Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625 — 2024 Oct/Nov Paper 4 · Variant 2

This document has 16 pages. Any blank pages are indicated. [Turn over * 5 7 7 6 2 5 6 3 0 3 * Cambridge IGCSE™ DC (DE/FC) 337956/3 © UCLES 2024 PHYSICS 0625/42 Paper 4 Theory (Extended) October/November 2024 1 hour 15 minutes You must answer on the question paper. No additional materials are needed. INSTRUCTIONS ● Answer all questions. ● Use a black or dark blue pen. You may use an HB pencil for any diagrams or graphs. ● Write your name, centre number and candidate number in the boxes at the top of the page. ● Write your answer to each question in the space provided. ● Do not use an erasable pen or correction fluid. ● Do not write on any bar codes. ● You may use a calculator. ● You should show all your working and use appropriate units. ● Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 9.8 N (acceleration of free fall = 9.8 m / s2). INFORMATION ● The total mark for this paper is 80. ● The number of marks for each question or part question is shown in brackets [ ]. ,










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2 0625/42/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 1 (a) A rocket has an initial mass of 7.4 × 106 kg. (i) Calculate the initial weight of the rocket. weight = … [1] (ii) Define, in words, the term weight. … … [1] (b) Fig. 1.1 shows part of the speed-time graph for the rocket as it leaves the ground and travels into space. 1000 200 O 400 600 800 time / s 1000 1200 1400 1600 2000 3000 4000 5000 speed m / s 6000 7000 8000 9000 10 000 A B A B Fig. 1.1 (i) Describe the motion of the rocket: From O to A … From A to B … [2] * 0000800000002 * ,










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3 0625/42/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 [Turn over (ii) Draw a tangent to the graph at time = 400 s and use this to calculate the acceleration of the rocket at this time. Show your working. acceleration = … [2] (c) Rockets are used to launch satellites into space. When the satellite is released, the rocket returns to the Earth. Explain in terms of forces why the rocket reaches terminal velocity as it travels through the atmosphere back to the Earth. … … … [2] [Total: 8] * 0000800000003 * ,










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4 0625/42/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 2 Fig. 2.1 shows a golfer about to hit a golf ball with a golf club. The initial momentum of the golf ball is zero. Fig. 2.1 (a) Define momentum. … [1] (b) The golf club is in contact with the ball for 5.0 × 10–4 s. The velocity of the golf ball as it leaves the golf club is 41 m / s. The golf ball has a mass of 0.046 kg. (i) Calculate the impulse on the golf ball. impulse = … [2] (ii) Calculate the force applied to the ball by the golf club. force = … [2] [Total: 5] * 0000800000004 * ,










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5 0625/42/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 [Turn over 3 (a) State two energy resources for which radiation from the Sun is the main source of energy. 1 … 2 … [2] (b) A wind turbine is used to generate electricity. The useful output from the turbine in 1.0 s is 6000 J. The kinetic energy of the wind hitting the turbine in 1.0 s is 11 000 J. The velocity of the wind hitting the turbine is 6.3 m / s. (i) Show that the mass of air hitting the turbine each second is approximately 550 kg. [2] (ii) Calculate the efficiency of the turbines. You may assume that all the kinetic energy stored in the wind is transferred to the turbine. efficiency = …% [2] (c) Tidal energy and wind energy are both renewable energy resources. Suggest one reason why tidal energy is a more useful energy resource than wind energy. Ignore the costs of construction and maintenance. … … [1] [Total: 7] * 0000800000005 * ,










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6 0625/42/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 4 Fig. 4.1 shows a pressure cooker on an electric heating element. The cooker has a tight-fitting lid. tight-fitting lid water electric heating element Fig. 4.1 (a) The pressure cooker is half-full of water. As the water is heated some water evaporates before the water boils. Describe two differences between evaporation and boiling of the water in the cooker. … … … [2] (b) As the water is heated, the pressure of the gas inside the cooker increases. Explain this increase in pressure in terms of particles. … … … … … [4] [Total: 6] * 0000800000006 * ,










