Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625 — 2025 Oct/Nov Paper 2 · Variant 2
0625/22/O/N/25 · 40 questions · 40 marks · ≈45 min
The question paper and its mark scheme, free to read here and free to download. This is Cambridge’s own paper, exactly as it was sat.
Question paper16 pages
Mark scheme3 pages
Answers below. Sit the paper first if you are practising.
Questions as text
Q1 · Which quantities are both vectors?
1 Which quantities are both vectors? A acceleration and force B acceleration and pressure C density and force D density and pressure
Mark scheme: A
More questions on Physical quantities and measurement techniques
Q2 · How is the deceleration of an object calculated from a speed–time graph?
2 How is the deceleration of an object calculated from a speed–time graph? A It is the area under the graph. B It is the gradient of the graph. C It is the difference between two readings on the horizontal (x) axis. D It is the difference between two readings on the vertical (y) axis.
Mark scheme: B
Q3 · A space probe that has a mass of 600 kg is on the planet Mars
3 A space probe that has a mass of 600 kg is on the planet Mars. The acceleration of free fall on Mars is 4.0 m / s2. What is the weight of the space probe on Mars? A 60 N B 150 N C 2400 N D 6000 N
Mark scheme: C
Q4 · Students are asked to predict the order in which three liquids, P, Q and R, will float on…
4 Students are asked to predict the order in which three liquids, P, Q and R, will float on each other. They are told that the liquids will not mix. The diagrams show how the density of liquid P is determined. measuring cylinder liquid P 20 cm3 electric balance 45.00 g 69.00 g The table shows the densities of Q and R. density liquid g / cm 3 Q 0.75 R 1.1 The liquids are poured gently into a tall beaker and allowed to settle. Which diagram shows the liquids settled in the correct order? A B C D P Q Q R R P R P Q R P Q
Mark scheme: C
Q5 · A force F is applied to a spanner, as shown
5 A force F is applied to a spanner, as shown. spanner handle nut F Which action increases the moment of F about the centre of the nut? A applying the force F to the right-hand end of the spanner handle B applying the force F parallel to the spanner handle C spraying oil on the nut D using a shorter spanner
Mark scheme: A
Q6 · A ball X of mass 0.15 kg travelling horizontally with a velocity of 2.1 m / s towards…
6 Diagram 1 shows a ball X of mass 0.15 kg travelling horizontally with a velocity of 2.1 m / s towards ball Y travelling at 0.4 m / s in the opposite direction. Diagram 2 shows the velocities of the balls immediately after they collide. X Y 2.1 m / s 0.4 m / s diagram 1 X Y 1.4 m / s 1.1 m / s diagram 2 What is the mass of ball Y? A 0.15 kg B 0.19 kg C 0.35 kg D 0.79 kg
Mark scheme: C
Q7 · A mass is suspended from a vertical spring
7 A mass is suspended from a vertical spring. The mass is pulled downwards causing the spring to extend further. The mass is held in this position and then released. Which energy changes occur during the initial movement of the mass when the mass is released? gravitational elastic kinetic potential energy potential energy energy store store store A decreases decreases increases B decreases increases increases C increases decreases decreases D increases increases decreases
Mark scheme: D
Q8 · Which energy resource stores kinetic energy?
8 Which energy resource stores kinetic energy? A coal B nuclear fission C solar D wind
Mark scheme: D
Q9 · Two beakers are filled to the same depth, one with water and one with oil
9 Two beakers are filled to the same depth, one with water and one with oil. The density of water is 1000 kg / m3. The density of oil is 920 kg / m3. In which position is the pressure the greatest? A A C water oil B B D
Mark scheme: B
Q10 · The pressure of the air in a car tyre rises after a long journey
10 The pressure of the air in a car tyre rises after a long journey. This is caused by a change in the average speed of the air particles and a change in the temperature of the air in the tyre. Which row describes the changes that have caused the air pressure in the tyre to rise? average speed of temperature the air particles of the air A decreases decreases B decreases increases C increases decreases D increases increases
Mark scheme: D
Q11 · In which range of temperatures is water a liquid?
