Cambridge IGCSE Geography (9-1) 0976 — 2024 Oct/Nov Paper 1 · Variant 2

This document has 28 pages. Any blank pages are indicated. [Turn over Cambridge IGCSE™(9–1) * 6 5 3 7 3 6 2 4 7 8 * GEOGRAPHY 0976/12 Paper 1 Geographical Themes October/November 2024 1 hour 45 minutes You must answer on the question paper. You will need: Insert (enclosed) Ruler Calculator Protractor INSTRUCTIONS ● Answer three questions in total, one from each section. ● Use a black or dark blue pen. You may use an HB pencil for any diagrams or graphs. ● Write your name, centre number and candidate number in the boxes at the top of the page. ● Write your answer to each question in the space provided. ● Do not use an erasable pen or correction fluid. ● Do not write on any bar codes. ● If additional space is needed, you should use the lined pages at the end of this booklet; the question number or numbers must be clearly shown. INFORMATION ● The total mark for this paper is 75. ● The number of marks for each question or part question is shown in brackets [ ]. ● The insert contains additional resources referred to in the questions. LEDCs – Less Economically Developed Countries MEDCs – More Economically Developed Countries DC (EV) 348284 © UCLES 2024 ,










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2 0976/12/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 Section A Answer one question from this section. 1 (a) Study Fig. 1.1, information about four countries. area (km2) population population density (people per km2) France 543 940 65 512 203 120.4 Spain 505 990 46 784 756 92.5 Tunisia 163 610 12 023 273 73.5 Turkey 783 356 85 840 907 Fig. 1.1 (i) Using Fig. 1.1, identify which one of the following countries is most sparsely populated. Underline your answer. France Spain Tunisia [1] (ii) Calculate the population density of Turkey. You should include your calculations in the box provided. … per km2 [2] * 0000800000002 * ,










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3 0976/12/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 [Turn over (iii) Study Fig. 1.2 (Insert), a photograph of a mountainous area. Explain why mountainous areas, like the one shown in Fig. 1.2, have an uneven population distribution. … … … … … … [3] (iv) Study Fig. 1.3 (Insert), a photograph of a hot desert area. Explain why hot desert areas, like the one shown in Fig. 1.3, are not attractive places to live. … … … … … … … … [4] * 0000800000003 * ,










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4 0976/12/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 (b) Study Fig. 1.4 (Insert), a photograph of a coastal settlement in Spain (an MEDC in Europe). (i) Suggest reasons why many coastal lowland areas, like the one shown in Fig. 1.4, have a high population density. … … … … … … [3] (ii) Describe the problems experienced by people living in areas with a high population density. … … … … … … … … … … [5] * 0000800000004 * ,










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5 0976/12/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 [Turn over (c) For a named country you have studied, describe a policy which has been used to reduce or increase natural population growth rates. Name of country … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … [7] [Total: 25] * 0000800000005 * ,










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6 0976/12/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 2 (a) Study Fig. 2.1 (Insert), a scatter graph showing the relationship between GNP per person and the percentage of the population living in urban areas. (i) What term is used to describe the increase in the percentage of population living in urban areas? Underline the correct answer from the following list. depopulation distribution migration urbanisation [1] (ii) Using Fig. 2.1, put the following countries in rank order according to the percentage of their population living in urban areas. Germany first … second … third … Ghana Peru largest smallest [2] (iii) Using Fig. 2.1, describe the relationship between GNP per person and the percentage of population living in urban areas. Refer to continents in your answer, but do not use statistics. … … … … … … [3] * 0000800000006 * ,










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7 0976/12/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 [Turn over (iv) Give four different reasons why the percentage of the population living in urban areas in LEDCs is increasing. 1 … … 2 … … 3 … … 4 … … [4] (b) Study Fig. 2.2, a graph showing population growth in the city of Nairobi, Kenya (an LEDC in Africa), from 1900 to 2020. 1900 0 1 2 3 4 population (million) 5 6 1920 1940 1960 year 1980 2000 2020 Fig. 2.2 (i) Using evidence from Fig. 2.2 only, describe the changes in the rate of increase in the population of Nairobi between 1900 and 2020. Use statistics to support your answer. … … … … … … [3] * 0000800000007 * ,










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8 0976/12/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 (ii) In some LEDCs, the government is giving low-cost loans to farmers in rural areas. Is this type of strategy likely to be successful in slowing down the growth of population in cities like Nairobi? Justify your answer. … … … … … … … … … … [5] * 0000800000008 * ,










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9 0976/12/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 [Turn over (c) For a named urban area you have studied, explain how the authorities have attempted to improve the lives of people living in squatter settlements. Name of urban area … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … [7] [Total: 25] * 0000800000009 * ,