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7 0625/42/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 [Turn over 5 On a sunny day, the temperatures of a black tarmac road and the air above the road increase. (a) Explain why the surface temperature of the tarmac increases. … … … [2] (b) State the method of thermal energy transfer from the tarmac to the air immediately above the road. … [1] (c) State the main method of thermal energy transfer from the air immediately above the road to the rest of the air. … [1] (d) Explain why the surface temperature of the tarmac is higher than the surrounding air temperature. … … … [2] [Total: 6] * 0000800000007 * ,










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8 0625/42/ O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 6 A student plays the violin near the doorway to a large room. Fig. 6.1 shows a young teacher standing where he can hear the sound but cannot see the student. young teacher X student playing violin open door room Fig. 6.1 (a) (i) State the wave effect that allows the young teacher to hear sounds from the violin at the position he is standing in Fig. 6.1. … [1] (ii) Calculate the frequency of sound with a wavelength of 0.75 m. The speed of sound in air is 340 m / s. frequency = … [2] (iii) A violin produces sounds in the frequency range 200 Hz–3800 Hz. The width of the open doorway is 0.75 m. Explain why the young teacher hears the frequency calculated in (a)(ii) clearly but finds a frequency of 3500 Hz much harder to hear. … … … [2] (b) A plane mirror is placed at point X so that the teacher can see the student. On Fig. 6.1: • draw a light ray from the violin to point X and from point X to the teacher • draw and label the mirror • add an arrow to the ray to show how the teacher sees the student. Use a ruler and sharp pencil for this drawing. [3] [Total: 8] * 0000800000008 * ,










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9 0625/42/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 [Turn over 7 A washing machine has an electric motor and an electric heater. Fig. 7.1 shows a simplified circuit diagram for the washing machine. M A Fig. 7.1 The heater has a resistance of 25 Ω and the power supply has an electromotive force (e.m.f.) of 230 V. (a) State the meaning of electromotive force. … … [2] (b) State the potential difference (p.d.) across the heater. p.d. = … [1] (c) Calculate the current in the heater. Current = … [2] (d) The current in the motor is 1.6 A. Determine the reading on the ammeter in Fig. 7.1. Explain your answer. Ammeter reading … Explanation … … [2] [Total: 7] * 0000800000009 * ,










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10 0625/42/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 8 A fisherman uses high frequency sound waves to locate fish in the sea. Fig. 8.1 shows the sound waves emitted from the boat. seabed fishing boat sound waves Fig. 8.1 (not to scale) (a) State the name of sound waves which have a frequency greater than 20 kHz. … [1] (b) High frequency sound waves travel from the boat through the sea water. The speed of sound in water is 1500 m / s. The seabed is 22 m below the boat. Calculate the time taken for the boat to receive the reflected wave from the seabed after the sound is emitted. time = … [3] * 0000800000010 * ,










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11 0625/42/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 [Turn over (c) Fig. 8.2 shows a fish below the boat. seabed fishing boat sound waves fish Fig. 8.2 (not to scale) Describe and explain how the reflected sound wave received by the boat from the fish differs from the reflected sound wave received from the seabed. … … … [2] [Total: 6] * 0000800000011 * ,









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12 0625/42/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 9 Fig. 9.1 shows a wireless charging plate used to charge the battery in a mobile phone (cell phone). The coil of wire is part of an electric circuit. coil of wire charging plate Fig. 9.1 The charging plate is connected to an a.c. power supply. The power supply is turned on. (a) Describe the magnetic field around the charging plate in terms of its magnitude and direction. … … … [2] (b) A mobile phone is placed on the charging plate as shown in Fig. 9.2. The coil in the mobile phone is part of a separate circuit that charges the battery. primary coil secondary coil charging plate mobile phone Fig. 9.2 The coil in the charging plate and the coil in the mobile phone act like a transformer. (i) Explain why there is a current in the secondary coil shown in Fig. 9.2. … … … [2] (ii) Suggest why the transformer made from the charging plate and mobile phone is not 100% efficient. … … [1] * 0000800000012 * ,