11 In which range of temperatures is water a liquid? A 0 K to 100 K B 0 K to 273 K C 100 K to 373 K D 273 K to 373 K
Mark scheme: D
Q12 · The diagram represents the particle arrangements in samples of three different…
12 The diagram represents the particle arrangements in samples of three different substances, P, Q and R. substance P substance Q substance R The samples have equal volumes and the same temperature. The samples are heated. The temperature increase of each sample is the same and no changes of state take place. Which row shows possible percentage increases in volume for the three samples? sample of sample of sample of substance P substance Q substance R / % / % / % A 0.066 1.9 7.2 B 0.066 7.2 1.9 C 1.9 0.066 7.2 D 1.9 7.2 0.066
Mark scheme: C
Q13 · A cup contains 0.25 kg of water at 60 °C
13 A cup contains 0.25 kg of water at 60 °C. Some time later, the water has cooled to 20 °C. How much energy has been transferred from the water to the surroundings? (The specific heat capacity of water is 4200 J / (kg °C).) A 21 000 J B 42 000 J C 63 000 J D 84 000 J
Mark scheme: B
Q14 · A pure substance is heated slowly
14 A pure substance is heated slowly. The temperature of the substance is measured as it starts to melt and when it finishes melting. Which statement is correct? A The temperature decreases slightly as the substance melts. B The temperature fluctuates as the substance melts. C The temperature increases as the substance melts. D The temperature stays the same as the substance melts.
Mark scheme: D
Q15 · A lamp has a metal filament that glows when heated by an electric current
15 A lamp has a metal filament that glows when heated by an electric current. The middle of the filament has a very high temperature. The ends of the filament are connected to the base of the lamp and are cooler. Which statement is correct? A Some thermal energy is conducted to the base of the lamp. B The filament radiates energy equally at all points along its length. C The lamp transfers all of the input energy as visible light. D When the potential difference (p.d.) across the filament is halved, the power output is halved.
Mark scheme: A
Q16 · A liquid passes through pipes inside a refrigerator
16 A liquid passes through pipes inside a refrigerator. The liquid warms as the inside of the refrigerator cools. The warm liquid is then passed through pipes on the outside of the refrigerator to cool it before it goes back through the refrigerator. The diagrams show two designs for the outside cooling pipes. One design has copper rods, called fins, attached to the pipes. warm warm liquid liquid fins outside outside pipes pipes cool cool liquid liquid The outside pipes and fins can be painted silver or black. Which design of outside pipes will cool the liquid most quickly? A painted black with fins B painted black without fins C painted silver with fins D painted silver without fins
Mark scheme: A
Q17 · An earthquake-monitoring station records the arrival of 16 complete wavelengths of an…
17 An earthquake-monitoring station records the arrival of 16 complete wavelengths of an earthquake wave in a time of 20 s. The speed of the earthquake wave is 6.0 km / s. What is the wavelength of the earthquake wave? A 1.3 10– 4 m B 2.1 10– 4 m C 4.8 103 m D 7.5 103 m
Mark scheme: D
Q18 · Which statement is correct?
18 Which statement is correct? A Seismic S-waves are longitudinal. B Sound waves are longitudinal. C The amplitude is always greater than the wavelength in a longitudinal wave. D The vibration is at right-angles to the direction of propagation in a longitudinal wave.
Mark scheme: B
Q19 · A water droplet is falling towards a horizontal plane mirror
19 A water droplet is falling towards a horizontal plane mirror. At one moment, the droplet is a distance of 1.5 m above the mirror and falling at a speed of 2.0 m / s. What is the distance between the droplet and its image and what is the speed of the image at this moment? distance between speed of image water droplet and its image / m m / s A 1.5 2.0 B 1.5 4.0 C 3.0 2.0 D 3.0 4.0
Mark scheme: C
Q20 · Total internal reflection may occur when light reaches an air–glass boundary
20 Total internal reflection may occur when light reaches an air–glass boundary. Under which conditions is light totally internally reflected? medium in which light travels towards angle of incidence the boundary A air greater than the critical angle B air less than the critical angle C glass greater than the critical angle D glass less than the critical angle
Mark scheme: C
Q21 · A long-sighted person cannot see objects clearly that are a short distance away because…
21 A long-sighted person cannot see objects clearly that are a short distance away because the image is blurred. Where is the image formed relative to the retina and which type of lens is used to correct long-sightedness? lens used position of image for correction A behind retina converging B behind retina diverging C in front of retina converging D in front of retina diverging
Mark scheme: A
Q22 · What is the speed of infrared radiation in glass with a refractive index of 1.5?
