Cambridge A Level Physical Education 9396 — 2023 Oct/Nov Paper 3 · Variant 2

9396/32/O/N/23 · 3 questions · 90 marks · ≈101 min

The question paper and its mark scheme, free to read here and free to download. This is Cambridge’s own paper, exactly as it was sat.

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Question paper4 pages

Cambridge A Level Physical Education 9396 2023 Oct/Nov Paper 3 · Variant 2 question paper, page 1 of 4
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Cambridge A Level Physical Education 9396 2023 Oct/Nov Paper 3 · Variant 2 question paper, page 2 of 4
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Cambridge A Level Physical Education 9396 2023 Oct/Nov Paper 3 · Variant 2 question paper, page 4 of 4
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Questions as text

Q1 · Describe each of the following stages of the aerobic system: • aerobic glycolysis •…

1 (a) Describe each of the following stages of the aerobic system: • aerobic glycolysis • electron transport chain. [6] (b) Describe the lactacid debt component of the recovery process. [4] (c) The energy system used is dependent on the intensity and the duration of an activity. Identify three other factors that determine the energy system used. [3] (d) Describe physiological benefits of a warm up. [4] (e) Describe differences between continuous running and fartlek training as types of training. [4] (f) Outline a sporting example of each of the following: • static flexibility • dynamic flexibility. [2] (g) Describe a named test to measure agility. [4] (h) Some athletes take human growth hormone to improve their strength through muscular hypertrophy. For the use of human growth hormone: (i) describe two other positive physiological effects [2] (ii) describe one negative effect on the long‑term health of an athlete. [1] [Total: 30]

Mark scheme: Question Answer Marks 1(a) 6 marks for 6 of: 6 (aerobic glycolysis sub-max. 4 marks) 1 glycogen is converted / broken down to glucose; 2 glucose is broken down into pyruvic acid / pyruvate; 3 in the sarcoplasm; 4 (yield) (net) 2 ATP (per molecule of glucose); 5 (enzyme) glycogen phosphorylase / GP / GPP / phosphofructokinase / PFK; 6 (as oxygen is sufficient) no lactic acid is formed; 7 (pyruvate) goes through link reaction OR catalysed by coenzyme A; 8 (pyruvate) becomes acetyl coenzyme A / acetyl CoA; (electron transport chain sub-max. 4 marks) 9 hydrogen atoms; 10 (hydrogen atoms) are carried by hydrogen carriers / hydrogen acceptors; 11 e.g. by NAD (NADH) / FAD (FADH2); 12 in the cristae of the mitochondria; 13 hydrogen is split into a proton / H+ AND an electron / H– / hydride; 14 (yield) 30–38 ATP / large amounts of ATP; 15 (hydrogen) combines with oxygen to produce H2O; 1(b) 4 marks for any 4 of: 4 1 slow component; 2 removal of lactic acid; 3 conversion (of lactic acid) to pyruvate OR to H2O AND CO2; 4 conversion (of lactic acid) to glycogen / glucose / protein / sweat / urine; 5 (removal of lactic acid) takes 30 minutes to 2 hours; 6 elevated circulatory / respiratory rate OR uses aerobic system; 7 uses 5–8 litres of oxygen; 8 replenishment of glycogen stores; 9 (glycogen restoration) takes up to 48 hours; 1(c) 3 marks for any 3 of: 3 1 level of fitness; 2 oxygen availability; 3 chemical / food fuel availability; 4 enzyme availability / enzyme control; 5 OBLA / lactic acid; 1(d) 4 marks for any 4 of: 4 1 reduces risk of injury / DOMS; 2 increases flexibility / elasticity of muscle / connective tissue; 3 increases heart rate / stroke volume / cardiac output; 4 increases breathing rate / tidal volume / minute ventilation; 5 increases / redirects flow of blood / oxygen to (working) muscles; 6 activates vascular shunt OR dilates blood vessels to (working) muscles; 7 improves rate of dissociation of oxygen from haemoglobin / to myoglobin; 8 increases enzyme activity; 9 increases speed of nerve impulses OR improves reaction time OR faster muscle contractions; 10 reduces EPOC / oxygen debt; 11 facilitates release of more synovial fluid into joints; 1(e) 4 marks for any 4 of: 4 continuous running fartlek training 1 constant speed / pace OR jogging varied speeds / pace OR jogging AND sprinting; 2 (usually) level ground different gradients; 3 (usually) consistent surface different terrains; 4 constant intensity varied intensities; 5 heart rate constant / 60–80% of max. heart rate heart rate varies more than continuous running; 6 trains aerobic system only OR aerobic benefits only trains aerobic AND anaerobic systems OR aerobic AND anaerobic benefits; 1(f) 2 marks for: 2 1 (static example), e.g. holding splits in gymnastics; 2 (dynamic example), e.g. overhead kick in football; Accept any suitable sporting examples for each. 1(g) 1 mark for: 4 1 (name) Illinois agility test; 3 marks for 3 of: 2 (set up) 10 metres  5 metres space; 3 (set up) diagram showing positions of cones / cones 3.3 metres apart; 4 (protocol) performer lies face down / in press-up position (with head level with the start line); 5 (protocol) performer sprints around cones OR runs as fast as possible around cones; 6 (measure) performance is timed / best of 3 attempts recorded; 7 (evaluation) result is compared to normative data; Accept other suitable tests. 1(h)(i) 2 marks for any 2 of: 2 1 increase in bone density / bone strength; 2 increase in metabolism OR reduces body fat OR weight loss; 3 able to train / perform at higher intensity; 4 faster recovery (after training) OR faster tissue repair; Accept other descriptions of positive physiological effects. 1(h)(ii) 1 mark for 1 of: 1 1 abnormal growth of bone / muscle / vital organs / hands / feet / face / acromegaly; 2 carpal tunnel syndrome / nerve / muscle / joint pain; 3 high blood pressure / high cholesterol / heart disease; 4 risk of cancers; 5 diabetes; 6 liver damage; 7 reduced production of natural human growth hormone; 8 decrease in size of pituitary gland; 9 enlarged breasts in men; Accept other relevant negative effect on long-term health.

