Cambridge IGCSE Physics 0625 — 2023 May/June Paper 2 · Variant 3
0625/23/M/J/23 · 40 questions · 40 marks · ≈45 min
The question paper and its mark scheme, free to read here and free to download. This is Cambridge’s own paper, exactly as it was sat.
Question paper16 pages
Mark scheme3 pages
Answers below. Sit the paper first if you are practising.
Questions as text
Q1 · The speed–time graph shows the motion of an object
1 The speed–time graph shows the motion of an object. 5 speed m / s 0 0 5 10 15 20 25 time / s How far does the object travel at constant speed? A 25 m B 50 m C 75 m D 125 m
Mark scheme: B
Q2 · Which statement about a falling object accelerating close to the Earth’s surface is…
2 Which statement about a falling object accelerating close to the Earth’s surface is correct? A The weight of the object is increasing and the force of air resistance on the object is decreasing. B The weight of the object and the force of air resistance on the object are of equal magnitude, but act in opposite directions. C The weight of the object is constant, but the force of air resistance on the object is increasing. D The weight of the object is less than the force of air resistance.
Mark scheme: C
Q3 · An aircraft is moving at 60 m / s in a northerly direction when a cross-wind from the…
3 An aircraft is moving at 60 m / s in a northerly direction when a cross-wind from the east starts to blow. The speed of the wind is 13 m / s. What is the magnitude of the aircraft’s velocity when the wind is blowing? A 47 m / s B 59 m / s C 61 m / s D 73 m / s
Mark scheme: C
Q4 · Two rectangular blocks consist of different materials
4 Two rectangular blocks consist of different materials. Four different methods are suggested to compare the two masses. 1 Compare the accelerations with which they fall freely. 2 Compare the values of their lengths breadths heights. 3 Hang each in turn from the same spring. Compare the extensions. 4 Place one in the right-hand pan of a beam balance and the other in the left-hand pan. Which methods give a comparison of the two masses? A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 3 and 4 only D 4 only
Mark scheme: C
Q5 · An object in a space probe above the Earth weighs 3.5 N
5 An object in a space probe above the Earth weighs 3.5 N. The gravitational field strength at the height of the space probe is 7.0 N / kg. The gravitational field strength on the Earth’s surface is 9.8 N / kg. What are the mass and the weight of the object on the Earth’s surface? mass / kg weight / N A 0.50 3.5 B 0.50 4.9 C 2.0 3.5 D 2.0 20
Mark scheme: B
Q6 · A cyclist is travelling in a straight line along a horizontal road at a constant speed
6 A cyclist is travelling in a straight line along a horizontal road at a constant speed. A constant driving force F acts on the cyclist in the forward direction shown. F Which statement about the magnitude of the frictional forces acting on the cyclist is correct? A The magnitude is equal to F. B The magnitude is smaller than F, but greater than zero. C The magnitude is greater than F. D The magnitude is zero.