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10 0976/12/ O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 Section B Answer one question from this section. 3 (a) Study Fig. 3.1, showing information about an area where the coastline has been protected from coastal erosion. Fig. 3.1 (i) Using Fig. 3.1, identify the most likely reason for the sea wall being built. Tick (✓) the correct answer from the choices provided. tick (✓) to attract more industry to the area to create more employment for local people to improve the scenery of the area to protect buildings on the top of the cliff [1] * 0000800000010 * ,










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11 0976/12/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 [Turn over (ii) Suggest two reasons why rapid coastal erosion was taking place before the sea wall was built in the area shown in Fig. 3.1. 1 … … 2 … … [2] (iii) Describe and explain the impact of building a sea wall on the beach in the area shown in Fig. 3.1. … … … … … … [3] (iv) Explain how the following two methods would help to reduce coastal erosion in the area shown in Fig. 3.1. build groynes along the beach … … … … put a line of large boulders at the base of the sea wall … … … … [4] * 0000800000011 * ,









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12 0976/12/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 (b) Study Figs. 3.2 and 3.3 (Insert), photographs of two bays. (i) Describe three differences between the bays shown in Figs. 3.2 and 3.3. 1 … … 2 … … 3 … … [3] (ii) Explain why bays and headlands develop along some areas of coastline. … … … … … … … … … … [5] * 0000800000012 * ,









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13 0976/12/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 [Turn over (c) Explain the formation of an arch and a stack at the coast. You should include a labelled diagram. … … … … … … … … … … … … … [7] [Total: 25] * 0000800000013 * ,









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14 0976/12/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 4 (a) Study Fig. 4.1, a diagram of a piece of equipment used in a weather station. Fig. 4.1 (i) What is the name of the equipment shown in Fig. 4.1? … [1] (ii) Which two of the following traditional weather instruments are kept inside the piece of equipment shown in Fig. 4.1? Tick (✓) two correct answers from the list provided. tick (✓) anemometer barometer wet and dry bulb thermometer (hygrometer) sunshine recorder wind vane [2] (iii) Describe an ideal site for the equipment shown in Fig. 4.1. … … … … … … [3] * 0000800000014 * ,









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15 0976/12/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 [Turn over (iv) Explain why the equipment shown in Fig. 4.1: is made of wood … … has a double roof … … has one metre long legs … … has slatted sides. … … [4] * 0000800000015 * ,









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16 0976/12/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 (b) Study Figs. 4.2 and 4.3 (Insert), photographs of two different types of cloud. (i) Describe three differences between the clouds shown in Figs. 4.2 and 4.3. 1 … … 2 … … 3 … … [3] (ii) Explain how a traditional rain gauge can be used to measure precipitation for a period of one month. … … … … … … … … … … [5] * 0000800000016 * ,









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17 0976/12/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 [Turn over (c) For a named river you have studied, explain the causes of a flood. Name of river … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … [7] [Total: 25] * 0000800000017 * ,









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18 0976/12/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 Section C Answer one question from this section. 5 (a) Study Fig. 5.1 (Insert), a map showing countries where there were major food shortages between March and July 2021. (i) Using Fig. 5.1, name the continent which had most countries with food shortages. … [1] (ii) Food shortages can cause starvation and malnutrition. Explain the difference between starvation and malnutrition. … … … … [2] (iii) Using Fig. 5.1 only, name a different country where food shortages were caused by each of: drought … flood … locusts. … [3] (iv) Explain why drought can cause food shortages. … … … … … … … … [4] * 0000800000018 * ,









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19 0976/12/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 [Turn over (b) Study Fig. 5.2, which shows four possible methods of increasing food supply in an LEDC. Method A: increase food imports. Method B: increase areas of farmland by removing forests. Method C: reduce the production of cash crops for export. Method D: increase the manufacture of fertilisers. Fig. 5.2 (i) Explain why Method A, ‘increase food imports’, is not likely to be a sustainable method of increasing food supply for an LEDC. … … … … … … [3] (ii) Which method do you consider to be the best method to increase food supply in an LEDC? Choose from methods B, C or D shown in Fig. 5.2. Justify your answer by referring to the advantages of the method you have chosen and the disadvantages of the two methods you have rejected. Method chosen … … … … … … … … … … … [5] * 0000800000019 * ,









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20 0976/12/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 (c) For a named farm or area you have studied, describe and explain the agricultural land use. Name of farm or area … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … [7] [Total: 25] * 0000800000020 * ,










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22 0976/12/ O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 6 (a) Study Fig. 6.1, a map showing countries where there are factories. is a transnational corporation (TNC). Fig. 6.1 (i) What is meant by a transnational corporation? … … [1] (ii) Using Fig. 6.1, name the two countries with the largest number of factories. 1 … 2 … [2] (iii) Describe the global distribution of factories. … … … … … … [3] * 0000800000022 * ,