22 What is the speed of infrared radiation in glass with a refractive index of 1.5? A 340 m / s B 2.0 108 m / s C 3.0 108 m / s D 4.5 108 m / s
Mark scheme: B
Q23 · Sound travels through air as a series of compressions and rarefactions
23 Sound travels through air as a series of compressions and rarefactions. Which statement correctly compares a compression with a rarefaction? A In a compression, the wavelength is longer than in a rarefaction. B In a compression, the wavelength is shorter than in a rarefaction. C In a compression, the density of the air is greater than in a rarefaction. D In a compression, the density of the air is lower than in a rarefaction.
Mark scheme: C
Q24 · Which statements about magnets are correct?
24 Which statements about magnets are correct? 1 Permanent magnets are made of steel. 2 Electromagnets are temporary magnets. 3 A magnet can be used to induce magnetism in an iron bar. A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only
Mark scheme: A
Q25 · In a circuit, two identical lamps are in parallel
25 In a circuit, two identical lamps are in parallel. The parallel pair of lamps is in series with a resistor and a battery. The battery does 120 J of work moving 50 C of charge around the circuit in time t. In each lamp, 40 J of work is done by the charge that passes through it in time t. The electromotive force (e.m.f.) of the battery is E and the potential difference (p.d.) across one lamp is V. Which statement about E and V is correct? A E is 2.4 V and V is 0.80 V. B E is 2.4 V and V is 1.6 V. C E is 4.8 V and V is 2.4 V. D E is 4.8 V and V is 4.8 V.
Mark scheme: B
Q26 · Two wires, X and Y, are made from the same metal and have the same resistance
26 Two wires, X and Y, are made from the same metal and have the same resistance. Which row identifies a possible pair of values for X and for Y? length of X diameter of X length of Y diameter of Y / cm / mm / cm / mm A 50 0.40 200 0.10 B 50 0.40 200 0.20 C 50 0.40 200 0.80 D 50 0.40 200 1.60
Mark scheme: C
Q27 · Which circuit contains a light-dependent resistor (LDR)?
27 Which circuit contains a light-dependent resistor (LDR)? A B C D
Mark scheme: D
Q28 · A teacher asks three students to write down an equation to determine the combined…
28 A teacher asks three students to write down an equation to determine the combined resistance RC of resistors with resistances RY and RZ. RZ RY Which students are correct? 1 1 1 student 1 = + R R R C Y Z 1 1 student 2 = R R Y + R C Z 1 1 student 3 RC = + R R Y Z A 1 and 2 B 1 only C 2 and 3 D 3 only
Mark scheme: B
Q29 · An electrical appliance has a symbol on it to indicate it is double-insulated
29 An electrical appliance has a symbol on it to indicate it is double-insulated. Which statement is correct? A A two-core, flexible cable with no earth wire is used to connect it to the mains supply. B It needs an earth wire that is connected to a fuse. C No fuse or circuit breaker is needed. D The cable should be connected to the live and earth connectors of the plug but not the neutral.