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13 0625/42/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 [Turn over (c) The mobile phone battery can be recharged using this charging plate and stores 4.5 × 104 J of energy when fully recharged. The current in the secondary coil is 0.63 A when the output voltage is 12 V. (i) Calculate the time taken to fully recharge a completely uncharged battery. time = … [2] (ii) Calculate the charge passing through the battery in 60 s. charge = … [2] [Total: 9] * 0000800000013 * ,









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14 0625/42/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 10 Carbon-14 (14 6 C) is a radioactive isotope of carbon. Carbon-12 (12 6 C) is not radioactive. (a) Explain how an atom of carbon-14 (14 6 C) differs from an atom of carbon-12 (12 6 C). … … [2] (b) All living organisms contain both carbon-12 atoms and carbon-14 atoms. The ratio of carbon-14 to carbon-12 is 1 : 1 × 1012. Carbon-14 has a half-life of 5700 years. (i) When an organism dies no new carbon is absorbed. The amount of carbon-12 in the dead organism remains fixed. Describe how the amount of carbon-14 in the dead organism decreases with time. … … … [2] (ii) A sample of wood contains carbon-14 to carbon-12 atoms in the ratio 1 : 4 × 1012. Calculate how many years ago the tree died. … years ago [3] (c) Other radioactive isotopes have different half-lives. Suggest a use of a radioactive isotope with a half-life of one hour. Explain why a short half-life is suitable for this use. use … explanation … … [2] [Total: 9] * 0000800000014 * ,









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15 0625/42/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 11 (a) (i) State the name of one planet that has an orbit further away from the Sun than Venus. … [1] (ii) State the name of one planet that has an orbit closer to the Sun than Venus. … [1] (b) Venus has an average radius of orbit of 1.1 × 1011 m and an orbital period of 220 Earth days. Calculate the average orbital speed of Venus. Give your answer in m / s. average orbital speed = … m / s [3] (c) State the relationship between the orbital speeds of the planets and their distances from the Sun. … … [1] (d) Comets are balls of ice and dust. Some comets orbit the Sun. State how the speed of a comet changes as it orbits the Sun. Explain your answer using ideas about the conservation of energy. You may include a labelled diagram in your answer. … … … [3] [Total: 9] * 0000800000015 * ,









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16 0625/42/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity. To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series. Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge. BLANK PAGE * 0000800000016 * ,









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This document consists of 16 printed pages. © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 [Turn over Cambridge IGCSE™ PHYSICS 0625/42 Paper 4 Extended Theory October/November 2024 MARK SCHEME Maximum Mark: 80 Published This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have considered the acceptability of alternative answers. Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for Teachers. Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes. Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2024 series for most Cambridge IGCSE, Cambridge International A and AS Level components, and some Cambridge O Level components.

0625/42 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 2 of 16 Generic Marking Principles These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers. They should be applied alongside the specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptions for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these marking principles. GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 1: Marks must be awarded in line with: • the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question • the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question • the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts. GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 2: Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions). GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 3: Marks must be awarded positively: • marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit is given for valid answers which go beyond the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme, referring to your Team Leader as appropriate • marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do • marks are not deducted for errors • marks are not deducted for omissions • answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these features are specifically assessed by the question as indicated by the mark scheme. The meaning, however, should be unambiguous. GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 4: Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed instructions or in the application of generic level descriptors.