Q2 · Describe three differences between the characteristics of extroversion and the…

2 (a) Describe three differences between the characteristics of extroversion and the characteristics of introversion. [3] (b) (i) Describe possible influences on the formation of a negative attitude to physical activity. [4] (ii) Explain the use of cognitive dissonance to change a negative attitude to a positive attitude. [4] (c) Suggest benefits for a team of an emergent leader being chosen by the group. [3] (d) One of the SMARTER principles of goal setting is that goals must be realistic. Describe, using practical examples for each, four other SMARTER principles of goal setting. [4] (e) (i) Describe the causes and effects of evaluation apprehension. [5] (ii) State two cognitive techniques that a performer could use to reduce the negative effects of evaluation apprehension. [2] (f) Using examples from a team game of your choice, suggest different reasons a performer may give for aggressive behaviour during a game. [5] [Total: 30] Section C: Olympic Games: a global perspective

Mark scheme: 2(a) 3 marks for any 3 of: 3 extroversion introversion 1 sociable / outgoing / talkative solitary / reserved / quiet; 2 active / optimistic passive / pessimistic; 3 tend to perform better with high arousal tend to perform better with low arousal; 4 prefer team activities prefer individual activities; 5 tend to prefer gross skills tend to prefer fine skills; 6 extroverts cope better in competitive situations; 7 extroverts cope better with distractions; 8 extroverts cope with pain more easily; 9 extroverts tend to be more energised by a crowd; Accept reverse arguments for points 6 to 9. 2(b)(i) 4 marks for any 4 of: 4 1 negative / unpleasant experience of the activity; 2 family / friends / peers / race / culture have a negative attitude to physical activity OR socialisation against an activity; 3 role models with a negative attitude; 4 (description of a constraint due to) age / gender / size; 5 perceived low ability / low self-confidence / negative self-concept / learned helplessness; 6 fear of failure / high naf / low nach; 7 fear of the danger of the activity; 8 previous criticism of ability; Accept other suitable negative influences. 2(b)(ii) 4 marks for any 4 of: 4 1 create conflict between components; 2 change one element of the triadic model; 3 change cognitive component OR show that fitness training is good for you / can improve health / sport performance OR reduce the importance of the cognition; 4 change affective / emotional component OR make fitness training fun / enjoyable; 5 change behavioural component OR ensure success is experienced OR punish negative attitude to fitness work OR insist on / reward positive attitude to training; 6 natural response is to reduce conflict between components / need for consonance; 2(c) 3 marks for any 3 of: 3 1 leader has the support of the group OR the group values the qualities of the leader; 2 leader knows the strengths / weaknesses of individuals / the group; 3 leader understands the personality / needs of each member of the group; 4 leader shares the aims / goals of the group; 5 leader understands the history / ethos / norms of the team / club; 6 group may be more motivated; 7 decision making may be quicker; 8 better group cohesion; 9 raises aspirations of group members who may want to become leader in the future; 2(d) 4 marks for any 4 of: 4 1 goal must be specific (to the performer / sport / event / position / fitness component) AND e.g. basketball player wants to improve leg power to jump higher / rebound better; 2 goal must be measurable AND e.g. weightlifter wants to increase their bench press 1 RM to 100 kilograms; 3 goal must be agreed (between performer and coach) OR accepted (by the performer) AND e.g. footballer agrees to take at least 5 shots per match; 4 goal must be achievable / attainable AND e.g. sprinter with PB of 11.5 seconds aims to reduce this by 0.2 seconds; 5 goal must be time-phased / time-bound AND