body temperature over time of a healthy person at rest. 38 Y body temperature 37 / °C X 36 time How will the body reverse the temperature change shown between times X and Y? A decreased breathing rate B decreased pulse rate C shivering D sweating

Mark scheme: D

More questions on Homeostasis

Q10 · What are the advantages of a plant reproducing asexually?

10 What are the advantages of a plant reproducing asexually? 1 increased variety of genetic material 2 only small flowers need to be produced 3 rapid increase in population size A 1 only B 2 only C 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

Mark scheme: C

More questions on Asexual reproduction

Q11 · The diagram shows a nucleus from a cell of an organism

11 The diagram shows a nucleus from a cell of an organism. The structures shown within the nucleus are chromosomes. Why is the nucleus haploid? A because each chromosome contains only one copy of the DNA B because there are only four chromosomes C because there are two sets of chromosomes D because there is a single set of unpaired chromosomes

Mark scheme: D

More questions on Cell division

Q12 · What is a carnivore?

12 What is a carnivore? A an organism that gets its energy by eating animals B an organism that gets its energy by eating plants C an organism that gets its energy from dead matter D an organism that makes its own organic matter

Mark scheme: A

More questions on Food chains and food webs

Q13 · What is an undesirable effect of deforestation?

13 What is an undesirable effect of deforestation? A It increases the oxygen concentration of the atmosphere. B It leads to erosion and loss of soil. C It makes land available for agriculture. D It pollutes the air with methane.

Mark scheme: B

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Q14 · In which substance are the particles closest together at room temperature?

14 In which substance are the particles closest together at room temperature? A CO2 B Ne C N2 D Zn

Mark scheme: D

More questions on Solids, liquids and gases

Q15 · How many neutrons are in one atom of the isotope 35 17C ?

15 How many neutrons are in one atom of the isotope 35 17C ? l A 17 B 18 C 35 D 52

Mark scheme: B

More questions on Isotopes

Q16 · Which statement about ions is not correct?

16 Which statement about ions is not correct? A Atoms form ions by gaining or losing electrons. B Ions are formed by non-metal atoms only when they lose electrons. C Ions in a solid ionic compound form a lattice structure. D Ions with opposite charges attract each other.

Mark scheme: B

More questions on Ions and ionic bonds

Q17 · 1 g of hydrogen contains 6 × 1023 atoms

17 1 g of hydrogen contains 6 × 1023 atoms. The relative atomic mass of helium is 4. How many atoms does 1 g of helium contain? A 1.5 × 1023 B 3 × 1023 C 6 × 1023 D 2.4 × 1024

Mark scheme: A

More questions on The mole and the Avogadro constant

Q18 · Molten calcium bromide is electrolysed using inert electrodes

18 Molten calcium bromide is electrolysed using inert electrodes. What is the ionic half-equation at the cathode? A Ca+ → Ca + e– B Ca+ + e– → Ca C Ca2+ → Ca + 2e– D Ca2+ + 2e– → Ca

Mark scheme: D

More questions on Electrolysis

Q19 · Which energy level diagram correctly represents an exothermic reaction?

19 Which energy level diagram correctly represents an exothermic reaction? A B energy energy Ea Ea progress of progress of reaction reaction key C D Ea = activation energy Ea energy energy Ea progress of progress of reaction reaction

Mark scheme: D

More questions on Exothermic and endothermic reactions

Q20 · Which equation represents a redox reaction?

20 Which equation represents a redox reaction? A CaCO3 → CaO + CO2 B CuSO4•5H2O → CuSO4 + 5H2O C 2Na + Cl 2 → 2NaCl D NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O

Mark scheme: C

More questions on Redox

Q21 · What is not a property of transition elements?

21 What is not a property of transition elements? A They often act as catalysts. B They form coloured compounds. C They have high densities. D They have low melting points.

Mark scheme: D

More questions on Transition elements

Q22 · Filament lamps require an inert atmosphere

22 Filament lamps require an inert atmosphere. Which gas is used to fill these lamps? A argon B helium C hydrogen D oxygen

Mark scheme: A

More questions on Noble gases

Q23 · Alloys are formed by dissolving one metal in another

23 Alloys are formed by dissolving one metal in another. Alloys are ««1«« . ««2«« alloys conduct electricity. Which words complete gaps 1 and 2? 1 2 A compounds All B compounds Some C mixtures All D mixtures Some

Mark scheme: C

More questions on Alloys and their properties

Q24 · P, Q, R and S are four metals

24 P, Q, R and S are four metals. The oxide of metal R can be reduced by metal S, but not by metal P. The oxide of metal Q can be reduced both by metal S and by metal P. Which row shows the order of reactivity of these metals? least most reactive reactive A Q R P S B Q P R S C S P R Q D S R P Q

Mark scheme: B

More questions on Reactivity series

Q25 · Which statements about the Contact process are correct?

