Cambridge A Level Biology 9700 — 2011 May/June Paper 1 · Variant 2

9700/12/M/J/11 · 40 questions · 40 marks · ≈45 min

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Mark scheme2 pages

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Questions as text

Q1 · Using a stage micrometer scale, one unit of an eyepiece graticule was calculated as 0.005…

1 Using a stage micrometer scale, one unit of an eyepiece graticule was calculated as 0.005 mm. The diameter of a spongy mesophyll cell was counted as 3.5 units on the eyepiece graticule. What is the estimate of the diameter of the cell? A 0.18 µm B 1.8 µm C 18.0 µm D 180 µm

Mark scheme: C

More questions on The microscope in cell studies

Q2 · Membranous sacs containing products of metabolism are formed by the endoplasmic reticulum…

2 Membranous sacs containing products of metabolism are formed by the endoplasmic reticulum in cells. Where are these products used? A inside and outside the cell B inside lysosomes only C inside the cell only D outside the cell only

Mark scheme: A

More questions on Cells as the basic units of living organisms

Q3 · Visking tubing is an artificial partially permeable membrane used to demonstrate diffusion

3 Visking tubing is an artificial partially permeable membrane used to demonstrate diffusion. Glucose molecules can pass through the pores in the membrane which are approximately 2.4 nm in diameter. Which of the following could pass through the pores? 1 bacteria 2 haemoglobin 3 ribosomes 4 glycogen A 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 4 only D none of these

Mark scheme: D

More questions on Movement into and out of cells

Q4 · Which of the structures are found in photosynthetic prokaryotes?

4 Which of the structures are found in photosynthetic prokaryotes? 1 cell surface membrane 2 cellulose wall 3 mesosomes 4 ribosomes 5 chloroplasts A 1, 2, 3 and 4 only B 1, 2, 4 and 5 only C 1, 3 and 4 only D 2, 3 and 5 only

Mark scheme: C

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Q5 · A human aorta has a lumen width of 2 cm

5 A human aorta has a lumen width of 2 cm. A human red blood cell has a diameter of 7 µm. How many red blood cells could be laid end to end across the diameter of the aorta lumen? A 2.9 × 10–3 B 2.9 × 10–2 C 2.9 × 102 D 2.9 × 103

Mark scheme: D

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Q6 · Which polysaccharides are branched and which are unbranched?

6 Which polysaccharides are branched and which are unbranched? branched unbranched A amylose cellulose B amylopectin cellulose C cellulose amylose D cellulose amylopectin

Mark scheme: B

More questions on Carbohydrates and lipids

Q7 · Three carbohydrate molecules are shown

7 Three carbohydrate molecules are shown. CH2OH CH2OH CH2OH O O O OH OH OH OH OH CH2OH HO OH HO OH OH OH 1 2 3 Which two molecules combine to form a molecule of sucrose? A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 3 D two of molecule 1

Mark scheme: B

More questions on Carbohydrates and lipids

Q8 · At which levels of protein structure do ionic bonds occur?

8 At which levels of protein structure do ionic bonds occur? 1 secondary 2 tertiary 3 quaternary A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

Mark scheme: C

More questions on Proteins

Q9 · Myoglobin is a protein with a similar function to haemoglobin

9 Myoglobin is a protein with a similar function to haemoglobin. However, myoglobin does not have a quaternary structure. Why does myoglobin not have a quaternary structure? A Myoglobin does not contain a haem group. B Myoglobin does not contain any alpha helices. C Myoglobin has a fibrous rather than a globular structure. D Myoglobin has only one polypeptide chain.

Mark scheme: D

More questions on Proteins

Q10 · The diagram shows the structure of the amino acid cysteine

10 The diagram shows the structure of the amino acid cysteine. H H H N H S C C C OH H H O When two of these amino acids join together what bond(s) are formed? A disulfide bonds only B disulfide and peptide bonds C hydrogen, disulfide and peptide bonds D peptide bonds only

Mark scheme: D

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Q11 · Which row describes a triglyceride?