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23 0976/12/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 [Turn over (iv) In 2017, opened a new factory producing sports shoes at Zapopan in Mexico (an LEDC). Suggest two advantages and two disadvantages of the factory for the people living in Zapopan. advantages 1 … … 2 … … disadvantages 1 … … 2 … … [4] * 0000800000023 * ,









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24 0976/12/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 (b) Study Fig. 6.2, a diagram showing the factors which have contributed to globalisation. globalisation technology containerisation capital mobility transnational corporations increased labour mobility lower tariffs Fig. 6.2 (i) Using Fig. 6.2, identify each of the three factors described below. easier for workers to move from country to country … shipping raw materials or finished products in large sealed containers … reduced taxes and customs duties on imported goods … [3] (ii) Explain how improvements in technology have contributed to globalisation. … … … … … … … … … … [5] * 0000800000024 * ,









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25 0976/12/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 (c) Describe and explain the location of a named factory or industrial area you have studied. Name of factory or industrial area … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … [7] [Total: 25] * 0000800000025 * ,









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26 0976/12/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 Additional pages If you use the following pages to complete the answer to any question, the question number must be clearly shown. … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … * 0000800000026 * ,









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28 0976/12/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 BLANK PAGE The boundaries and names shown, the designations used and the presentation of material on any maps contained in this question paper/insert do not imply official endorsement or acceptance by Cambridge Assessment International Education concerning the legal status of any country, territory, or area or any of its authorities, or of the delimitation of its frontiers or boundaries. Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity. To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series. Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge. * 0000800000028 * ,









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This document consists of 21 printed pages. © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 [Turn over Cambridge IGCSE™ (9–1) GEOGRAPHY 0976/12 Paper 1 Geographical Themes October/November 2024 MARK SCHEME Maximum Mark: 75 Published This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have considered the acceptability of alternative answers. Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for Teachers. Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes. Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2024 series for most Cambridge IGCSE, Cambridge International A and AS Level components, and some Cambridge O Level components.

0976/12 Cambridge IGCSE (9–1) – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 2 of 21 Generic Marking Principles These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers. They should be applied alongside the specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptions for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these marking principles. GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 1: Marks must be awarded in line with: • the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question • the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question • the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts. GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 2: Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions). GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 3: Marks must be awarded positively: • marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit is given for valid answers which go beyond the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme, referring to your Team Leader as appropriate • marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do • marks are not deducted for errors • marks are not deducted for omissions • answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these features are specifically assessed by the question as indicated by the mark scheme. The meaning, however, should be unambiguous. GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 4: Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed instructions or in the application of generic level descriptors. GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 5: Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question (however; the use of the full mark range may be limited according to the quality of the candidate responses seen). GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 6: Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should not be awarded with grade thresholds or grade descriptors in mind.

0976/12 Cambridge IGCSE (9–1) – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 3 of 21 Each question carries 25 marks. Candidates cannot earn above the maximum marks available within each sub section. The marking scheme attempts to give guidance about the requirements of each answer and lists a number of responses, which will earn marks along with the general principles to be applied when marking each question. It should be noted that candidates can earn marks if their answers are phrased differently provided they convey the same meaning as those in the mark scheme. THE CANDIDATES DO NOT NEED TO USE THE SAME WORDING TO EARN MARKS. The notation ‘etc.’ at the end of an answer in the mark scheme signifies that there may well be other correct responses or examples that can be given credit. Providing the statement is true, relevant to the question asked and not repetition of a previous point made credit should be given. A point made within one sub-section which is an answer to the question set in a different sub-section should not be given credit as each sub-section asks different questions which require independent answers. The mark scheme uses semi colons (;) to separate marks and diagonals to separate alternative answers. During coordination the mark scheme is modified to add points agreed after discussion or to delete any points not allowed. All examiners should ensure that their modified scheme is fully up-to-date before marking begins. Marking Mechanics. Point marking is used for sections (a) and (b) of each question, although marks are available in specified questions for development of appropriate points. Ticks should be used to clearly indicate where a mark has been allowed. Where a development point has been allowed the symbol ‘DEV’ should be placed adjacent to the tick. The number of ticks should always be equal to the total number of marks awarded. Only one development mark for each mark scheme point please. Where a candidate makes a point which is not quite sufficient for credit an upturned ‘V’ insert symbol should be used. If after careful consideration a mark is awarded which gives ‘benefit of doubt’ to the candidate, the letter ‘J’ should be placed adjacent to the tick (i.e. the candidate has ‘just’ achieved the mark). Crosses are acceptable to signify wrong answers and the letters ‘IR/IRRL’ should be used to indicate those which are irrelevant. Levels of response marking is used for section (c) of each question. Thus, it is the quality of the response that determines which level an answer has achieved rather than the quantity of statements contained within it. However, once assigned to a level the mark achieved within that level is determined by the number of points made. Levels 1 and 2 are distinguished by whether statements are simple (level 1) or developed/elaborated (level 2). A candidate can immediately enter L2 by making developed points without making any L1 statements. In order to achieve L3 a candidate must have already reached the top end of L2 – in addition their answer should have a clear example and if the answer is place specific as well (7 marks). Highlight place specific detail. Where statements are assigned levels by the examiner this should be indicated by the use of L1 and L2 next to the statements. Ticks should not be used on answers that are marked using levels of response marking. L1 annotation should be removed once a L2 is awarded for an answer. L3 annotation is not used. There is no need for a summary level at the end of a response.

