Cambridge A Level Biology 9700 — 2014 May/June Paper 1 · Variant 2
9700/12/M/J/14 · 40 questions · 40 marks · ≈45 min
The question paper and its mark scheme, free to read here and free to download. This is Cambridge’s own paper, exactly as it was sat.
Question paper16 pages
















Mark scheme2 pages
Answers below. Sit the paper first if you are practising.


Questions as text
Q1 · At approximately which magnification is light microscopy not suitable because the…
1 At approximately which magnification is light microscopy not suitable because the resolution becomes too low? A ×100 B ×200 C ×400 D ×1500
Mark scheme: D
Q2 · The diagram shows a stage micrometer viewed with an eyepiece graticule scale, using a…
2 The diagram shows a stage micrometer viewed with an eyepiece graticule scale, using a magnification of ×400. 0.1mm 0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100 Using the same magnification, a chloroplast is measured and found to be 4 eyepiece graticule divisions long. How long is the chloroplast? A 1.0 × 101 µm B 4.0 × 102 µm C 2.5 × 10–1 µm D 2.5 × 10–2 µm
Mark scheme: A
Q3 · Which organelle does not contain a partially permeable membrane?
3 Which organelle does not contain a partially permeable membrane? A Golgi apparatus B lysosome C mitochondrion D ribosome
Mark scheme: D
More questions on Cells as the basic units of living organisms
Q4 · The diagram shows an electron micrograph of a plant cell
4 The diagram shows an electron micrograph of a plant cell. X Y Z What do structures X, Y and Z contain? X Y Z A air starch DNA and RNA B cell sap chlorophyll protein C mineral ions starch DNA and RNA D water mineral ions starch
Mark scheme: C
More questions on Cells as the basic units of living organisms
Q5 · An amino acid enters a cell and is then used to synthesise an enzyme secreted by the cell
5 An amino acid enters a cell and is then used to synthesise an enzyme secreted by the cell. What is the sequence of cell structures involved in the synthesis of the enzyme? first last A endoplasmic Golgi ribosome exocytotic reticulum apparatus vesicle B endoplasmic ribosome Golgi cell surface reticulum apparatus membrane C ribosome endoplasmic Golgi exocytotic reticulum apparatus vesicle D ribosome Golgi endoplasmic cell surface apparatus reticulum membrane
Mark scheme: C
More questions on Cells as the basic units of living organisms
Q6 · The diagram shows some similarities between chloroplasts, mitochondria and typical…
6 The diagram shows some similarities between chloroplasts, mitochondria and typical prokaryotes. 1 2 3 4 5 Which row is correct? 1 2 3 4 5 A chloroplasts 70S ribosomes prokaryotes 70S ribosomes mitochondria B chloroplasts 70S ribosomes prokaryotes 80S ribosomes mitochondria C mitochondria 70S ribosomes chloroplasts 80S ribosomes prokaryotes D mitochondria 80S ribosomes chloroplasts 80S ribosomes prokaryotes
Mark scheme: A
More questions on Cells as the basic units of living organisms
Q7 · Which shows the basic unit of glycogen?
7 Which shows the basic unit of glycogen? A B CH2OH CH2OH H C O OH H C O H H H C C C C OH H OH H HO C C H HO C C OH H OH H OH C D H CH2OH H C O CH2OH HO C O OH H H C C C C H OH OH H HO C C OH H C C H OH H H OH
Mark scheme: B
Q8 · Four sugar solutions were tested with Benedict’s solution
8 Four sugar solutions were tested with Benedict’s solution. The table shows the colour of the solutions after testing. solution colour 1 green 2 blue 3 brick red 4 yellow What is the best interpretation of the results? solution 1 solution 2 solution 3 solution 4 A 0.05% reducing 0.5% non-reducing 1.0% reducing 0.1% reducing sugar sugar sugar sugar B 0.5% reducing 0.0% reducing 1.0% reducing 0.1% reducing sugar sugar sugar sugar C 1.0% reducing 1.0% non-reducing 1.5% reducing 0.5% reducing sugar sugar sugar sugar D 0.05% non-reducing 0.5% reducing 1.0% non-reducing 0.1% non-reducing sugar sugar sugar sugar
Mark scheme: A
Q9 · Which features adapt a cellulose molecule for its function?
9 Which features adapt a cellulose molecule for its function? 1 Long chains of glucose molecules coil into a helix. 2 Many hydrogen bonds form between adjacent chains. 3 It is insoluble in water. A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 2 only
Mark scheme: C
Q10 · The structure of phospholipids and triglycerides include the following
10 The structure of phospholipids and triglycerides include the following. 1 glycerol linked to fatty acids 2 hydrophobic fatty acid chains 3 saturated fatty acid chains Which structures enable the formation of a lipid bilayer in cell surface membranes? A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 3 D 2 only
Mark scheme: D
Q11 · Which molecule contains a glycosidic bond?