Mark scheme: A
Q7 · A spring has an unstretched length of 3.0 cm
7 A spring has an unstretched length of 3.0 cm. When a force of 60 N is applied to the spring, its length increases to 5.0 cm. The limit of proportionality is not exceeded. What is the spring constant of the spring? A 7.5 N / cm B 12 N / cm C 20 N / cm D 30 N / cm
Mark scheme: D
Q8 · The diagram shows the minimum force F1 acting vertically on a lever required to lift a…
8 The diagram shows the minimum force F1 acting vertically on a lever required to lift a heavy log of weight W. lever pivot F1 log W The log needs to be lifted by a smaller force than F1. The diagrams show the changes tried. Each diagram has only one change from the original diagram. In each case, F2 is the minimum force required to lift the log. P Q lever lever F2 pivot pivot F2 log log W increasing the length of the W applying the force lever to the right of the pivot perpendicular to the lever R lever pivot F2 log W increasing the distance from the log to the pivot In which situations will F2 be smaller than F1? A P, Q and R B P and Q only C P only D Q and R only
Mark scheme: B
Q9 · A ball of mass 0.25 kg hits a wall at a speed of 16 m / s
9 A ball of mass 0.25 kg hits a wall at a speed of 16 m / s. It then rebounds back along its original path at a speed of 12 m / s. What is the impulse experienced by the ball during its impact with the wall? A 1.0 N s B 3.0 N s C 4.0 N s D 7.0 N s
Mark scheme: D
Q10 · A bicycle braking system transfers energy from a kinetic energy store to an internal…
10 A bicycle braking system transfers energy from a kinetic energy store to an internal energy store. A motor converts energy from a chemical energy store (battery) to a kinetic energy store. What enables these energy transfers? braking system motor A electrical work mechanical work B electrical work electrical work C mechanical work mechanical work D mechanical work electrical work
Mark scheme: D
Q11 · Research is being carried out to produce electrical energy from the fusion of hydrogen…
11 Research is being carried out to produce electrical energy from the fusion of hydrogen nuclei. Which row shows two of the problems in designing a fusion reactor? temperature why obtaining a high density needed of hydrogen nuclei is difficult A very low the nuclei are negatively charged and repel each other B very low the nuclei are positively charged and repel each other C very high the nuclei are negatively charged and repel each other D very high the nuclei are positively charged and repel each other
Mark scheme: D
Q12 · The engine of a motor vehicle develops a large power
12 The engine of a motor vehicle develops a large power. Which statement is correct? A The driving force acting on the vehicle must be large. B The engine must have a very large volume. C The engine must transfer large amounts of energy each second. D The vehicle must be very fast.
Mark scheme: C
Q13 · The graph shows how the pressure due to a liquid varies with the depth beneath the liquid…
13 The graph shows how the pressure due to a liquid varies with the depth beneath the liquid surface. The gravitational field strength g is 9.8 N / kg. 8000 pressure due to the liquid / Pa 6000 4000 2000 0 0.00 0.10 0.20 0.30 0.40 0.50 0.60 0.70 0.80 depth beneath the liquid surface / m What is the density of the liquid? A 200 kg / m3 B 820 kg / m3 C 2000 kg / m3 D 8200 kg / m3
Mark scheme: B
Q14 · What is the lowest possible temperature (absolute zero) and what happens to the energy of…
14 What is the lowest possible temperature (absolute zero) and what happens to the energy of particles at this temperature? lowest possible particle energy temperature / C A –273 particles have least kinetic energy B –273 particles have zero gravitational potential energy C 0 particles have least kinetic energy D 0 particles have zero gravitational potential energy
Mark scheme: A
Q15 · Which statement about the particles of a substance after condensation is correct?
15 Which statement about the particles of a substance after condensation is correct? A They are close to each other and slide over each other. B They are close to each other and vibrate about fixed points. C They are far apart from each other and vibrate about fixed points. D They are far apart from each other and move freely within the container.
Mark scheme: A
Q16 · Two otherwise identical cars, one black and one white, are at the same initial temperature
16 Two otherwise identical cars, one black and one white, are at the same initial temperature. The cars are left in bright sunshine and their temperatures increase. During the night, their temperatures decrease. Which car shows the greater rate of temperature increase and which car shows the greater rate of temperature decrease? greater rate of greater rate of temperature temperature increase decrease A black black B black white C white black D white white
Mark scheme: A
Q17 · A drop of water from a tap falls onto the surface of some water of constant depth
17 A drop of water from a tap falls onto the surface of some water of constant depth. view from above Water waves spread out on the surface of the water. Which statement is correct? A The waves are longitudinal and travel at the same speed in all directions. B The waves are longitudinal and travel more quickly in one direction than in others. C The waves are transverse and travel at the same speed in all directions. D The waves are transverse and travel more quickly in one direction than in others.
