Cambridge A Level Physical Education 9396 — 2021 May/June Paper 3 · Variant 2

9396/32/M/J/21 · 3 questions · 90 marks · ≈101 min

The question paper and its mark scheme, free to read here and free to download. This is Cambridge’s own paper, exactly as it was sat.

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Question paper4 pages

Cambridge A Level Physical Education 9396 2021 May/June Paper 3 · Variant 2 question paper, page 1 of 4
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Mark scheme13 pages

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Questions as text

Q1 · Describe the lactic acid system

1 (a) Describe the lactic acid system. [5] (b) During physical activity the body will use different energy systems depending on the duration and intensity of the activity. Explain, using a practical example, why the predominant energy system changes from the ATP/PC system to the lactic acid system. [3] (c) Describe the processes that take place in the body during recovery after exercise. [5] (d) Explain the following principles of training using an example of each from a fitness-training programme: • overload • variance. [4] (e) (i) Define the terms maximum strength and explosive strength. [2] (ii) Describe the use of plyometrics to develop explosive strength. [4] (f) Identify a recognised test to evaluate each of the following fitness components: • balance • agility • body composition. [3] (g) Describe the physiological effects of human growth hormone on a performer. [4] [Total: 30]

Mark scheme: 1(a) 5 marks for any 5 of: 1 anaerobic / glycolysis / absence of oxygen; 2 breakdown of carbohydrate / glycogen / glucose; 3 carbohydrate / glycogen / glucose to pyruvic acid / pyruvate; 4 pyruvate / pyruvic acid to lactic acid / lactate; 5 in sarcoplasm; 6 2 ATP produced (per molecule of glucose); 7 (one named enzyme) GP / GPP / glycogen phosphorylase / PFK / phosphofructokinase / LDH / lactate dehydrogenase; 1(b) 1 mark for: 1 high-intensity activity lasting more than 8 seconds OR e.g. sprinting for more than 8 seconds / 80 metres; 2 marks for any 2 of: 2 PC / phosphocreatine levels drop; 3 increase in ADP; 4 increase in calcium; 5 activation of PFK / phosphofructokinase; 3 1(c) 5 marks for any 5 of: 1 EPOC / excess post-exercise oxygen consumption / oxygen debt; 2 more oxygen taken in for aerobic energy; 3 higher ventilation / circulation (than at rest); 4 higher temperature / sweating / perspiration; 5 fast / alactacid (debt) component; 6 (which takes) 2–3 minutes for full recovery OR 50% in 30 seconds OR uses up to 4 litres of oxygen; 7 restoration of ATP / PC / phosphagen; 8 replenishment of myoglobin with oxygen OR restoration of oxymyoglobin link; 9 slow / lactacid (debt) component; 10 (which takes about) 1–2 hours OR 50% in 15 minutes; 11 removal of lactic acid / CO2; 12 replenishment of glycogen stores; 5 Question Answer Marks 1(d) 4 marks for: 1 (overload) putting more stress on the body / work harder than normal / increasing the amount of work done (to cause an adaptation); 2 (example) lifting more / heavier weights OR training for longer OR more times per week; 3 (variance) using a variety / range of activities / methods; 4 (example) changing resistance / weight exercises OR changing from jogging to cycling; 4 1(e)(i) 2 marks for: 1 (maximum strength) maximum / greatest force produced in one / a single muscle contraction; 2 (explosive strength) force / muscle contractions produced quickly / fast / powerfully; 2 1(e)(ii) 4 marks for any 4 of: 1 hopping / bounding / jumping / named exercise; 2 second named exercise from above; 3 2–6 sets; 4 low repetitions / reps OR over a short distance; 5 (recovery) 1–4 minutes (between sets) / full recovery; 6 eccentric muscle contractions OR lengthening / pre-load / stretching of muscle / stretch-shortening cycle OR use of stretch reflex; 7 amortisation phase / change from eccentric to concentric; 8 concentric muscle contraction phase uses stored energy to increase force of contraction; 9 the greater pre-load / the higher the jump the greater the contraction; 10 performers must have good strength to do plyometrics OR may cause muscle soreness / overuse injuries; 4 1(f) 3 marks for: 1 (balance) stork / flamingo / balance beam / balance board / BASS / LESS / star excursion / Y balance / SEBT; 2 (agility) illinois run / shuttle run / hexagon / T-test / zig-zag / 505; 3 (body composition) skin-fold / fat callipers / BMI / bioelectrical impedance / body fat scales / hydrostatic weighing / bod pod; Accept other named recognised tests. 3 Question Answer Marks 1(g) 4 marks for any 4 of: 1 increase in strength / power / speed / muscle mass / size; 2 increase in bone density / strength; 3 increase in metabolism OR reduces body fat OR weight loss; 4 faster recovery (after training) OR faster tissue repair; 5 abnormal growth of bone / muscle / vital organs / hands / feet / face / acromegaly / carpal tunnel syndrome; 6 high blood pressure / heart attacks; 7 risk of cancers / diabetes; 8 less natural HGH production OR decrease in size of pituitary gland; 4