11. Which row describes a triglyceride? A v Jv B v x Cc x J D x x key ¥ = correct X = incorrect

Mark scheme: D

More questions on Carbohydrates and lipids

Q12 · The graph shows the activation energy of an enzyme-catalysed reaction and the same…

12 The graph shows the activation energy of an enzyme-catalysed reaction and the same reaction without a catalyst. X energy Y reactants Z products reaction Which of the following shows the activation energy of the uncatalysed reaction? A X + Y – Z B X + Z – Y C X + Y D Y + Z

Mark scheme: C

More questions on Mode of action of enzymes

Q13 · Which of the following statements are true of all enzymes?

13 Which of the following statements are true of all enzymes? 1 soluble in water 2 catalyse the breakdown of large molecules into smaller molecules 3 only have one active site 4 have a quaternary structure A 1, 2 and 3 only B 2, 3 and 4 only C 1 only D 4 only

Mark scheme: C

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Q14 · The graphs show the effects of temperature and pH on enzyme activity

14 The graphs show the effects of temperature and pH on enzyme activity. Q R P rate of rate of reaction reaction S temperature pH Which statement explains the enzyme activity at the point shown? A At P, hydrogen bonds are formed between enzyme and substrate. B At Q, the kinetic energy of enzyme and substrate is highest. C At R, peptide bonds in the enzyme begin to break. D At S, the enzyme is completely denatured.

Mark scheme: A

More questions on Factors that affect enzyme action

Q15 · The diagram shows part of a cell surface membrane

15 The diagram shows part of a cell surface membrane. 3 4 5 2 1 Which molecules have both hydrophobic and hydrophilic regions? A 1 and 5 only B 1, 3 and 5 only C 1, 2, 4 and 5 only D 2, 3 and 4 only

Mark scheme: C

More questions on Fluid mosaic membranes

Q16 · Increasing which type of bond helps to increase the fluidity of the cell surface membrane?

16 Increasing which type of bond helps to increase the fluidity of the cell surface membrane? A C — O — C B C — N C C C D hydrogen

Mark scheme: C

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Q17 · When cylinders of potato tissue were immersed in a 0.35 mol dm–3 sucrose solution, they…

17 When cylinders of potato tissue were immersed in a 0.35 mol dm–3 sucrose solution, they showed no change in mass. What will happen when cylinders are immersed in a 0.1 mol dm–3 sucrose solution? A The pressure potential of the cells will become more positive. B The solute potential of the cell will become more negative. C The water potential of the cells will become more negative. D The water potential of the solution will become less negative.

Mark scheme: A

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Q18 · The graph represents the changes in the quantity of DNA present in one nucleus at…

18 The graph represents the changes in the quantity of DNA present in one nucleus at different stages in the life cycle of a mammal. X fertilisation 4 DNA content 3 / arbitrary units 2 egg 1 time Which stage takes place at X? A interphase B metaphase C prophase D telophase

Mark scheme: D

More questions on Replication and division of nuclei and cells

Q19 · At which stage of mitosis do these events occur?

19 At which stage of mitosis do these events occur? spiralisation and centromeres separate condensation of DNA A anaphase interphase B anaphase prophase C metaphase interphase D metaphase telophase

Mark scheme: B

More questions on Chromosome behaviour in mitosis

Q20 · During which process does only mitosis occur?

20 During which process does only mitosis occur? A the production of antibodies from B-lymphocyte memory cells B the production of cancerous tissue in alveoli C the production of gametes D the production of root hairs

Mark scheme: B

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Q21 · The table shows the tRNA anticodons for four amino acids

21 The table shows the tRNA anticodons for four amino acids. amino acid anticodon (tRNA) asparagine UUA glutamic acid CUU proline GGA threonine UGG A cell makes a polypeptide with the following amino acid sequence. glutamic acid – asparagine – threonine – proline What was the sequence of bases on the DNA from which this was formed? A GGAAATACCCTT B CAAAATACCCCT C CTTTTATGGGGA D CTTTTATCCGGA

Mark scheme: C

More questions on Protein synthesis

Q22 · What does the enzyme RNA polymerase synthesise?