11 Which molecule contains a glycosidic bond? A B H H O OH HO CH2 C C H C O C R H O O N CH3 CH2 C C H H C O C R H O O N CH3 C C H H C O C R O N H H H C D H CH2OH N O N H O H C H C O CH2OH H O C C C C H N C C C C H C N H N O OH H O H OH CH2OH HO N C C N C C C C O H N H OH OH H H
Mark scheme: C
Q12 · The diagrams show the structures of two amino acids, each of which has two carboxylic…
12 The diagrams show the structures of two amino acids, each of which has two carboxylic acid (–COOH) groups. 1 3 4 H2N CH COOH H2N CH COOH CH2 CH2 COOH 2 CH2 COOH 5 A peptide bond is formed between the two amino acids. Which groups form the peptide bond? A 1 and 4 B 1 and 5 C 2 and 3 D 2 and 5
Mark scheme: A
Q13 · The drug ritonavir is sometimes used in the treatment of HIV / AIDS
13 The drug ritonavir is sometimes used in the treatment of HIV / AIDS. Ritonavir consists of three amino acids and is a competitive inhibitor of HIV protease. HIV causes this protease to be made inside human cells. Ritonavir produces many side effects as it interferes with many metabolic processes in human cells. Which statements about ritonavir are correct? 1 Ritonavir has a shape complementary to the active site of HIV protease. 2 Ritonavir will enter human cells directly through the lipid bilayer and not require any transport proteins. 3 Ritonavir is likely to inhibit many of the enzymes of human cells. 4 Complete hydrolysis of ritonavir would require the addition of three water molecules. A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 4 D 3 and 4
Mark scheme: B
Q14 · The diagram shows the fluid mosaic model of a section of a cell surface membrane
14 The diagram shows the fluid mosaic model of a section of a cell surface membrane. 2 1 3 What is the role of each of the components labelled 1 to 3? 1 2 3 A antigen chemical receptor allow lipid soluble molecules to pass through B barrier to polar molecules stabilise the membrane antigen C chemical receptor allow lipid soluble regulate the fluidity molecules to pass through of the membrane D stabilise the membrane control the fluidity barrier to polar molecules of the membrane
Mark scheme: A
Q15 · Proteins in the cell surface membranes of human cells and mouse cells were labelled with…
15 Proteins in the cell surface membranes of human cells and mouse cells were labelled with red and green fluorescent dyes respectively. When a human cell and a mouse cell were fused together the red and green fluorescent labels were at first found in different regions of the cell surface membrane of the hybrid cell, but after 40 minutes they were evenly distributed in the entire cell surface membrane. What explains this observation? A All protein molecules in the cell surface membrane are fixed to structures within the cell, but phospholipid molecules move freely between them. B Groups of protein and phospholipid molecules in the cell surface membrane are attached to each another and move together. C Only protein molecules in the outer layer of the cell surface membrane can move freely between phospholipid molecules. D Protein molecules in the outer layer of the cell surface membrane and those which span the bilayer can move freely between phospholipid molecules.
Mark scheme: D
Q16 · The diagram shows a plant cell
16 The diagram shows a plant cell. The plant cell is put into a solution with a water potential less negative than the cell contents. What will happen to the appearance of the cell? A B C D
Mark scheme: C
Q17 · The cell cycle includes mitosis
17 The cell cycle includes mitosis. Which are features of nuclear division? 1 forms cells of equal size to the parent cell 2 forms genetically identical cells 3 semi-conservative replication of DNA A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 only
Mark scheme: D
More questions on Replication and division of nuclei and cells
Q18 · Which is the correct statement concerning cell and nuclear division?
18 Which is the correct statement concerning cell and nuclear division? A Haploid eukaryotes can reproduce by mitosis whereas diploid eukaryotes can reproduce by mitosis or meiosis. B Just before prophase, the mass of DNA is double the normal mass. Following anaphase, this mass is reduced by half and following cytokinesis this mass halves again. C Mutagens can cause mutations whereas carcinogens can cause cancer. This means that all mutagens are carcinogenic. D Some of the roles of mitosis are growth, asexual reproduction, cell repair following tissue damage and cell replacement.
Mark scheme: A
More questions on Replication and division of nuclei and cells
Q19 · Diploid (2n) organisms that reproduce sexually produce haploid (n) gametes
19 Diploid (2n) organisms that reproduce sexually produce haploid (n) gametes. Some plants, such as wheat, can produce diploid or haploid gametes. These gametes can fertilise other diploid or haploid gametes. Which statements are correct for plants like these? 1 Diploid gametes may be produced by a fault in the reduction division (meiosis). 2 The offspring will always show an increased chromosome number. 3 The offspring could be either 2n, 3n or 4n. 4 The chromosome number could, in theory, increase with each generation. A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 2 and 4 C 1, 3 and 4 D 2, 3 and 4
Mark scheme: C
Q20 · Which nucleic acid bases are pyrimidines?