Q2 · Compare the trait perspective of personality with the social learning perspective of…

2 (a) Compare the trait perspective of personality with the social learning perspective of personality. [3] (b) Outline ways that a coach could improve the cohesiveness of a team. [4] (c) Suggest three characteristics of effective leaders in sport. [3] (d) Give a different sporting example of each of the following attentional styles: • narrow external • broad external • broad internal. [3] (e) Describe the characteristics of a peak flow experience in sport. [4] (f) (i) Explain what is meant by the term evaluation apprehension. [2] (ii) Describe possible effects of evaluation apprehension on sport performance. [3] (g) (i) Use a sporting example to explain what is meant by the term assertion. [2] (ii) Suggest methods that a coach could use to reduce aggression in their performers. [6] [Total: 30] Section C: Olympic Games: a global perspective

Mark scheme: 2(a) 3 marks for any 3 of: trait social learning 1 nature nurture; 2 innate / inherited / genetic (shaped by) copying / people / significant others / reinforcement; 3 stable / enduring / constant / predictable unstable / changeable; 4 behaviour is a function of personality behaviour is a function of environment; 5 Cattell / Freud / Eysenck Bandura / Mischel; 3 Question Answer Marks 2(b) 4 marks for any 4 of: 1 team-bonding activities OR encourage friendships; 2 reward / praise good cohesion / teamwork / ‘assists’; 3 punish players who are not cohesive; 4 set team goals / work on set plays / team tactics / interactive skills; 5 give individual roles / goals / responsibilities; 6 credit personal success / individual performances; 7 select ‘team’ players; 8 encourage group identity / team kit; 9 select a captain who is respected by team; 4 2(c) 3 marks for any 3 of: 1 good communication skills; 2 charisma / presence / commands respect; 3 good motivator / inspirational; 4 enthusiastic / dedicated / highly motivated; 5 empathy / gets on well with others / see others’ points of view; 6 vision / clear goals / knows what needs to be done; 7 good knowledge of the sport / experienced; 8 high-level performer / one of the best players; 9 uses correct leadership styles / flexible / adaptable; 10 good organiser; 11 self-confidence; Credit other relevant characteristics. 3 2(d) 3 marks for: 1 (narrow external), e.g. tennis player focusing only on the ball; 2 (broad external), e.g. netballer looking for passing options; 3 (broad internal), e.g. rugby hooker thinking about line-out calls; 3 Question Answer Marks 2(e) 4 marks for any 4 of: 1 perfect / high-quality performance; 2 performance feels effortless / fluent / automatic; 3 high level of confidence; 4 feeling of being in control; 5 relaxed / calm / low anxiety; 6 focused / selective attention / ignoring distractions; 7 enjoyment / satisfaction; 8 optimum arousal; 4 2(f)(i) 2 marks for any 2 of: 1 anxiety / increased arousal (experienced by a performer); 2 a perception / perceived fear; 3 (that) people / audience are judging the performance; 4 dependent on who is in the audience OR it is not just the presence of an audience; 2 2(f)(ii) 3 marks for any 3 of: 1 social inhibition / overarousal / impairs performance; 2 social facilitation / enhances performance; 3 increased likelihood of dominant response; 4 highly skilled / extrovert / need to achieve / autonomous performers may perform better; 5 novices / beginners / introvert / need to avoid failure / cognitive performers may perform worse; 3 2(g)(i) 2 marks for: 1 (explanation) forceful behaviour / no intent to harm AND within the rules / laws; 2 (example) smash in tennis; 2 Question Answer Marks 2(g)(ii) 6 marks for any 6 of: 1 punish / negatively reinforce aggressive play; 2 reward / positively reinforce non-aggressive play; 3 promote non-aggressive role models; 4 teach performers the implications of aggression OR teach performers to use rational thinking; 5 teach performer to walk away / avoid aggressive situations; 6 remove performer from situation / substitute / change position on pitch; 7 lower arousal levels; 8 selective attention / block out aggressive cues; 9 use of somatic relaxation techniques / deep breathing; 10 use cognitive relaxation techniques / imagery / mental rehearsal / count to 10 / positive self-talk; 11 reduce the importance of the event / outcome; 12 set process / performance goals; 13 give position of responsibility; 14 encourage channelled aggression / assertion; 6