0976/12 Cambridge IGCSE (9–1) – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 4 of 21 Summary: Level 1 (1 to 3 marks): 1 simple statement (1 mark) 2 simple statements (2 marks) 3 simple statements (3 marks) Level 2 (4 to 6 marks): 1 developed statement (4 marks) 2 developed statements (5 marks) 3 or more developed statements with e.g. (6 marks) Level 3 (7 marks) 3 or more developed statements + named example with at least one piece of place specific detail. Note. The following guidelines apply when case studies are required in part (c) questions: 1 Level 2 statements must be developed/elaborated or related relevant ideas need to be linked. 2 The use of statistics is not an acceptable form of development, thus a simple statement with statistics is a Level 1 statement. The use of statistics alone can be credited as an alternative to a L1 written statement. 3 Place specific information is required as part of the criteria to achieve a Level 3 answer. This could relate to the location of the case study chosen or aspects of the study which make it authentic rather than simply generic (e.g. named places within the area, other specific factual detail, relevant statistics etc.). Requirements of each study will vary and your Team Leader will provide guidance. Please note that: – if the case study requires a country name the name of the continent in which it is located is not sufficient for the place specific requirement, however with more precision it would be acceptable (e.g. ‘Nigeria, located in Africa…’ is not sufficient but ‘Nigeria, located in West Africa’ is sufficient.) – if the case study requires the name of an area/town or city the name of the country in which it is located is not sufficient for the place specific requirement, however with more precision it would be acceptable (e.g. ‘Mumbai, located in India…’ is not sufficient but ‘Mumbai, located in Western India’ is sufficient.)

0976/12 Cambridge IGCSE (9–1) – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 5 of 21 Marking annotations Examiners must use the following annotations: Annotation Meaning Correct point Incorrect point Level 2 Level 1 Highlight Creditworthy part of an extended response or place specific detail Omission or further development/detail needed to gain credit J The point has ‘just’ been allowed/benefit of the doubt given Developed point LNK Linking 2 or more ideas or paired data together to gain a mark Appropriate example or case study given IR/IRRL Irrelevant Material that does not answer the question REP Idea has been repeated { } Brackets used to show where a point has or has not been awarded within a longer answer Highlighting a significant part of an extended response – can be used with another annotation e.g. or 1 Response has been seen but no credit given 2 Additional page has been checked

0976/12 Cambridge IGCSE (9–1) – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 6 of 21 Question Answer Marks 1(a)(i) Tunisia 1 mark 1 1(a)(ii) 85 840 907 divided by 783 356 =109.58 (109.6) 2 @ 1 mark 2 1(a)(iii) Ideas such as; Variation in relief/terrain/population concentrated on lower/flatter land (in valleys)/few people live in higher/steeper areas (mountains)/danger of avalanche/landslide in mountains/more expensive to build in mountains; Variation in soil fertility/farming/farming is more productive in areas of higher soil fertility/valley/flat land/farming is not possible on rocky/infertile/steeper/higher land/variation in soil quality; Variation in weather/climate/high mountains are more exposed/valleys are sheltered/mountains have harsher/colder climate; Variation in access/valleys are communication routes/many areas in mountains are hard to reach/remote/isolated etc. Variation in availability of work; NOTE The answer must address the uneven distribution NOT just why the entire area is sparsely populated. 3 @ 1 mark 3 1(a)(iv) Ideas such as; Rainfall is low/aridity/area or land dry/drought; It is hot/cold at night so it is uncomfortable to live/people suffer heatstroke etc; Lack of/expense of obtaining water/water supplies/die of thirst; Agriculture is not productive/easy to establish/no fertile land/no soil/can’t grow food; Need for irrigation; Lack of (natural) resources/mines or other examples; Lack of jobs; Poor transport/communications/remote/inaccessible; Lack of flat land/rocky/steep slopes/mountainous/uneven; Sandstorms; 4 @ 1 mark 4