0625/42 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 3 of 16 GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 5: Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question (however; the use of the full mark range may be limited according to the quality of the candidate responses seen). GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 6: Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should not be awarded with grade thresholds or grade descriptors in mind. Science-Specific Marking Principles 1 Examiners should consider the context and scientific use of any keywords when awarding marks. Although keywords may be present, marks should not be awarded if the keywords are used incorrectly. 2 The examiner should not choose between contradictory statements given in the same question part, and credit should not be awarded for any correct statement that is contradicted within the same question part. Wrong science that is irrelevant to the question should be ignored. 3 Although spellings do not have to be correct, spellings of syllabus terms must allow for clear and unambiguous separation from other syllabus terms with which they may be confused (e.g. ethane / ethene, glucagon / glycogen, refraction / reflection). 4 The error carried forward (ecf) principle should be applied, where appropriate. If an incorrect answer is subsequently used in a scientifically correct way, the candidate should be awarded these subsequent marking points. Further guidance will be included in the mark scheme where necessary and any exceptions to this general principle will be noted. 5 ‘List rule’ guidance For questions that require n responses (e.g. State two reasons …): • The response should be read as continuous prose, even when numbered answer spaces are provided. • Any response marked ignore in the mark scheme should not count towards n. • Incorrect responses should not be awarded credit but will still count towards n. • Read the entire response to check for any responses that contradict those that would otherwise be credited. Credit should not be awarded for any responses that are contradicted within the rest of the response. Where two responses contradict one another, this should be treated as a single incorrect response. • Non-contradictory responses after the first n responses may be ignored even if they include incorrect science.

0625/42 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 4 of 16 6 Calculation specific guidance Correct answers to calculations should be given full credit even if there is no working or incorrect working, unless the question states ‘show your working’. For questions in which the number of significant figures required is not stated, credit should be awarded for correct answers when rounded by the examiner to the number of significant figures given in the mark scheme. This may not apply to measured values. For answers given in standard form (e.g. a  10n) in which the convention of restricting the value of the coefficient (a) to a value between 1 and 10 is not followed, credit may still be awarded if the answer can be converted to the answer given in the mark scheme. Unless a separate mark is given for a unit, a missing or incorrect unit will normally mean that the final calculation mark is not awarded. Exceptions to this general principle will be noted in the mark scheme. 7 Guidance for chemical equations Multiples / fractions of coefficients used in chemical equations are acceptable unless stated otherwise in the mark scheme. State symbols given in an equation should be ignored unless asked for in the question or stated otherwise in the mark scheme.

0625/42 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 5 of 16 Specific Instructions for Marking 0625/Paper 4 Preparation for Marking Instructions and handbooks, for markers using RM Assessor 3 can be found at RM support portal. Marking M1. Blank pages, additional objects and marking outside the question zone. Blank pages attached to the first part of Q1 should be annotated with SEEN on all scripts. Link any work on these pages as appropriate. Annotate any blank Additional Objects with SEEN. Link any other additional objects to the question or questions applicable. Examiners must ensure that they view the whole exam paper for each candidate. This will sometimes mean scrolling through a large zone to ensure that no working relevant to either the current or any other question is missed. Where a candidate’s answer extends beyond the marking zone, examiners must view the whole page (or link to other pages) to annotate and mark the whole answer. To view the whole page, deselect any annotation tool from the mouse, then click in the bottom right-hand corner of the marking zone where ‘view whole page’ appears. For instructions to link to other pages see above. M2. Use of Annotation tools. Examiners annotate scripts to explain their reasons for awarding or not awarding marks, noting: • for all questions with two or more marks, it is mandatory to annotate with ticks placed to indicate where each mark is awarded. In a calculation where the final answer (A) mark is awarded all the ticks should be placed near to the final answer. • annotations and comments must never suggest or imply that a mark has been deducted e.g. –1 • for questions with only one mark maximum, examiners’ ticks to show the mark is awarded are not mandatory • SF, SC and ECF annotations must be used as appropriate (see table of annotation tools) • Examiners are expected to use annotations where they have considered an answer and made a marginal judgement. annotation tool use of annotation tool on scripts tick mark awarded (a tally is shown next to the annotation tool so you can check the mark you enter agrees with number of ticks placed) cross incorrect / not creditworthy SEEN this page/item has been considered by the examiner (see M1) BOD benefit of doubt given

