Cambridge A Level Physics 9702 — 2024 Oct/Nov Paper 1 · Variant 1
9702/11/O/N/24 · 40 questions · 40 marks · ≈45 min
The question paper and its mark scheme, free to read here and free to download. This is Cambridge’s own paper, exactly as it was sat.
Question paper16 pages
















Mark scheme3 pages
Answers below. Sit the paper first if you are practising.



Questions as text
Q1 · What are the SI base units for the moment of a force?
1 What are the SI base units for the moment of a force? A kg m–1 s2 B kg s–2 C kg m s–2 D kg m2 s–2
Mark scheme: D
Q2 · Which statement about vector quantities is correct?
2 Which statement about vector quantities is correct? A Acceleration of free fall is a vector quantity because it has a constant magnitude. B Temperature in C is a vector quantity because it can be positive or negative. C Time is a vector quantity because it can only go in the forwards direction. D Weight is a vector quantity because it has a direction.
Mark scheme: D
Q3 · The density of the material of a rectangular block is determined by measuring the mass…
3 The density of the material of a rectangular block is determined by measuring the mass and linear dimensions of the block. The list shows the results obtained, together with their uncertainties. mass = (25.0 0.1) g length = (5.00 0.01) cm width = (2.00 0.01) cm height = (1.00 0.01) cm The density is calculated to be 2.50 g cm–3. What is the uncertainty in this result? A 0.01 g cm–3 B 0.02 g cm–3 C 0.05 g cm–3 D 0.13 g cm–3
Mark scheme: C
Q4 · What is a reasonable estimate of the volume of one page from this examination paper?
4 What is a reasonable estimate of the volume of one page from this examination paper? A 60 mm3 B 600 mm3 C 6000 mm3 D 60 000 mm3
Mark scheme: C
Q5 · An object is projected from horizontal ground at a velocity of magnitude u and angle @ to…
5 An object is projected from horizontal ground at a velocity of magnitude u and angle @ to the horizontal. It hits the ground at a time ¢ after it is projected. Assume air resistance is negligible. Uu Which statement does not describe the motion of this object? A B The horizontal component of the object’s velocity is constant and has the value ucos@. The horizontal distance travelled by the object is tucos@. The time taken for the object to reach maximum height is - ; The vertical component of the object’s velocity is constant and has the value usind.
Mark scheme: D
Q6 · A person, travelling on a motorway a total distance of 200 km, travels the first 90 km at…
6 A person, travelling on a motorway a total distance of 200 km, travels the first 90 km at an average speed of 80 km h–1. Which average speed must be obtained for the rest of the journey if the person is to reach the destination in a total time of 2 hours 0 minutes? A 110 km h–1 B 120 km h–1 C 122 km h–1 D 126 km h–1
Mark scheme: D
Q7 · A car of mass 1200 kg has momentum 18 000 kg m s–1
7 A car of mass 1200 kg has momentum 18 000 kg m s–1. What is the kinetic energy of the car? A 4.65 kJ B 6.57 kJ C 135 kJ D 270 kJ
Mark scheme: C
Q8 · A ladder is positioned on icy (frictionless) ground and is leant against a rough wall
8 A ladder is positioned on icy (frictionless) ground and is leant against a rough wall. At the instant of release it begins to slide. Which diagram shows the directions of the forces P, W and R acting on the ladder as it slides? A B P P ladder ladder wall wall R R W W ground ground C D P P ladder ladder wall wall R R W W ground ground
Mark scheme: B
Q9 · A toy parachute is dropped from a bridge and falls vertically through the air
9 A toy parachute is dropped from a bridge and falls vertically through the air. The graph shows the distance travelled by the parachute against time. Which region of the graph shows when the parachute is at terminal velocity? 9 C C D D distance 8 travelled 7 / m 6 B 5 4 3 2 1 A 0 0 0.5 1 1.5 2 2.5 3 time / s
Mark scheme: B
Q10 · A lift (elevator) consists of a passenger car supported by a cable that runs over a…
10 A lift (elevator) consists of a passenger car supported by a cable that runs over a light, frictionless pulley to a counterbalance. The counterbalance falls as the passenger car rises. pulley not to scale counterbalance passenger car Some masses are shown in the table. mass / kg passenger car 520 counterbalance 640 passenger 80 What is the magnitude of the acceleration of the car when carrying just one passenger and when the pulley is free to rotate? A 0.032 m s–2 B 0.32 m s–2 C 0.61 m s–2 D 0.65 m s–2
Mark scheme: B
Q11 · A stationary ball of mass m is hit by a bat