0976/12 Cambridge IGCSE (9–1) – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 7 of 21 Question Answer Marks 1(b)(i) Ideas such as: Flat land; Good road/rail/communications/transport (on land); Industrial development/business/industry; Port/trade/transport by sea; Tourist industry; Fishing; Moderating influence of sea; 3 @ 1 mark 3 1(b)(ii) Ideas such as: Difficult to find housing/cramped houses/overcrowded houses/squatter settlements/homelessness/high house prices/lack of privacy/lack of living space; Spread of disease; E.g. COVID etc. (dev) Lack of employment/low pay; Causes crime/poverty (only credit as dev); Lack of/pressure on/cannot afford health services; Lack of/pressure on/cannot afford education; Lack of food/farmland/cannot afford food; Lack of/cannot afford water; Pollution of water; Waterborne diseases; E.g. Cholera/typhoid etc. (dev); Poor sanitation/hygiene; Traffic congestion/jams/too much (lots of) traffic; Air pollution (or named gas)/smog/car exhausts; Causes breathing difficulties (dev); Noise/or example such as car horns; Lack of space for recreation; Lack of space for waste disposal; Etc. 5 @ 1 mark or development 5

0976/12 Cambridge IGCSE (9–1) – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 8 of 21 Question Answer Marks 1(c) Levels marking Level 1 (1–3 marks) Statements including limited detail which describe a population policy used to influence growth rate. e.g. One child Policy; incentives/penalties Level 2 (4–6 marks) More developed statements which describe how a population policy is used to influence growth rate NOT the impacts. NOTE Credit different approaches within a policy, so for example, when marking a China One Child Policy answer, ideas will often cover the following: Incentives; Penalties; Exceptions; Enforcement; NOTE If another country is given generally apply the same principle, but other ideas in the Content Guide will be relevant e.g. gender equality acts or educating women etc. (NOTE Max 5 if no named or inappropriate example) Level 3 (7 marks) Uses named example. Comprehensive and accurate statements including some place specific reference which can be named parts of the chosen country, Population data, reference to a specific named policy/specific details about it etc. Content Guide: Answers can refer to anti-natal policy, pro-natal policy and could include ideas such as: e.g. China one child policy/limit number of babies/restrict number of children Make (free) contraceptives available Examples of specific incentives (e.g. free education, free health care) Examples of disincentives (e.g. if have a 2nd child e.g. fines, lose jobs reduce benefits for people having children e.g. reduced maternity leave/child benefit/child tax credits) Free goods e.g. radios in India Marriage regulations e.g. late marriage/must seek permission to marry etc. Educate people about contraception Legalise abortion Introduce pensions for elderly Educate women to encourage them to take jobs or careers Gender equality acts Advertise the benefits of small families Etc. (The reverse ideas would apply to pro-natal policies) NOTE: Development should refer to the policy itself not reasons or explanations for it.

0976/12 Cambridge IGCSE (9–1) – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 9 of 21 Question Answer Marks 2(a)(i) Urbanisation 1 mark 1 2(a)(ii) Peru…Germany…Ghana All 3 in correct order = 2 marks 1/2 in correct order = 1 mark 0 in correct order = 0 marks 2 @ 1 mark 2 2(a)(iii) Ideas such as: Positive relationship/higher the GNP per person the higher the percentage living in urban areas (reserve); Relationship is not perfect/not very strong/weak/there are many exceptions (reserve); Credit 1 mark max for illustration by reference to continents: E.g. 1 High percentage live in urban areas in countries with high GNP in Europe/Asia and low percentage live in urban areas in countries with low GNP in Africa/highest percentage live in urban areas in Asia and highest GNP is in Asia/lowest percentage live in urban areas in Africa and lowest GNP is in Africa etc.; E.g. 2 There are some countries with low GNP in Africa with a higher percentage living in urban areas than in some European countries with high GNP/some countries in different continents have the same percentage in urban areas but different GNP. 3 @ 1 mark 3 2(a)(iv) Ideas such as: Rural to urban migration: They can seek employment/earn money or example; Better education; More health care/doctors/hospitals etc.; Better/piped/greater/clean water supply; Better access to electricity; Better internet access/wifi/mobile phone networks; Better food supply; Bright lights/greater variety of shops or e.g./entertainment or e.g.; Specified natural disasters may affect rural areas; War/conflict/persecution in rural areas; Mechanisation of farming etc. NOTE Accept urban pulls or rural pushes but no double credit. 4 @ 1 mark 4