0625/42 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 6 of 16 annotation tool use of annotation tool on scripts NBOD no benefit of doubt given text box allows a comment written by the examiner to be included on the script ECF error carried forward (ecf) has been applied ^ omission mark Highlighter and zig-zag lines used to highlight a particular point CON contradiction (to a correct point in the answer) NAQ The answer provided is not an answer to the question asked. (Note: Do not use this annotation where no response has been made and the mark NR awarded.) SF error in the number of significant figures of a final answer TV too vague I ignore SC special case M3. Acronyms and shorthand in the mark scheme. acronym/shorthand explanation A mark Final answer mark which is awarded for fully correct final answers including the unit. C mark Compensatory mark which may be scored when the final answer (A) mark for a question has not been awarded. B mark Independent mark which does not depend on any other mark. M mark Method mark which must be scored before any subsequent final answer (A) mark can be scored.

0625/42 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 7 of 16 acronym/shorthand explanation Brackets ( ) Words not explicitly needed in an answer, however if a contradictory word / phrase / unit to that in the brackets is seen the mark is not awarded. Underlining The underlined word (or a synonym) must be present for the mark to be scored. If the word is a technical scientific term, the word must be there. / or OR Alternative answers any one of which gains the credit for that mark. owtte Or words to that effect. ORA Or reverse argument ignore Indicates either an incorrect or irrelevant point which may be disregarded, i.e., not treated as contradictory. insufficient an answer not worthy of credit on its own. CON An incorrect point which contradicts any correct point and means the mark cannot be scored. ecf [question part] Indicates that a candidate using an erroneous value from the stated question part must be given credit here if the erroneous value is used correctly here. cao correct answer only M4. Miscellaneous Equations and formulae. Where a C, B or M mark is available for quoting a formula or equation this can be done in any form and in words, symbols or numbers unless the mark scheme specifies otherwise. Use of ecf. The mark scheme notes where ecf is applicable, in the guidance section of the final answer mark. However, it should be applied for all relevant C marks as well. Always annotate ecf if applied. See Science specific Marking point 4 above. Units. • A numerically correct final answer without a unit is awarded the final answer (A) mark if the unit is shown correctly in the candidate’s working. • A numerically correct answer with a missing or incorrect unit is not awarded the final answer (A) mark. C (B or M) marks are awarded from the candidate’s working.

0625/42 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 8 of 16 • Accept units with incorrect use of upper-case and lower-case symbols, e.g. pA for Pa. • Unless the mark scheme for a specific question part states otherwise, the only permitted derived units are: unit permitted derived units W J / s or Nm / s Pa N / m2 momentum Ns or kg m / s impulse Ns or kg m / s J Nm • Note: J is not permitted as the unit for moments. Significant Figures. • Unless otherwise indicated in the mark scheme, final answers expressed to two or more significant figures receive the final answer (A) mark if the candidate’s answer rounds to the mark scheme answer. • A final answer expressed to one significant figure is only awarded the final answer (A) mark where the final answer is exact to one sig. fig. (This applies to all answers, including answers using ecf.) • A correct numerical answer, quoted with fewer significant figures than required by the mark scheme (even if in the working it has the required number of significant figures), is not awarded the final answer (A) marks. C (B or M) marks are awarded as appropriate. Fractions. An answer expressed as a fraction is not a numerically correct final answer unless the fraction is explicitly stated in the mark scheme. Crossed out work. When only part of an answer is crossed out the crossed-out work must be ignored. However, work which has been wholly crossed out and not replaced and can easily be read, should be marked as if it had not been crossed out. Look to see if it has been replaced on a blank page or another part of the same page before attempting to mark the crossed-out work. Marking diagrams on-screen. Differences in magnification and/or individual computer screen settings can alter the appearance of diagrams. If it is necessary to check line lengths or angles use the ruler and protractor tools provided within RM Assessor 3 to ensure consistency across all examiners. NR. (# or / key on the keyboard). Use this (instead of giving 0 marks) if the answer space for a question is completely blank or contains no readable words, figures or symbols.