11 A stationary ball of mass m is hit by a bat. The ball leaves the bat with velocity v. The bat is in contact with the ball for a short time t. What is the average force of the bat on the ball? mv 1 mv 2 A mvt B C 1 mv 2 t D 2 t 2 t
Mark scheme: B
Q12 · A disc of mass M is moving across a horizontal frictionless surface with constant…
12 A disc of mass M is moving across a horizontal frictionless surface with constant velocity u. It collides with a stationary disc of mass 4M. The diagram shows the view from above of the motion collision. before collision What is the initial velocity u of the disc of mass M? A 1.1ms7 B 1.4ms" C 3.5ms" of the two discs before and after the after collision
Mark scheme: D
Q13 · An object is dropped from rest on the Earth from a height of 2.0 m
13 An object is dropped from rest on the Earth from a height of 2.0 m. The same object is dropped from rest on the Moon from twice the height. The acceleration of free fall on the Moon is approximately 16% of the value on the Earth. Assume that there are no resistive forces acting on the object. speed of the object just before hitting the surface on the Earth What is the ratio ? speed of the object just before hitting the surface on the Moon A 1.8 B 2.5 C 3.1 D 3.5
Mark scheme: A
Q14 · The graph shows how velocity v varies with time t for a bungee jumper
14 The graph shows how velocity v varies with time t for a bungee jumper. Q v P R 0 0 t At which point is the bungee jumper momentarily at rest and at which point does she have zero acceleration? jumper with zero jumper at rest acceleration A Q P B Q R C R Q D R R
Mark scheme: C
Q15 · A solid sphere, which is less dense than water, is held completely immersed in water a…
15 A solid sphere, which is less dense than water, is held completely immersed in water a few metres below the surface. The density of the water is uniform. The sphere is released. Immediately after release, the sphere rises. Which row describes the changes in the magnitudes of the upthrust on the sphere and the resultant force on the sphere as it rises? upthrust on resultant force the sphere on the sphere A constant decreasing B constant increasing C decreasing decreasing D decreasing increasing
Mark scheme: A
Q16 · A uniform bar of weight 200N and length 4.0m is freely hinged on a wall at one end
16 A uniform bar of weight 200N and length 4.0m is freely hinged on a wall at one end. The bar is horizontal and is held in equilibrium by a cable attached at a distance of 0.50m from the other end. The cable is at an angle of 35° to the horizontal. wall '(0.50m _—$ @ i —_—\—o@°$ >——_— What is the tension T in the cable? A 140N B 170N C 200N D 400N
Mark scheme: C
Q17 · The diagrams all show a pair of equal forces acting on a metre rule
17 The diagrams all show a pair of equal forces acting on a metre rule. Which diagram shows forces that provide a couple and zero resultant force? A B C D
Mark scheme: B
Q18 · A ball of mass m is thrown up to height h in air with an initial velocity v, as shown
18 A ball of mass m is thrown up to height h in air with an initial velocity v, as shown. v h P Q Air resistance is negligible. The acceleration of free fall is g. What is the total work done by the gravitational force on the ball during its flight from P to Q? A zero B 1 mv 2 C mgh D 2mgh 2
Mark scheme: A
Q19 · A spring of spring constant 30 N m–1 is suspended vertically from its top
19 A spring of spring constant 30 N m–1 is suspended vertically from its top. The spring obeys Hooke’s law. Initially the spring is not compressed and not stretched. A mass of 0.50 kg is attached to the bottom of the spring. The mass is released from rest and falls. Frictional effects are negligible. In the motion that follows, what is the maximum extension of the spring? A 0.017 m B 0.033 m C 0.16 m D 0.33 m
Mark scheme: D
More questions on Gravitational potential energy and kinetic energy
Q20 · A wire has original length L and cross-sectional area A
20 A wire has original length L and cross-sectional area A. A tensile force F is applied to the wire which causes it to have extension x. The wire obeys Hooke’s law. What is an expression for the Young modulus of the material from which the wire is made? stress x F F x strain A B C D stress L A strain A L
Mark scheme: B
Q21 · A wire is stretched by a gradually increasing force
21 A wire is stretched by a gradually increasing force. The force–extension graph for the wire is shown. S R force Q P 0 0 extension Which statement must be correct? A Point Q is the elastic limit. B Point R is the limit of proportionality. C The area under the graph from P to S is the elastic potential energy stored in the wire. D The area under the graph from P to S is the work done in stretching the wire.