20 Which nucleic acid bases are pyrimidines? A adenine and guanine B adenine, cytosine and thymine C cytosine, thymine and uracil D guanine, cytosine and uracil
Mark scheme: C
More questions on Structure of nucleic acids and replication of DNA
Q21 · What is the correct sequence for the processes involved in the formation of an enzyme in…
21 What is the correct sequence for the processes involved in the formation of an enzyme in a cell? A transcription → condensation → translation → ionic bonding B translation → hydrogen bonding → transcription → condensation C transcription → translation → condensation → ionic bonding D translation → transcription → ionic bonding → hydrogen bonding
Mark scheme: C
Q22 · A short piece of DNA fifteen base pairs long was analysed to find the number of…
22 A short piece of DNA fifteen base pairs long was analysed to find the number of nucleotide bases in each of the polynucleotide strands. Some of the results are shown below. number of nucleotide bases A C G T strand 1 6 3 strand 2 4 How many nucleotides containing adenine (A) were present in strand 2? A 2 B 3 C 4 D 6
Mark scheme: A
More questions on Structure of nucleic acids and replication of DNA
Q23 · Which feature of xylem vessel elements helps adhesion during transpiration?
23 Which feature of xylem vessel elements helps adhesion during transpiration? A lignin forms an incomplete secondary wall B new vessels carry extra water as the plants grow C there are no cross walls between vessel elements D the vessel elements form a narrow tube
Mark scheme: D
Q24 · The diagram represents part of the phloem pathway, with adjacent cells, from leaf to root…
24 The diagram represents part of the phloem pathway, with adjacent cells, from leaf to root in a plant. 2 leaf cell 1 chloroplast parenchyma cell nucleus companion cell root cell Which process is occurring between 1 to 2 and what is the effect on the water potential at 2? process from 1 to 2 water potential at 2 A active transport of sucrose becomes less negative B active transport of sucrose becomes more negative C diffusion of sucrose becomes less negative D diffusion of sucrose becomes more negative
Mark scheme: B
Q25 · Which xerophytic adaptations reduce the water potential gradient?
25 Which xerophytic adaptations reduce the water potential gradient? 1 rolled leaves 2 hairy leaves 3 sunken stomata 4 fewer stomata 5 fleshy leaves A 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 B 1, 2 and 3 only C 1, 3 and 4 only D 2 and 5 only
Mark scheme: B
Q26 · What is not a factor influencing blood pressure?
26 What is not a factor influencing blood pressure? A the diameter of the blood vessels B the number of red blood cells in circulation C the systolic pressure of the heart ventricles D the volume of blood returning to the heart each heart beat
Mark scheme: B
Q27 · Which of the following are found in blood and lymph and tissue fluid?
27 Which of the following are found in blood and lymph and tissue fluid? 1 carbon dioxide 2 fatty acids 3 white blood cells 4 proteins A 1, 2, 3 and 4 B 1, 2 and 3 only C 1, 2 and 4 only D 3 and 4 only
Mark scheme: A
Q28 · The graph shows the percentage saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen at different partial…
28 The graph shows the percentage saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen at different partial pressures of oxygen and two different concentrations of carbon dioxide. 100 low concentration CO2 75 % saturation haemoglobin 50 high concentration CO2 of haemoglobin with oxygen 25 0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 partial pressure of O2 / kPa What is the effect of increasing the concentration of carbon dioxide? A It increases the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen at respiring tissues. B It increases the dissociation of haemoglobinic acid inside red blood cells. C It increases the dissociation of oxygen from haemoglobin at respiring tissues. D It increases the inhibition of carbonic anhydrase enzyme in red blood cells.
Mark scheme: C
Q29 · Some babies are born with a hole between the right and left atria
29 Some babies are born with a hole between the right and left atria. These babies are found to have an increased number of red blood cells. What is the reason for this increase? A More blood is needed because it is pumped faster. B More blood is needed because the pressure is lower. C Their haemoglobin has a higher affinity for oxygen. D There is less oxygen available to the newly born baby.
Mark scheme: D
Q30 · In the lungs, oxygen and carbon dioxide pass through cell membranes by diffusion
30 In the lungs, oxygen and carbon dioxide pass through cell membranes by diffusion. Which row is correct? number of cell membranes diffused through by oxygen from air carbon dioxide to air A 3 2 B 3 2 or 3 C 5 4 D 5 4 or 5
Mark scheme: D
Q31 · Which describes how substances in cigarette smoke increase the risk of developing…
31 Which describes how substances in cigarette smoke increase the risk of developing atherosclerosis? 1 Carbon monoxide damages the endothelium of the arteries. 2 Nicotine makes platelets sticky. 3 Nicotine stimulates the release of adrenaline. A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 3 only C 1 only D 2 only
Mark scheme: D
Q32 · Which flow diagram correctly describes the effect of tar entering the lungs?