Mark scheme: C
Q18 · Each point F is one focal length from the centre of the lens
18 Each point F is one focal length from the centre of the lens. Each point 2F is two focal lengths from the centre of the lens. Which diagram shows a converging lens being used as a magnifying glass? A B object F 2F object F 2F 2F F image 2F F image C D image at infinity image object F 2F object F 2F 2F F 2F F parallel rays
Mark scheme: D
Q19 · A monochromatic ray of green light in air enters a block of glass
19 A monochromatic ray of green light in air enters a block of glass. Which property of the ray of light always remains the same as it moves from air to glass? A wavelength B speed C frequency D direction
Mark scheme: C
Q20 · A narrow beam of white light passes through a prism and is dispersed into a spectrum
20 A narrow beam of white light passes through a prism and is dispersed into a spectrum. 1 white 2 light 3 Which row is correct? colour 1 colour 2 colour 3 A blue yellow red B red blue yellow C red yellow blue D yellow blue red
Mark scheme: C
Q21 · A student writes four statements matching a communication system to the region of the…
21 A student writes four statements matching a communication system to the region of the electromagnetic spectrum that it uses to transmit signals. Which statement is correct? A Wireless internet uses visible wavelengths. B Mobile phones use X-rays. C Cable television uses infrared wavelengths. D Bluetooth uses ultraviolet wavelengths.
Mark scheme: C
Q22 · A ship sounds its horn when it is 790 m from a cliff
22 A ship sounds its horn when it is 790 m from a cliff. A passenger on the ship hears the echo 4.8 s later. What is the speed of the sound? A 165 m / s B 330 m / s C 340 m / s D 1896 m / s
Mark scheme: B
Q23 · Which row gives the metal used to make the core of an electromagnet and one property of…
23 Which row gives the metal used to make the core of an electromagnet and one property of the electromagnet? metal property A iron permanent magnet B iron temporary magnet C steel permanent magnet D steel temporary magnet
Mark scheme: B
Q24 · A plastic rod and a dry cloth are uncharged
24 A plastic rod and a dry cloth are uncharged. The rod is now rubbed with the cloth and they both become charged. The rod becomes negatively charged because some charged particles move from the cloth to the rod. What is the charge on the cloth and which particles moved in the charging process? charge particles on cloth that moved A negative electrons B negative neutrons C positive electrons D positive neutrons
Mark scheme: C
Q25 · A student does an experiment to investigate the resistance of a metal wire
25 A student does an experiment to investigate the resistance of a metal wire. The graph shows the results from the experiment. resistance 0 0 x What is plotted on the x-axis? A diameter of the wire B length of the wire C temperature of the wire D current in the wire
Mark scheme: A
Q26 · The cost of electrical energy is $0.25 for each unit of 1 kW h
26 The cost of electrical energy is $0.25 for each unit of 1 kW h. A 2200 W heater is switched on for 48 minutes. What is the cost of this use? A $0.44 B $0.55 C $26 D $440
Mark scheme: A
Q27 · The table describes four different resistance wires
27 The table describes four different resistance wires. They are all made from the same metal. Which wire has the smallest resistance? length of diameter of wire / m wire / mm A 2.0 1.0 B 2.0 1.5 C 3.0 1.0 D 3.0 1.5
Mark scheme: B
Q28 · The circuit shown contains three switches and four lamps P, Q, R and S
28 The circuit shown contains three switches and four lamps P, Q, R and S. switch 1 lamp P lamp Q switch 2 lamp R switch 3 lamp S Which switches must be closed to light only lamps P and R? A switch 1 only B switch 1 and switch 2 C switch 1 and switch 3 D switch 2 and switch 3
Mark scheme: A
Q29 · The diagram shows the magnetic field around a solenoid carrying an electric current
29 The diagram shows the magnetic field around a solenoid carrying an electric current. magnetic field What happens to the strength of the magnetic field and the distance between the field lines when the current is increased? strength of distance between magnetic field field lines A decreases decreases B decreases increases C increases decreases D increases increases
Mark scheme: C
Q30 · The diagram shows a wire hanging freely between the poles of a magnet
30 The diagram shows a wire hanging freely between the poles of a magnet. There is a current in the wire in the direction shown. wire S N current The magnet and current cause a force to act on the wire. In which direction does this force act? A into the page (away from you) B out of the page (toward you) C to the left D to the right
Mark scheme: A
Q31 · Which component forms part of a d.c
31 Which component forms part of a d.c. motor but not a simple moving coil a.c. generator? A the coil B the brushes C the magnet D the split-ring commutator
Mark scheme: D
Q32 · A transformer has 5500 turns on the primary coil and 500 turns on the secondary coil
32 A transformer has 5500 turns on the primary coil and 500 turns on the secondary coil. The output of the secondary coil is 110 V a.c. and is connected to a heater. The transformer is 100% efficient. The heater produces a power of 132 W. What is the current in the primary coil? A 0.11 A B 0.12 A C 11 A D 12 A
Mark scheme: A
Q33 · The scattering of alpha-particles from a thin gold foil produces the following…
33 The scattering of alpha-particles from a thin gold foil produces the following observations. ● Most of the alpha-particles pass through the foil. ● Most of the alpha-particles are virtually undeflected. ● A small fraction of the alpha-particles are deflected through large angles. ● A very small fraction of the alpha-particles bounce back from the foil. Which conclusion does not follow from these observations? A Most of the mass of the gold atom is in its nucleus. B Most of the atom is empty space. C The nucleus consists of protons and neutrons. D The nucleus must be charged.