22 What does the enzyme RNA polymerase synthesise? A a polypeptide from an mRNA template B a strand of DNA from an mRNA template C mRNA from a DNA template D mRNA from a tRNA template

Mark scheme: C

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Q23 · The diagram shows part of a DNA molecule

23 The diagram shows part of a DNA molecule. A T G C C G C G How many hydrogen bonds are involved in holding these strands of DNA together? A 11 B 9 C 8 D 4

Mark scheme: A

More questions on Structure of nucleic acids and replication of DNA

Q24 · Which features enable the aorta to withstand high pressure at ventricular systole?

24 Which features enable the aorta to withstand high pressure at ventricular systole? A collagen fibres and elastin fibres B collagen fibres and endometrium C elastin fibres and large lumen D smooth muscle and small lumen

Mark scheme: A

More questions on The heart

Q25 · There is a decreased partial pressure of oxygen at high altitude compared to sea level

25 There is a decreased partial pressure of oxygen at high altitude compared to sea level. Which row is a correct description and reason for the response of the body to high altitude? description reason A more red blood cells because haemoglobin breaks down more rapidly B red blood cells have genes so red blood cells produce more switched on haemoglobin C oxygen dissociation curve shifts to compensate for an increase to the right in oxygen unloading in tissues D percentage saturation of haemoglobin so more red blood cells are produced with oxygen in lungs decreases to carry more haemoglobin

Mark scheme: D

More questions on Transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide

Q26 · What events occur during contraction of the left ventricle?

26 What events occur during contraction of the left ventricle? A The bicuspid valve opens and semilunar valve in the aorta opens. B The bicuspid valve closes and semilunar valve in the aorta closes. C The pressure in the left atrium becomes greater than the pressure in the left ventricle. D The pressure in the left ventricle becomes greater than the pressure in the aorta.

Mark scheme: D

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Q27 · Blood, tissue fluid and lymph each have a different composition

27 Blood, tissue fluid and lymph each have a different composition. Which row shows the composition of lymph? contains contains contains water antibodies lipid A v v v B v v x Cc v x v D x v v key / = present X = absent

Mark scheme: A

More questions on The circulatory system

Q28 · Which processes are involved in transport in both phloem and xylem?

28 Which processes are involved in transport in both phloem and xylem? 1 diffusion 2 mass flow 3 osmosis A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

Mark scheme: A

More questions on Transport mechanisms

Q29 · Which features of xerophytes are adaptations to reduce water loss by transpiration?

29 Which features of xerophytes are adaptations to reduce water loss by transpiration? rolled leaves fleshy leaves sunken stomata | thick waxy cuticles A Jv x x Jv B x Jv Jv Jv Cc Jv Jv Jv x D Jv Jv Jv Jv key J/ = reduces water loss X = no effect on water loss

Mark scheme: D

Q30 · The graph shows the results of measuring the concentration of sucrose in the xylem…

30 The graph shows the results of measuring the concentration of sucrose in the xylem, phloem and leaves of a plant during 24 hours. phloem sucrose concentration leaves xylem 06 00 12 00 18 00 00 00 time of day Which conclusion can be drawn from these results? A Osmosis moves water from the xylem to the phloem. B Sucrose is actively transported into the phloem from the leaves. C Sucrose is moved in both directions in the phloem. D Xylem tissue uses sucrose as a source of energy.

Mark scheme: B

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Q31 · Water that is present inside a root hair cell may leave the cell and pass to the xylem

31 Water that is present inside a root hair cell may leave the cell and pass to the xylem. Through which pathway must the water travel? A apoplast B plasmodesmata C symplast D vacuoles

Mark scheme: C

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Q32 · What are the approximate diameters of a trachea, an alveolus, a bronchiole and a bronchus?