Mark scheme: A
Q30 · A length of wire moves across the space between the poles of a magnet
30 A length of wire moves across the space between the poles of a magnet. A voltmeter measures the electromotive force (e.m.f.) generated between the two ends of the wire. What gives the highest reading on the voltmeter? speed strength of wire of magnet A fast weak B fast strong C slow weak D slow strong
Mark scheme: B
Q31 · The diagram shows a simple a.c
31 The diagram shows a simple a.c. generator. N S G H What is connected to G and H so that alternating current can be provided to an external circuit? A cell B commutator C slip rings D soft iron core
Mark scheme: C
Q32 · The diagrams show the coil in a d.c
32 The diagrams show the coil in a d.c. electric motor in two positions. As the coil rotates through 180°, the direction of the current in the coil reverses from PQRS to SRQP. Q R R Q P S S P Which part of the motor is responsible for reversing the current? A the brushes B the coil C the magnets D the split-ring commutator
Mark scheme: D
Q33 · The arrow shows the path of an -particle travelling towards the centre of a gold nucleus
33 The arrow shows the path of an -particle travelling towards the centre of a gold nucleus. gold nucleus Which description of the path of the -particle after striking the gold nucleus is correct? A The -particle is deflected through a very small angle towards the top of the page. B The -particle is deflected back along its initial path. C The -particle carries on in a straight line with no deflection. D The -particle is captured by the nucleus and goes into orbit around it.
Mark scheme: B
Q34 · A teacher writes the nuclide equation for a fusion reaction
34 A teacher writes the nuclide equation for a fusion reaction. 2 x 4 1 What is the missing number X and the missing element Q? X Q A 2 B 2 He Cc 3 H D 3 He
Mark scheme: D
Q35 · Radon gas is a source of radiation that contributes to background radiation
35 Radon gas is a source of radiation that contributes to background radiation. What does not contribute to background radiation? A electromagnetic rays B food and drink C rocks D seismic waves
Mark scheme: D
Q36 · Two beams of radiation, P and S, enter an electric field, as shown
36 Two beams of radiation, P and S, enter an electric field, as shown. + + + + + + + + P S – – – – – – – – Which types of radiation are P and S? P S A beta () alpha () B beta () gamma () C gamma () alpha () D gamma () gamma ()
Mark scheme: A
Q37 · Which change takes place in the nucleus when it decays by beta () emission?
37 Which change takes place in the nucleus when it decays by beta () emission? A neutron + electron proton B neutron proton + electron C proton + electron neutron D proton neutron + electron
Mark scheme: B
Q38 · A space probe measures the gravitational field strength at four different distances from…
38 A space probe measures the gravitational field strength at four different distances from a planet. The point furthest from the planet is measured first and the point nearest the planet is measured last. In which order were the measurements taken? A 6.3 N / kg, 10 N / kg, 14 N / kg, 20 N / kg B 10 N / kg, 14 N / kg, 6.3 N / kg, 20 N / kg C 20 N / kg, 14 N / kg, 6.3 N / kg, 10 N / kg D 20 N / kg, 14 N / kg, 10 N / kg, 6.3 N / kg
Mark scheme: A
Q39 · The galaxy Draco II is a distance of 6.6 1020 m from Earth
39 The galaxy Draco II is a distance of 6.6 1020 m from Earth. What is this distance in light-years? A 1.4 104 light-years B 6.9 104 light-years C 1.4 106 light-years D 6.9 106 light-years
Mark scheme: B
Q40 · What is a possible result of a supernova explosion?
40 What is a possible result of a supernova explosion? A a neutron star B a red giant star C a red supergiant star D a white dwarf star
Mark scheme: A
What was in this paper
The subtopics covered by these 40 questions, and how many questions each got. Open one in a new tab to see every Cambridge question on it.
4Thermal properties and temperature4Electromagnetic effects3Light3Electric circuits2Electrical quantities2Energy, work and power2General properties of waves2Stars and the Universe2Transfer of thermal energy2Density1Electrical safety1Electromagnetic spectrum1Forces1Kinetic particle model of matter1Mass and weight1Momentum1Motion1Physical quantities and measurement techniques1Pressure1Simple phenomena of magnetism1Sound1The Earth and the Solar System1The nuclear model of the atom1What you needed in this session
Cambridge’s own grade thresholds for 2025 Oct/Nov, Paper 2 · Variant 2. A higher threshold means an easier paper — the bar moves with how the cohort did.