0625/42 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 9 of 16 Question Answer Marks 1(a)(i) 7.3  107 N B1 1(a)(ii) (weight is) the gravitational force on a mass / an object (with mass) OR (weight is) the effect of a gravitational field on a mass B1 1(b)(i) (from O to A) increasing acceleration B1 (from A to B) constant / uniform acceleration B1 1(b)(ii) tangent drawn at time = 400 s M1 ∆y / ∆x from candidate’s tangent seen AND 17 m / s2 ⩽ acceleration ⩽ 23 m / s2 A1 1(c) resistive force / air resistance / drag increases as velocity increases B1 until gravitational force is balanced by air resistance (at terminal velocity) OR until resultant / net force is zero (at terminal velocity) B1 Question Answer Marks 2(a) (momentum is) mass  velocity B1 2(b)(i) 1.9 N s OR 1.9 kg m / s A2 impulse = F∆t = ∆{mv}OR (impulse =F∆t =) ∆{mv} OR (impulse =) 0.046  41 C1 2(b)(ii) 3800 N A2 F=∆p / ∆t OR (F=) ∆p / (∆)t OR (F=) ∆(mv) / (∆)t OR (F =) impulse / (∆)t OR 1.9 / 0.0005 OR 3.8  10N N C1

0625/42 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 10 of 16 Question Answer Marks 3(a) any two from: • fossil fuels / named fossil fuel • biofuels / named biofuel / biomass • wave(s) • wind (turbines) • Hydroelectric • solar panels / solar cells B2 3(b)(i) Ek = ½ mv2 B1 (m =)   2 11 000 2 6.3   OR (m =)   11 000 2 39.69   OR 554 (kg) SEEN B1 3(b)(ii) 55 (%) A2 efficiency = useful energy out(put) / (total) energy in(put)  100 % OR ( ) 6000 11 000 100   C1 3(c) (tides) follow a regular / predictable pattern OR (tides) are reliable ORA for wind B1

0625/42 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 11 of 16 Question Answer Marks 4(a) boiling happens at a specific temperature OR evaporation happens at a range of temperatures OR evaporation happens at any temperature (below the boiling point) B1 evaporation happens at the surface of the water OR boiling happens throughout the water B1 4(b) any four from: 1 (as the water is heated) the number of gas particles increases 2 (particles) gain internal / kinetic energy 3 (there are) more frequent collisions between particles and surface / wall / lid of the cooker 4 (each) collision (of particles) is harder / exerts more force (on cooker surface) OR greater change of momentum when particles collide (on cooker surface) 5 pressure  (total) force (of collisions) OR pressure = force / area B4

0625/42 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 12 of 16 Question Answer Marks 5(a) (tarmac / it) absorbs infrared radiation (emitted from the Sun) A2 (tarmac / it) absorbs radiation / infrared (emitted from the Sun) C1 5(b) conduction B1 5(c) convection B1 5(d) any two from: 1 black / tarmac is a better absorber (of radiation) than air 2 tarmac is a poor emitter (at low / this temperature) 3 thin layer of tarmac / very large volume / column of air above road B2 Question Answer Marks 6(a)(i) diffraction B1 6(a)(ii) 450 Hz A2 v = f  OR (f = ) v /  OR 340 / 0.75 C1 6(a)(iii) large diffraction when gap size / doorway is similar to wavelength B1 high frequency / 3500 Hz has (much) shorter wavelength AND there is less diffraction (with shorter wavelengths) B1 6(b) ray drawn from the violin to point X AND from point X to the teacher B1 mirror drawn at point X and labelled AND angle of incidence = angle of reflection B1 correct arrow on incident ray OR correct arrow on reflected ray B1