e.g. rugby player aims to score 5 tries in the first six weeks of the season; 6 goal must be exciting / enjoyable (to maintain motivation) AND e.g. aim to achieve qualifying time for national swimming championships; 7 goal must be recorded AND e.g. performer keeps a log to monitor progress / show commitment to the goal OR reviewed AND e.g. performer / coach reviews the progress made towards the goal; 2(e)(i) 5 marks for 5 of: 5 (causes sub-max. 3 marks) 1 presence of an audience; 2 anxiety / increased arousal (experienced by a performer); 3 a perception / perceived fear; 4 (that) people / audience are judging the performance; 5 dependent on who is in the audience OR it is not just the presence of an audience (that affects); 6 proximity of audience (to performer); (effects sub-max. 3 marks) 7 social inhibition / overarousal / impairs performance; 8 social facilitation / enhances performance; 9 increased likelihood of dominant response; 10 highly skilled / extrovert / need to achieve / autonomous performers may perform better; 11 novices / beginners / introvert / need to avoid failure / cognitive performers may perform worse; 2(e)(ii) 2 marks for any 2 of: 2 1 selective attention / focus (on relevant cues); 2 mental rehearsal; 3 imagery / visualisation; 4 positive self-talk; 5 thought stopping; 6 rational / positive thinking; 2(f) 5 marks for any 5 of: 5 Max. 3 marks if no examples from a team game used. Max. 4 marks if only one example from a team game used. 1 win-at-all-costs attitude, e.g. tripping an opponent in football to stop them scoring; 2 nature of game / contact sport / (aggressive) cues present, e.g. in football shoulder charging is allowed; 3 frustration / poor performance / losing, e.g. footballer keeps getting tackled; 4 poor refereeing decisions / fouls by opponent not penalised, e.g. defender in football makes a reckless tackle; 5 previous experience / scores to settle from past encounter, e.g. last time we played them at football there was a brawl; 6 verbal / physical abuse from opponent / gamesmanship / retaliation, e.g. opponent makes personal comments to a footballer; 7 hostile crowd / proximity of crowd, e.g. football crowd mocking a player; 8 rivalry / local derby, e.g. Liverpool v Manchester United; 9 very high arousal levels / overarousal, e.g. psyched up by team mates before rugby match; 10 importance of event, e.g. top two teams in football league; 11 pressure from significant others / copying role models / social learning, e.g. coach encourages / reinforces aggression / assertiveness from players in football; 12 emotional / off-the-pitch issues, e.g. footballer’s close family member is ill; 13 instinct / innate / genetic / trait, e.g. footballer has a predisposition to be aggressive; 14 use of drugs, e.g. use of steroids increases aggression in a rugby player;

Q3 · One role of the International Olympic Committee (IOC) is to lead the fight against doping…

3 (a) One role of the International Olympic Committee (IOC) is to lead the fight against doping in sport. The ‘Big Drug Bust’ is an example of a doping scandal at the Olympic Games. (i) Identify the year and the host city of the ‘Big Drug Bust’. [2] (ii) Describe how the International Olympic Committee (IOC) leads the fight against doping in sport. [4] (b) American athletes Tommie Smith and John Carlos made a political statement at the 1968 Mexico Olympic Games. Describe this political statement. [4] (c) Explain why many African countries boycotted the 1976 Montreal Olympic Games. [4] (d) State three different forms of funding that may be available to performers hoping to compete at the Olympic Games. [3] (e) Describe the benefits and potential problems of hosting the Olympic Games. [7] (f) Suggest why participation in the early modern Olympic Games was more likely to be possible for the upper class than for the working class. [3] (g) Suggest ways that the medal ceremonies at the Olympic Games could be revised to reduce the emphasis on national prestige. [3] [Total: 30]