0976/12 Cambridge IGCSE (9–1) – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 10 of 21 Question Answer Marks 2(b)(i) Ideas such as: Stable/no change up to 1940/1950; Slow rate of increase from 1940/1950 to 1960/1962; More rapid increase/increasing rate of increase after 1960/1962; Very rapid after 1980/2000; Stable/slows down/no change in 2006/2008; Statistics to support any of above statements (1 mark MAX – reserved); 3 @ 1 mark 3 2(b)(ii) Ideas such as: Farmers will be able to afford fertilisers/machinery/more land/animals etc.; And invest in irrigation; To improve food supply/increase output; Improved quality of life/standard of living in rural areas; Some/they may not move to the urban areas/reduces rural to urban migration; Some/they may not want to get into debt/may not be able to pay back loans; May still have to move if farming is being mechanised; May still have to move if farmland is being lost to other land uses; There will still be more other jobs in the urban areas; Education/healthcare in the countryside will still be worse than in the cities; Lack of market for farm produce in rural area etc. 5 @ 1 mark or development 5

0976/12 Cambridge IGCSE (9–1) – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 11 of 21 Question Answer Marks 2(c) Levels marking Level 1 (1–3 marks) Statements including limited detail which describe how the authorities have attempted to improve the lives of people living in squatter settlements. Level 2 (4–6 marks) Uses named example. More developed statements which explain how the authorities have attempted to improve the lives of people living in squatter settlements. (NOTE Max 5 if no named or inappropriate example) Level 3 (7 marks) Uses named example. Comprehensive and accurate statements which explain how the authorities have attempted to improve the lives of people living in squatter settlements including some place specific reference. Content Guide: Answers should focus on housing and are likely to include reference to: Building new/low-cost housing/homes/flats Self-help schemes Site and services schemes Installing infrastructure (roads/electricity/piped water/sanitation) Development of new towns/satellite towns Service provision such as refuse collection/education/health care Specified relevant job creation; Security improvements; Etc., Place specific reference is likely to consist of: Locational details, Named parts of urban area Specific details of the improvement schemes etc. 7

0976/12 Cambridge IGCSE (9–1) – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 12 of 21 Question Answer Marks 3(a)(i) To protect buildings on top of the cliff 1 mark 1 3(a)(ii) Ideas such as: Soft/unconsolidated/weak rock/clay; Large/destructive (backwash stronger than swash)/strong waves/large amount of backwash; Lack of protection measures; Unvegetated cliff etc.; 2 @ 1 mark 2 3(a)(iii) Ideas such as: Beach became smaller/narrower; No supply of pebbles/rocks etc. from cliff erosion; Scouring of beach as a result of waves reflecting from sea wall; Amount of longshore drift material reduced; Etc. 3 @ 1 mark 3 3(a)(iv) Build groynes along the beach E.g. 1 Longshore drift is prevented/beach material is trapped (1) … so the width/height of the beach increases/protects the cliffs (2) E.g. 2 the width of the beach increases (1) … so the cliffs are protected (2) put a line of boulders at the base of the sea wall e.g. 1 Adds protection to the sea wall/strengthens the wall/prevents wall collapsing (1) … so the waves break on the boulders rather than the wall (2) e.g. 2 the power of the waves is reduced (1) … so less erosion at the base of the sea wall (2) NOTE Max 2 marks for each method. 1 mark for a simple idea with a 2nd mark for development of it. 4 @ 1 mark 4 3(b)(i) Differences such as: 3.2 has a pebble/stones/rock beach, 3.3 is sand; 3.2 has a more (steeply) sloping beach/3.2 is sloping but 3.3 is flat; 3.3 has some areas of wave cut platform/rock outcrops on beach but 3.2 does not/3.2 has an isolated rock but 3.3 has several large rock outcrops across the beach; 3.3 goes further inland/longer than 3.2; 3.2 is wider/has headlands which are further apart etc. NOTE Answer must be comparative 3 @ 1 mark 3

0976/12 Cambridge IGCSE (9–1) – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 13 of 21 Question Answer Marks 3(b)(ii) Ideas such as: Differential erosion/rocks along the coast erode at different rates; Different rock types outcrop along the coast/discordant coast; Headland likely to be a harder rock or e.g.; It will not erode as rapidly/more resistant to erosion; Such as hydraulic action/abrasion (dev); Bays likely to be softer/unconsolidated rock/clay; Which erode rapidly/less resistant to erosion; Etc. 5 @ 1 mark or development 5 3(c) Levels marking Level 1 (1–3 marks) Statements including limited detail which explain the formation of an arch and/or a stack at the coast. Level 2 (4–6 marks) More developed or linked statements which explain the formation of an arch and/or a stack at the coast. (NOTE Max 5 if no labelled diagram) Level 3 (7 marks) Comprehensive and accurate answer, including a labelled diagram, which explains the formation of an arch and a stack at the coast. Content Guide: Processes of erosion such as hydraulic action, abrasion and corrosion Widening of crack/line of weakness in cliff Formation of cave(s) Increase in size of caves Erosion of back-to-back caves Collapse of roof of arch Etc. 7