0625/42 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 13 of 16 Question Answer Marks 7(a) (e.m.f. is the electrical) work done (by a source in) moving a unit charge around a (complete) circuit A2 (electrical) work done moving a charge C1 7(b) 230 V B1 7(c) 9.2 A A2 R = V / I OR ( I =) V / R OR 230 / 25 C1 7(d) (ammeter reading =) {1.6 + candidate’s answer to 7(c)} A B1 Sum of currents into a junction = sum of currents out of junction OR total current is sum of the current in the branches owtte B1 Question Answer Marks 8(a) ultrasound B1 8(b) 0.029 s A3 (distance travelled =) 22  2 OR 44 SEEN C1 v = s / t OR (t =) s / v OR 44 / 1500 C1 8(c) reflected wave is weaker / has smaller amplitude M1 fish is small(er) OR only small part of wave reflects off fish OR most of sound goes to seabed A1

0625/42 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 14 of 16 Question Answer Marks 9(a) any two from: 1 (magnitude is) constantly changing owtte 2 (magnetic field is) stronger closer to the coil of wire ORA 3 (the magnetic field is) perpendicular to the a.c. current (producing it) 4 (the magnetic field) changes direction owtte B2 9(b)(i) any one from: • secondary coil is in changing / varying magnetic field • secondary coil is in the magnetic field of primary coil B1 voltage is induced (in the secondary coil) B1 9(b)(ii) any one from: • There is no iron core (to strengthen field) • transformer usually has an iron core to connect the two coils • some energy transferred to thermal energy (in phone / surroundings) B1 9(c)(i) 6000 s A2 E = VIt OR (t =) E / IV OR 4.5  104 / [12  0.63] C1 9(c)(ii) (Q =) 38 C A2 I = Q / t OR (Q=) It OR 0.63  60 C1

0625/42 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 15 of 16 Question Answer Marks 10(a) (nucleus of carbon-14 contains) more neutrons OR (nucleus of) carbon-12 has fewer neutrons B1 any one from: • (atom / nucleus of carbon-14) is heavier • (atom / nucleus of carbon-14 is) not stable • (nucleus of carbon-14 contains) two more neutrons B1 10(b)(i) Every 5700 years the (remaining) carbon-14 decreases by half OR amount of C-14 halved every half life A2 amount of carbon-14 halves in 5700 years OR amount of carbon-14 decreases at a decreasing rate (with time) C1 10(b)(ii) 11 000 (years ago) A3 2  half-life have elapsed C1 25% of C-14 at time of death is still present in tree OR 75% of C-14 has decayed. C1 10(c) medical tracers OR medical imaging OR medical diagnosis B1 any one from: • keep dose low • doesn’t stay in body too long • less damage (to body) OR less harmful (to humans) B1

0625/42 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 16 of 16 Question Answer Marks 11(a)(i) Earth / Mars / Jupiter / Saturn / Uranus / Neptune B1 11(a)(ii) Mercury B1 11(b) 3.6  104 (m / s) A3 (T =) 220  24  60  60 OR (T =) 1.9  107 (s) C1 (v =) 2 r T  OR (v =) 11 2 1.1 10 220 24 60 60      C1 11(c) The further away from the Sun the slower the orbital speed / ORA B1 11(d) 1 any one from: • comet has an elliptical orbit • speed of comet is faster when it closer to the Sun • speed of comet is slower when it is further away from the Sun B1 2 any one from: • (conservation of energy requires that) transfers between kinetic and gravitational stores (as comet changes speed) • total energy remains constant • energy cannot be created or destroyed B1 3 as radius of orbit decreases, gravitational energy decreases and kinetic energy increases ORA B1