Mark scheme: D
Q22 · A spring has an unstretched length of 0.30 m and a spring constant of 400 N m−1
22 A spring has an unstretched length of 0.30 m and a spring constant of 400 N m−1. An object is suspended from the spring and the spring is deformed within its limit of proportionality. The new length of the spring is 0.50 m. What is the elastic potential energy stored in the spring? A 8.0 J B 16 J C 40 J D 50 J
Mark scheme: A
Q23 · A wire consists of a 3.0 m length of metal X joined to a 1.0 m length of metal Y
23 A wire consists of a 3.0 m length of metal X joined to a 1.0 m length of metal Y. The cross-sectional area of the wire is uniform. X 3.0 m Y 1.0 m load A load hung from the wire causes metal X to extend by 1.5 mm and metal Y to extend by 1.0 mm. The same load is then hung from a second wire of the same cross-sectional area, consisting of a 1.0 m length of metal X and a 3.0 m length of metal Y. Both wires are extended within their limit of proportionality. What is the total extension of this second wire? A 2.5 mm B 3.5 mm C 4.8 mm D 5.0 mm
Mark scheme: B
Q24 · The graph shows the variation of the displacement with distance for a progressive wave at…
24 The graph shows the variation of the displacement with distance for a progressive wave at one instant in time. displacement 0 0 1.0 2.0 3.0 4.0 5.0 6.0 distance / cm The period of the wave is 91 ms. What can be determined about the wave? A It has a velocity of 0.44 m s–1 and a frequency of 11 Hz. B It has a velocity of 0.55 m s–1 and a wavelength of 5.0 cm. C It is longitudinal and has a frequency of 11 Hz. D It is transverse and has a wavelength of 4.0 cm.
Mark scheme: A
Q25 · Which group of electromagnetic waves is arranged in order from shortest wavelength to…
25 Which group of electromagnetic waves is arranged in order from shortest wavelength to longest wavelength? A radio waves visible light gamma rays B visible light microwaves infrared C visible light ultraviolet X-rays D X-rays infrared microwaves
Mark scheme: D
Q26 · A wave has a frequency of 5 GHz
26 A wave has a frequency of 5 GHz. What is the period of the wave? A 200 ps B 2 ns C 20 ns D 20 000 s
Mark scheme: A
Q27 · Three statements about two progressive waves are listed
27 Three statements about two progressive waves are listed. 1 The waves have the same frequency. 2 The waves have the same amplitude. 3 The waves are emitted with a constant phase difference. Which statements must be correct for the two waves to be coherent? A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only
Mark scheme: C
Q28 · Waves P and Q have the same amplitude
28 Waves P and Q have the same amplitude. The waves meet in phase at point X and interfere to give a resultant wave with intensity I. The amplitude of wave P is doubled. What is the new intensity of the resultant wave at X, in terms of I ? A 0.44I B 1.5I C 2.3I D 3.0I
Mark scheme: C
Q29 · Radio waves can be polarised, but sound waves cannot be polarised
29 Radio waves can be polarised, but sound waves cannot be polarised. Which statement gives the reason for this? A Radio waves are generally of a higher frequency than sound waves. B Radio waves are transverse waves, but sound waves are longitudinal waves. C Radio waves can travel through a vacuum, but sound waves cannot travel through a vacuum. D Radio waves travel at a much higher speed than sound waves.
Mark scheme: B
Q30 · Light of wavelength is incident normally on a diffraction grating with a total number…
30 Light of wavelength is incident normally on a diffraction grating with a total number of N lines in width w. A second order maximum is observed at an angle of diffraction . What is N ? w 2w w sin w sin A B C D sin sin 2
Mark scheme: C
Q31 · Kirchhoff’s second law is a consequence of a basic principle
31 Kirchhoff’s second law is a consequence of a basic principle. What is this principle? A The charge flowing in an electric circuit is conserved. B The energy in an electric circuit is conserved. C The sum of the electric currents entering a point in an electric circuit is equal to the sum of the electric currents leaving that point. D The sum of the potential differences in an electric circuit is equal to the sum of the products of the current and resistance.