0976/12 Cambridge IGCSE (9–1) – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 14 of 21 Question Answer Marks 4(a)(i) Stevenson screen 1 mark 1 4(a)(ii) Barometer; Hygrometer/wet and dry bulb thermometer 2 @ 1 mark 2 4(a)(iii) Ideas such as: Away from buildings/in the open; Away from trees/tall vegetation; In a secure area/behind a fence; On an area of grass/not on concrete; Flat/gently sloping land; Etc. 3 @ 1 mark 3 4(a)(iv) is made of wood Wood does not conduct/absorb heat/temperature has a double roof Insulation/protects instruments from the heat of the sun/sunlight/prevents overheating has one-metre-long legs (Measures air temperature) not temperature at ground level has slatted sides So air can pass through 4 @ 1 mark 4 4(b)(i) Differences such as: 4.2 white, 4.3 grey/4.3 is darker; 4.2 only covers part of the sky/further apart, 4.3 covers all the sky; 4.2 higher in sky; 4.2 cirrus/altostratus/cirrocumulus 4.3 stratus/ cumulonimbus/nimbostratus/stratocumulus; 4.3 more likely to bring rain, 4.2 fair weather clouds; 4.2 thin but 4.3 thick/dense; NOTE Accept fig 4.2 as ‘the 1st one’ and 4.3 as ‘the 2nd one’. 3 @ 1 mark 3

0976/12 Cambridge IGCSE (9–1) – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 15 of 21 Question Answer Marks 4(b)(ii) Ideas such as: Place in an open/unsheltered area/flat land/stable ground/on grass; Away from trees/buildings; Sunk into the ground/protrudes above ground level/30cm to 1 metre above the ground/slightly above the ground; Check daily/after a month; Check at same time; Melt any snow/ice in funnel; Pour/put water from rain gauge into measuring cylinder; Take measurement from cylinder/from scale on side; Empty water after measuring it; Etc. 5 @ 1 mark or development 5 4(c) Levels marking Level 1 (1–3 marks) Statements including limited detail which explain the causes of a flood. Level 2 (4–6 marks) Uses named example. More developed or linked statements which explain the causes of a flood. (NOTE Max 5 if no named or inappropriate example) Level 3 (7 marks) Comprehensive and accurate statements which explain the causes of a flood, including place specific information. Content Guide: Answers are likely to refer to: Heavy rain/storms Rain for a long period of time Melting snow/ice Deforestation Urban growth/building houses/road building Etc. Place specific reference is likely to consist of: Locational details/dates/times Places along river Specific details/amounts of precipitation Etc. 7

0976/12 Cambridge IGCSE (9–1) – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 16 of 21 Question Answer Marks 5(a)(i) Africa 1 mark 1 5(a)(ii) Starvation A severe deficiency in caloric energy intake/lack of food/not enough food to stay alive Malnutrition When a person`s diet does not contain the right amount of nutrients/lack of a balanced diet/getting too little or too much of certain nutrients/not eating nutritious food/lack of nutrients 2 @ 1 mark 2 5(a)(iii) Drought Somalia/Ethiopia/Angola/Madagascar/Afghanistan/Haiti Floods Democratic Rep. of Congo/South Sudan/Sudan/Somalia Locusts Angola/Zimbabwe/Ethiopia/Somalia/Sudan 3 @ 1 mark 3 5(a)(iv) Ideas such as: Crops/plants will not grow/kills crops/reduces yields/crops cannot survive/there are less crops/crops wilt; Water not available for irrigation; Weakness of farmers/farmers cannot work/farmers died because of dehydration; Livestock/animals die/there are less animals/fish die; Communities have to spend more time fetching water from distant places rather than cultivating; Exports of cash crops reduced so no money for food imports; Food becomes more expensive; Etc. 4 @ 1 mark 4 5(b)(i) Ideas such as: People will not be able to afford imported food/imported food will be expensive/tariffs may have to be paid on imports; Increases debt/causes (balance of payment) deficit; Food imports might be cut in war/political disputes/sanctions; Increases dependency; It results in lack of development of home production; Poor transport/communications within the country; Pollution of air/water by transport; Etc. 3 @ 1 mark 3