25 Which statements about the Contact process are correct? 1 An iron catalyst is used. 2 Oleum is added to water. 3 Sulfur dioxide is converted to sulfur trioxide. 4 Sulfur trioxide is reacted with water. A 1 and 2 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

Mark scheme: C

More questions on Experimental design

Q26 · What is not a use of limestone?

26 What is not a use of limestone? A manufacture of calcium oxide B neutralising industrial waste products C purifying water D treating acidic soil

Mark scheme: C

More questions on Water

Q27 · Which statement describes addition polymers?

27 Which statement describes addition polymers? A They contain long chains made from only one type of monomer. O B They contain C N links. H C They contain carbon-carbon double bonds. O D They contain C O links.

Mark scheme: A

More questions on Polymers

Q28 · The gravitational field strength at the Earth’s North Pole is greater than at the Equator

28 The gravitational field strength at the Earth’s North Pole is greater than at the Equator. An object is moved from the Equator to the North Pole. What effect, if any, does this have on the mass and on the weight of the object? mass weight A increases increases B increases stays the same C stays the same increases D stays the same stays the same

Mark scheme: C

More questions on Mass and weight

Q29 · A brick has a mass of 1.5 kg

29 A brick has a mass of 1.5 kg. It rests on the ground and the area of contact with the ground is 0.030 m2. A stack of such bricks is made by placing the bricks on top of each other, as shown. stack The pressure on the ground due to the stack must not exceed 5700 Pa. What is the maximum number of bricks that can be made into such a stack? gravitational field strength = 10 N / kg A 11 B 12 C 114 D 256

Mark scheme: A

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Q30 · Which equation for kinetic energy (K.E.) is correct?

30 Which equation for kinetic energy (K.E.) is correct? A K.E. = 1 2 (mv)2 B K.E. = 1 2 mv 2 C K.E. = mv 2 D K.E. = mgh

Mark scheme: B

More questions on Energy, work and power

Q31 · A car accelerates uniformly from rest along a horizontal road

31 A car accelerates uniformly from rest along a horizontal road. After 5.0 s, its kinetic energy is 400 kJ. What is the useful power produced by the engine of the car? A 80 W B 2000 W C 80 000 W D 2 000 000 W

Mark scheme: C

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Q32 · From which type of energy is electrical energy transferred in a hydroelectric power…

32 From which type of energy is electrical energy transferred in a hydroelectric power station? A chemical potential energy B elastic potential (strain) energy C gravitational potential energy D nuclear energy

Mark scheme: C

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Q33 · A fixed mass of gas is trapped in a container

33 A fixed mass of gas is trapped in a container. The temperature of the gas is increased but the volume of the container does not change. How do the kinetic energy of the molecules and the pressure of the gas change? kinetic energy pressure A decreases decreases B decreases increases C increases decreases D increases increases

Mark scheme: D

More questions on Kinetic particle model of matter

Q34 · The critical angle for diamond in air is 25°

34 The critical angle for diamond in air is 25°. Light travels faster in air than in diamond. Which diagram shows the path of light passing from diamond into air? A B air air diamond diamond 30° 20° C D air air diamond diamond 30° 20°

Mark scheme: D

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Q35 · Which type of magnet can be switched on and off many times per second?

35 Which type of magnet can be switched on and off many times per second? A an electromagnet only B a permanent magnet only C both electromagnets and permanent magnets D neither electromagnets or permanent magnets

Mark scheme: A

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Q36 · A charge of 480 C passes through a wire in 3.0 minutes

36 A charge of 480 C passes through a wire in 3.0 minutes. What is the average current in the wire? A 2.7 A B 24 A C 160 A D 1440 A

Mark scheme: A

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Q37 · What is an advantage of connecting lamps in parallel in a circuit, rather than in series?

37 What is an advantage of connecting lamps in parallel in a circuit, rather than in series? A The lamps do not use as much energy. B The lamps last longer before failing. C The potential difference (p.d.) across each lamp is smaller. D When one lamp fails, all the others remain lit.

Mark scheme: D

More questions on Electrical circuits

Q38 · A device that is designed to protect a circuit contains a thin wire

38 A device that is designed to protect a circuit contains a thin wire. When there is a large current in the circuit, the thin wire melts and cuts off the supply. What is the device? A fuse B lamp C resistor D thermistor

Mark scheme: A

More questions on Electrical safety

Q39 · A current-carrying wire is placed between the poles of a magnet, as shown

39 A current-carrying wire is placed between the poles of a magnet, as shown. The current direction in the wire is shown. A force is produced on the wire. In which labelled direction does the force act? wire B A C S N D current

Mark scheme: B

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Q40 · The diagrams represent pairs of nuclei of some atoms

40 The diagrams represent pairs of nuclei of some atoms. Which pair shows nuclei of different isotopes of the same element? A B key neutron proton C D

Mark scheme: B

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