Mark scheme: C
Q34 · A nuclide of chlorine has the symbol shown
34 A nuclide of chlorine has the symbol shown. 35 C l 17 What is the nucleon number of this nuclide of chlorine? A 17 B 18 C 35 D 52
Mark scheme: C
Q35 · Which change is occurring in a nucleus during -emission?
35 Which change is occurring in a nucleus during -emission? A An electron and a neutron become one proton. B An electron and a proton become one neutron. C A neutron becomes one proton and one electron. D A proton becomes one neutron and one electron.
Mark scheme: C
Q36 · The graph shows how the count rate registered by a counter near to a sample of a…
36 The graph shows how the count rate registered by a counter near to a sample of a radioactive isotope changes over a period of a few days. The background count rate is 5 counts per minute. 50 count rate 40 counts / minute 30 20 10 0 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 time / days What is the half-life of the isotope? A 2.0 days B 2.5 days C 3.0 days D 4.0 days
Mark scheme: A
Q37 · Which row about the orbits of the Earth and the Moon is correct?
37 Which row about the orbits of the Earth and the Moon is correct? approximate time approximate time for the Earth for the Moon to orbit the Sun to orbit the Earth A 1 day 30 days B 30 days 1 day C 365 days 1 day D 365 days 30 days
Mark scheme: D
Q38 · Which statement about the orbits of comets is correct?
38 Which statement about the orbits of comets is correct? A Comets have elliptical orbits and the Sun is at the centre of the orbit. B Comets have elliptical orbits and the Sun is not at the centre of the orbit. C Comets have circular orbits and the Sun is at the centre of the orbit. D Comets have circular orbits and the Sun is not at the centre of the orbit.
Mark scheme: B
Q39 · Which row describes the power source for a stable star?
39 Which row describes the power source for a stable star? type of fuel nuclear reaction A fission hydrogen B fission uranium C fusion hydrogen D fusion uranium
Mark scheme: C
Q40 · Which quantity can be determined using the brightness of a supernova in a distant galaxy?
40 Which quantity can be determined using the brightness of a supernova in a distant galaxy? A the speed at which the galaxy is moving away from the Earth B the distance of the galaxy from the Earth C the Hubble constant D the age of the Universe
Mark scheme: B
What was in this paper
The subtopics covered by these 40 questions, and how many questions each got. Open one in a new tab to see every Cambridge question on it.
4Electrical quantities3Electromagnetic effects3Light3Simple phenomena of magnetism3The nuclear model of the atom3Energy, work and power2Mass and weight2Motion2Radioactivity2Stars and the Universe2The Earth and the Solar System2Electric circuits1Electromagnetic spectrum1General properties of waves1Kinetic particle model of matter1Momentum1Pressure1Sound1Thermal properties and temperature1Transfer of thermal energy1What you needed in this session
Cambridge’s own grade thresholds for 2023 May/June, Paper 2 · Variant 3. A higher threshold means an easier paper — the bar moves with how the cohort did.