Mark scheme: B
Q32 · The diagram shows a circuit with a light-dependent resistor (LDR)
32 The diagram shows a circuit with a light-dependent resistor (LDR). 6.0kQ The ammeter reads zero current. What is the resistance of the LDR? A 6.0kQ B 18kQ C 26kQ D 30kQ
Mark scheme: B
Q33 · A torch uses three lamps connected in parallel and is powered by a cell of electromotive…
33 A torch uses three lamps connected in parallel and is powered by a cell of electromotive force (e.m.f.) 3.0 V and negligible internal resistance. Each lamp dissipates 0.60 W of power. What is the current in the cell? A 0.067 A B 0.20 A C 0.60 A D 0.83 A
Mark scheme: C
Q34 · A cell with internal resistance is connected to a light-dependent resistor (LDR), a fixed…
34 A cell with internal resistance is connected to a light-dependent resistor (LDR), a fixed resistor and a voltmeter, as shown. V The voltmeter reading increases. Which quantity decreases as the voltmeter reading increases? A the charge moving through the cell per unit time B the energy transferred to the fixed resistor per unit charge C the intensity of the light incident on the LDR D the terminal potential difference across the cell
Mark scheme: D
Q35 · The circuit shown contains a cell with negligible internal resistance
35 The circuit shown contains a cell with negligible internal resistance. X The energy transferred per unit charge in driving charge around the complete circuit is E. The potential difference (p.d.) across X is V. The cell is then replaced with a different cell of the same electromotive force (e.m.f.) that has significant internal resistance. What is the effect on E and V of replacing the cell? effect on E effect on V A decreases decreases B decreases increases C no change decreases D no change increases
Mark scheme: C
Q36 · In the circuits shown, the batteries are identical and all have negligible internal…
36 In the circuits shown, the batteries are identical and all have negligible internal resistance. All of the resistors have the same resistance. The diodes have zero resistance when conducting and infinite resistance when not conducting. In which circuit is the current in the battery greatest? A B C D
Mark scheme: A
Q37 · A potentiometer circuit is used to determine the electromotive force (e.m.f.) E of a cell
37 A potentiometer circuit is used to determine the electromotive force (e.m.f.) E of a cell. The circuit includes a second cell of e.m.f. 1.5 V and internal resistance 0.50 that is connected to a uniform resistance wire XY, as shown. poo oe bee e ee s uniform resistance wire length 0.96m resistance 0.50Q E The resistance wire XY has a length of 0.96 m and a resistance of 0.500. The movable connection Z is moved along wire XY. The galvanometer reading is zero when length XZ is 0.64m. What is the value of e.m.f. E? A 0.50V B 0.75V C 1.0V D 1.1V
Mark scheme: A
Q38 · Which particle is not a fundamental particle?
38 Which particle is not a fundamental particle? A charm quark B electron C neutrino D neutron
Mark scheme: D
Q39 · The isotope fluorine-18, 18 F, undergoes + decay to form a stable isotope
39 The isotope fluorine-18, 18 F, undergoes + decay to form a stable isotope. 9 How many neutrons are there in a nucleus of the stable isotope? A 7 B 8 C 9 D 10
Mark scheme: D
Q40 · Which statement is correct?
40 Which statement is correct? A A baryon is a hadron and consists of 2 quarks. B A meson is a hadron and consists of 3 quarks. C An electron is a fundamental particle and is a lepton. D A neutrino is a fundamental particle and is a hadron.
Mark scheme: C
What was in this paper
The subtopics covered by these 40 questions, and how many questions each got. Open one in a new tab to see every Cambridge question on it.
4Linear momentum and its conservation3Practical circuits3Fundamental particles2Interference2Potential dividers2Progressive waves2Stress and strain2Turning effects of forces2Density and pressure1Elastic and plastic behaviour1Electromagnetic spectrum1Energy conservation1Energy stored in a capacitor1Equilibrium of forces1Errors and uncertainties1Gravitational potential energy and kinetic energy1Kirchhoff’s laws1Momentum and Newton’s laws of motion1Non-uniform motion1Physical quantities1Polarisation1Potential difference and power1Radioactive decay1Scalars and vectors1SI units1The diffraction grating1What you needed in this session
Cambridge’s own grade thresholds for 2024 Oct/Nov, Paper 1 · Variant 1. A higher threshold means an easier paper — the bar moves with how the cohort did.