Mark scheme: 3(a)(i) 2 marks for: 2 1 1988; 2 Seoul; 3(a)(ii) 4 marks for any 4 of: 4 1 WADA / world anti-doping agency set up by IOC OR International Testing Agency (ITA) set up by IOC; 2 drug testing; 3 (IOC) provide (some) funding for WADA / ITA; 4 produce anti-doping code / anti-doping rules; 5 educate on the dangers of doping / doping control process; 6 ensure compliance of anti-doping code by every country; 7 apply sanctions / punishments against offenders / countries; 8 support / protect ‘clean’ athletes; 9 develop partnerships with (international) sports governing bodies / National Anti-doping Organisations (NADOs) / law enforcement agencies; 10 monitor new technologies; 11 produce needle policy; 12 reanalysis programme OR ensure that tests from previous Olympics are reviewed; 13 liaise with CAS / Court of Arbitration for Sport; 14 medical and scientific commission; 3(b) 4 marks for any 4 of: 4 1 black power salute / (clenched) fist; 2 protest against racial discrimination / supporting human rights; 3 on victory podium OR during medal ceremony OR during national anthem; 4 after 200-metre sprint final; 5 wore black glove; 6 also took off shoes (before mounting podium); 7 wore black socks OR badges (supporting human rights) OR Smith wore black scarf; 8 supported by Peter Norman / other athlete on podium; 3(c) 4 marks for any 4 of: 4 1 protest against New Zealand / IOC; 2 protest against apartheid in South Africa; 3 (boycott) led by Tanzania; 4 New Zealand rugby team toured South Africa; 5 African nations wanted New Zealand to be banned from Olympic Games; 6 IOC allowed New Zealand to participate OR refused to ban New Zealand; 3(d) 3 marks for any 3 of: 3 1 central / lottery / governmental funding; 2 sponsorship / endorsements; 3 appearance money / media work; 4 prize money; 5 grants; 6 scholarships; 7 bursaries; 8 parental support; 9 part-time employment / self-funded; 10 employed by military / state; 11 professional contracts; Accept other suitable examples. 3(e) 7 marks for 7 of: 7 (benefits sub-max. 5 marks) 1 increase in tourism; 2 improved transport infrastructure; 3 employment opportunities; 4 availability of sporting facilities after Olympic Games; 5 use of Olympic Village as new housing; 6 urban regeneration; 7 profits from TV networks; 8 revenue from facilities as training sites; 9 national pride / feel-good factor; 10 shop-window effect / promotion of country; 11 positive legacy / increase in participation; (potential problems sub-max. 5 marks) 12 high financial costs / debt / spiral of extravagance; 13 travel restrictions / increased security checks; 14 traffic congestion; 15 increased taxes; 16 increased pollution; 17 relocation of population; 18 white elephants OR stadia not used after Games; 19 increased risk of diseases (entering country); 20 increased chance of terrorism / crime; 21 money taken from other areas (e.g. health / education); 22 negative media profile (if things go wrong); Accept other suitable descriptions of benefits or potential problems. 3(f) 3 marks for any 3 of: 3 1 Olympic Games were for amateurs only OR strict amateur code enforced; 2 influence / beliefs of Pierre de Coubertin / IOC; 3 gentleman amateur was (traditionally) a social class / upper class distinction OR belief that working class had no concept of Olympic values / fair play / sportsmanship; 4 upper class had the time to compete at Olympic Games; 5 upper class able to afford costs involved in travelling to / living expenses at Olympic Games; 6 belief that working class had an unfair advantage (due to greater fitness from physical occupation); Accept reverse arguments for point 4 and 5, e.g. working class did not have the time to compete. 3(g) 3 marks for any 3 of: 3 1 remove national uniforms / track suits; 2 remove national flags OR use Olympic flag; 3 remove national anthems OR use Olympic anthem; 4 remove / discourage use of medal counts / tables; 5 athletes compete as individuals, (not as part of national team); Accept other valid suggestions.

What you needed in this session

Cambridge’s own grade thresholds for 2023 Oct/Nov, Paper 3 · Variant 2. A higher threshold means an easier paper — the bar moves with how the cohort did.

A62/90
B54/90
C46/90
D38/90
E30/90