Q3 · Fair-play ideals are a feature of the Olympic Games

3 (a) Fair-play ideals are a feature of the Olympic Games. Suggest three different ways that fair play may be shown by a performer at the Olympic Games. [3] (b) Suggest reasons why many cities may be reluctant to bid to host the Olympic Games. [6] (c) Give a reason for each of the following boycotts of the Olympic Games: • the 1976 Montreal Games by many African nations • the 1980 Moscow Games by the USA • the 1984 Los Angeles Games by the USSR. [3] (d) Outline ways that mass audiences may bring financial benefits for the host country of the Olympic Games. [3] (e) Explain why amateur athletes may find it difficult to win a medal at the Olympic Games when competing against professional athletes. [4] (f) The Olympic Oath has been taken by judges and officials as well as by athletes. Suggest ways that a judge or official may go against the Olympic Oath and show dysfunctional aspects. [3] (g) Describe the role of Sir Ludwig Guttmann in the development of the Paralympics. [4] (h) Suggest reforms to the Olympic Games that may reduce the influence of politics. [4] [Total: 30]

Mark scheme: 3(a) 3 marks for any 3 of: 1 abide by the rules / laws of the sport / not cheating; 2 show good sportsmanship / respect opponents / officials / shaking hands; 3 do not use gamesmanship; 4 do not use (illegal performance-enhancing) drugs; 5 help an injured competitor; 6 modest in victory; 7 generous in defeat; Question Answer Marks 3(b) 6 marks for any 6 of: 1 lack of public support (in the host country); 2 fears about high costs / financial burden to city / higher taxes; 3 high cost of bidding process; 4 costs to host country are rising each Olympic Games / spiral of extravagance; 5 IOC only pledge (very) small amount of money to help hosts; 6 lack of (long-term) economic benefits (to city / country); 7 lack of experience in organising such a massive range of projects; 8 increase in pollution / environmental concerns; 9 abandoned arenas / white elephants / (have become) environmental hazards (e.g. Rio 2016); 10 if city does not have sporting facilities beforehand, why would they need them after the Olympic Games?; 11 concern that city officials / influential businessmen may be driven by self-interest; 12 concern about meeting legacy requirements; 13 doubts about the positive legacy for host nation; 14 concerns about relocation of local people; 15 fear of terrorism; 16 concerns about pandemic / COVID; 6 3(c) 3 marks for: 1 (1976) protest against NZ rugby tour to South Africa; 2 (1980) protest at USSR invasion of Afghanistan; 3 (1984) tit-for-tat / retaliation for Moscow boycott OR in protest at use of Games to promote western political ideology OR concerns about security; 3 3(d) 3 marks for any 3 of: 1 tourism benefits; 2 revenue from television networks / TV rights; 3 ticket sales; 4 merchandise sales; 5 sponsorship / marketing programmes; 6 income / tax from employment opportunities; 3 Question Answer Marks 3(e) 4 marks for any 4 of: 1 amateurs are part-time athletes OR professionals are full-time athletes; 2 amateurs have to work / fit training around work OR professionals do not have to work / can train full time; 3 amateurs generally get less sponsorship; 4 amateurs cannot afford high cost / expense of training / competing / travel; 5 amateurs may not have access to best facilities / equipment; 6 amateurs may not have access to best coaching / science support; 4 3(f) 3 marks for any 3 of: 1 cheat; 2 take bribes; 3 show bias / favour certain performers; 4 deliberately give low scores for good performances OR give high scores for poor performances; 5 take substances that impair decision making; 6 betting on events they are involved in; 3 3(g) 4 marks for any 4 of: 1 worked at Stoke Mandeville hospital OR treated patients with spinal injuries OR set up spinal unit; 2 belief in rehabilitation / strength benefits of sport; 3 morale-boosting effects / gain self-respect through sport; 4 set up Stoke Mandeville Games; 5 demonstration of disabled sports in opening ceremony of 1948 London Olympic Games; 6 recognition by IOC of his services to disabled sport; 7 Stoke Mandeville Games held alongside 1960 Rome Olympic Games OR 1960 Games were first to be called Paralympic Games; 4 Question Answer Marks 3(h) 4 marks for any 4 of: 1 athletes compete as individuals; 2 removal of national anthems at medal ceremonies / use of Olympic anthem; 3 removal of medal count / medal table; 4 removal of national uniforms; 5 removal of national flags; 6 removal of team sports; 7 use of one permanent host site / venues across several countries; 8 revision of opening / closing ceremonies; 9 media to present Games as non-political; 10 IOC to fully fund costs of hosting Games; 11 IOC to take control of running the Games; 4

What you needed in this session

Cambridge’s own grade thresholds for 2021 May/June, Paper 3 · Variant 2. A higher threshold means an easier paper — the bar moves with how the cohort did.

A57/90
B48/90
C40/90
D33/90
E25/90