0976/12 Cambridge IGCSE (9–1) – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 17 of 21 Question Answer Marks 5(b)(ii) Candidates can choose any of methods B, C or D (no mark). Marks to be awarded for advantages of chosen strategy and disadvantages of those rejected. Advantages of chosen methods Increase areas of farmland by removing forest (Method B) More land to grow crops/produce food; Soils likely to be fertile; Sell the wood; Work available; Reduce production of cash crops for export (Method C) Land used for food production/local; Cash crops more likely to exhaust the soil; Reduction of ‘food miles’/air pollution/transport noise; Increase the manufacture of fertiliser (Method D): Fertiliser will be cheaper/more accessible than imported supplies; Yields of crops/plants will increase; Farmers will earn more money to invest in other technologies e.g. irrigation/insecticides; Jobs will be created in the factories making fertilisers; Disadvantages of rejected methods Increase areas of farmland by removing forest (Method B) Removing forests will deplete resources/wood supplies/hunting grounds etc.; Removing forests will increase the threat of air pollution/global warming/climate change/carbon footprint; Removing forests could cause flooding to nearby areas; Removing forests could result in soil erosion/desertification; Reduce production of cash crops for export (Method C) Reducing cash crop production would increase trade deficits; reduce exports/money earned; Loss of profit work for plantation owners; Etc. Increase the manufacture of fertiliser (Method D): Farmers cannot afford it; Eutrophication/chemicals may damage the land/soil/environment; Lack of money/technology for production; Building of factories may lead to deforestation; NOTE Max 2 on advantages of chosen method and disadvantages of each rejected method 5 @ 1 mark or development 5

0976/12 Cambridge IGCSE (9–1) – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 18 of 21 Question Answer Marks 5(c) Levels marking Level 1 (1–3 marks) Statements including limited detail which describe agricultural land use. Level 2 (4–6 marks) Uses named example More developed or linked statements which describe and explain agricultural land use. (NOTE Max 5 if no named or inappropriate example such as a country) Level 3 (7 marks) Uses named example Comprehensive and accurate statements, which describe and explain agricultural land use, including place specific information. Content Guide: Description should refer to land use such as Crops Livestock Explanations are likely to refer to: Soil Climate Relief Market availability Accessibility Workforce Availability of finance Tradition Education about agricultural practices Etc. Place specific reference is likely to consist of: Named locational details Specific soil types Specific climatic details Named location of market areas Specific details of transport routes Etc. 7

0976/12 Cambridge IGCSE (9–1) – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 19 of 21 Question Answer Marks 6(a)(i) A business which operates in more than one country/there are factories/outlets in many countries/parts of the World/there is a global spread of factories/outlets 1 mark 1 6(a)(ii) China Vietnam 2 @ 1 mark 2 6(a)(iii) Ideas such as: Widespread/all continents/across the World; Uneven/clustered; More in Northern hemisphere/the north; More in east/most in Asia; Many in the Americas/North and South America/Europe; A few/small number/only 2 in Africa/anomaly in Africa/Australasia; Etc. 3 @ 1 mark 3 6(a)(iv) Advantages such as: Employment/earn money; Regular/higher wage; Improved skills; Improvement of roads; Investment in electricity/water supply network; Building of schools/health care facilities/housing; Multiplier effect or example; Brings in money/foreign currency/economic development; Etc. Disadvantages such as: Exploitation/low wages/long hours; Child labour; Unsafe working conditions; Atmospheric/water/noise pollution; Loss of tribal lands/hunting grounds/homelands/farmland; May reduce profit of/force closure of smaller businesses; Pressure on water/electricity supply; Exhaustion/overuse of raw materials; Land degradation/land pollution; Dependence/loss of work if company leaves the country; Leakage of money/profits taken abroad; Influencing of government decision making; Etc. 2 + 2 marks 4 @ 1 mark 4

0976/12 Cambridge IGCSE (9–1) – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 20 of 21 Question Answer Marks 6(b)(i) easier for workers to move from country to country = increased labour mobility shipping large amounts of goods in large sealed containers = containerisation reduced taxes/customs duties on imported goods = lower tariffs 3 @ 1 mark 3 6(b)(ii) Ideas such as: Use of telephone makes it easy to speak directly to suppliers/buyers; Computers/Internet enables instant email communications/working online; Computers/Internet enables virtual meetings/online education to take place; Internet/TV advertising/online shopping (increases global demand for specific products) or example; Ordering/accounting/instant movement of finances can take place online; Development of transport technology or e.g. (air, ships)/faster transport; Rapid movement of materials/products/people; Reduced cost of international transport or e.g.; Automation/mechanisation enables workers to perform jobs in any part of the World with little education/training; Etc. 5 @ 1 mark or development 5

0976/12 Cambridge IGCSE (9–1) – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 21 of 21 Question Answer Marks 6(c) Levels marking Level 1 (1–3 marks) Statements including limited detail which describe the location of a factory or industrial area. (E.g. close to market, near raw materials) Level 2 (4–6 marks) Uses named example. More developed or linked statements which describe and explain the location of a factory or industrial area. (NOTE Max 5 if no named or inappropriate example such as a country) Level 3 (7 marks) Uses named example. Comprehensive and accurate statements, which describe and explain the location of a factory or industrial area including some place specific reference. Content Guide: Answers could refer to: Raw materials Market Power supplies Communications Inertia workforce Etc. Place specific reference is likely to consist of: Locational details Specific details of industry Named/numbered roads Etc. 7