32 What are the approximate diameters of a trachea, an alveolus, a bronchiole and a bronchus? trachea / mm alveolus / mm bronchiole / mm bronchus / mm A 18 0.25 0.50 12 B 18 0.50 0.25 12 C 12 0.25 0.50 18 D 12 0.50 0.25 18

Mark scheme: A

More questions on The gas exchange system

Q33 · What could occur as a result of inhaling the nicotine in tobacco smoke?

33 What could occur as a result of inhaling the nicotine in tobacco smoke? A cilia lining the respiratory tract are paralysed, causing an increase in the secretion of mucus from enlarged goblet cells B diffusion into blood capillaries followed by the release of adrenaline, which increases blood pressure and heart rate C diffusion into the epithelial cells of the respiratory tract, increasing the risk of mutation and acting as a potential carcinogen D dissolves in the lining of the alveoli, causing a breakdown in the alveolar walls and a decrease in surface area for gas exchange

Mark scheme: B

More questions on The gas exchange system

Q34 · Which effects does emphysema have?

34 Which effects does emphysema have? 1 surface area to volume ratio of lungs decreases 2 distance of the diffusion pathway increases 3 volume of oxygen diffused per unit time decreases A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

Mark scheme: C

More questions on The gas exchange system

Q35 · Which of the diseases listed in the table are only treatable using antibiotics?

35 Which of the diseases listed in the table are only treatable using antibiotics? cholera | measles TB v v key JY = treatable X = not treatable 0 ONO DW > Ke 4K v x v v x v

Mark scheme: B

More questions on Antibiotics

Q36 · The diagram shows properties of diseases

36 The diagram shows properties of diseases. Which area of the diagram shows the properties that are common to both cholera and tuberculosis? A bacterial infectious D C B transmitted by airborne droplets

Mark scheme: A

More questions on Infectious diseases

Q37 · The disease smallpox has been eradicated by a worldwide vaccination programme

37 The disease smallpox has been eradicated by a worldwide vaccination programme. Which set of reasons correctly identifies the problems associated with planning vaccination programmes to eradicate other diseases? sickle cell TB malaria cholera anaemia A invade gut cells genetically different poor response where immune inherited vaccines with system less recessive needed for malnourished effective condition active and children; dormant-to- boosters then active forms required B different stages poor response genetically different with different with inherited vaccines antigens; malnourished recessive needed for invades body children; condition active and cells boosters then dormant-to- required active forms C different different stages genetically invade gut cells vaccines with different inherited where immune needed for antigens; recessive system less active and invades body condition effective dormant-to- cells active forms D genetically different invade gut cells different stages inherited vaccines where immune with different recessive needed for system less antigens; condition active and effective invades body dormant-to- cells active forms

Mark scheme: C

More questions on Antibodies and vaccination

Q38 · Anaerobic bacteria are abundant in waterlogged soils

38 Anaerobic bacteria are abundant in waterlogged soils. Which effect does this have on soil fertility and why? soil fertility reason A decreased bacteria convert nitrate to ammonia B decreased bacteria convert nitrate to nitrogen gas C increased bacteria cause decomposition D increased bacteria cause nitrogen fixation

Mark scheme: B

More questions on Conservation

Q39 · What name is given to all the organisms in an area and their interactions with their…

39 What name is given to all the organisms in an area and their interactions with their environment? A community B ecosystem C habitat D niche

Mark scheme: B

More questions on Biodiversity

Q40 · What is the function of nitrifying bacteria in the soil?

40 What is the function of nitrifying bacteria in the soil? A oxidation of ammonium compounds to nitrates B oxidation of nitrogen gas to nitrates C reduction of ammonium compounds to nitrates D reduction of nitrates to nitrites

Mark scheme: A

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