32 Which flow diagram correctly describes the effect of tar entering the lungs? carcinogens A come into mutation uncontrolled cell → → contact with occurs division DNA mucus goblet cells phagocytes B accumulates secrete more → → attracted by causing mucus inflammation infection mucus phagocytes elastase C accumulates → attracted by → destroys the causing infection inflammation alveolar walls phagocytes causes D mutation → attracted by → irritation and occurs inflammation coughing
Mark scheme: A
Q33 · Which could directly reduce the surface area available for gas exchange in human lungs?
33 Which could directly reduce the surface area available for gas exchange in human lungs? 1 emphysema 2 lung cancer 3 smoking A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only
Mark scheme: B
Q34 · The malarial parasite, Plasmodium, infects red blood cells and breaks down haemoglobin
34 The malarial parasite, Plasmodium, infects red blood cells and breaks down haemoglobin. Free haem groups are toxic to Plasmodium and the parasite converts them into non-toxic, crystalline haematozoin, using an enzyme, HDP, which is found in all species of Plasmodium. What will be the long term result of giving patients with malaria a drug which inhibits HDP? A a decreased concentration of free haem groups in infected red blood cells B a decreased concentration of haemoglobin in infected red blood cells C more rapid reproduction of some species of Plasmodium in infected red blood cells D slower reproduction of all species of Plasmodium in infected red blood cells
Mark scheme: D
Q35 · During a primary immune response, the following events occur
35 During a primary immune response, the following events occur. 1 Some B-lymphocytes form plasma cells. 2 B-lymphocytes with the specific cell surface receptors divide repeatedly by mitosis. 3 Specific antibody is produced. 4 T-helper cells secrete cytokines. 5 T-helper cells identify a specific antigen. In which order will the events occur? A 2 → 1 → 4 → 3 → 5 B 2 → 4 → 3 → 1 → 5 C 5 → 4 → 2 → 1 → 3 D 5 → 4 → 3 → 1 → 2
Mark scheme: C
Q36 · Which statement concerning the defence in the body against infectious disease is not…
36 Which statement concerning the defence in the body against infectious disease is not correct? A Antibodies against specific antigens are produced by plasma cells in passive immunity, but the protection is short-lived as no memory cells are produced. B A specific immune response involves activation of B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes following recognition of, and binding to, a specific antigen. C Following invasion by microorganisms, natural active immunity can be gained by initiating an immune response. D Lysosomes fuse with vacuoles that have been formed by phagocytes and which contain invading microorganisms.
Mark scheme: A
Q37 · An antiserum to a snake toxin can be obtained by injecting the toxin into a horse
37 An antiserum to a snake toxin can be obtained by injecting the toxin into a horse. The antiserum is made from blood plasma taken from the horse a few weeks later. The antiserum is injected into a person who has been bitten by the same species of snake. Which type of immunity occurs as a result of using this antiserum? A artificial active B artificial passive C natural active D natural passive
Mark scheme: B
Q38 · The flow of nutrients in an ecosystem is shown in the diagram
38 The flow of nutrients in an ecosystem is shown in the diagram. Which letter represents decomposers? producers D A C B
Mark scheme: D
Q39 · An insect eats only the leaves of grass
39 An insect eats only the leaves of grass. This insect is eaten by carnivorous beetles. Which ecological terms are described in this information about the insect? 1 habitat 2 niche 3 trophic level A 1, 2 and 3 B 2 and 3 only C 2 only D 3 only
Mark scheme: D
Q40 · A gardener has a waterlogged garden showing poor growth
40 A gardener has a waterlogged garden showing poor growth. He decides to drain it in an attempt to reduce the numbers of some harmful bacteria. Which type of bacteria would he be attempting to reduce in number? A decomposing B denitrifying C nitrifying D nitrogen fixing
Mark scheme: B
What was in this paper
The subtopics covered by these 40 questions, and how many questions each got. Open one in a new tab to see every Cambridge question on it.
4Fluid mosaic membranes3The circulatory system3The gas exchange system3Biodiversity2Carbohydrates and lipids2Proteins2Replication and division of nuclei and cells2Structure of nucleic acids and replication of DNA2The immune system2The microscope in cell studies2Transport mechanisms2Antibodies and vaccination1Chromosome behaviour in mitosis1Conservation1Factors that affect enzyme action1Infectious diseases1Movement into and out of cells1Protein synthesis1Structure of transport tissues1Testing for biological molecules1The heart1Transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide1What you needed in this session
Cambridge’s own grade thresholds for 2014 May/June, Paper 1 · Variant 2. A higher threshold means an easier paper — the bar moves with how the cohort did.