Cambridge IGCSE Geography 0460 — 2024 Oct/Nov Paper 1 · Variant 1

This document has 28 pages. Any blank pages are indicated. [Turn over * 6 9 1 2 2 3 2 0 6 1 * Cambridge IGCSE™ GEOGRAPHY 0460/11 Paper 1 Geographical Themes October/November 2024 1 hour 45 minutes You must answer on the question paper. You will need: Insert (enclosed) Calculator Ruler INSTRUCTIONS ● Answer three questions in total, one from each section. ● Use a black or dark blue pen. You may use an HB pencil for any diagrams or graphs. ● Write your name, centre number and candidate number in the boxes at the top of the page. ● Write your answer to each question in the space provided. ● Do not use an erasable pen or correction fluid. ● Do not write on any bar codes. ● If additional space is needed, you should use the lined pages at the end of this booklet; the question number or numbers must be clearly shown. INFORMATION ● The total mark for this paper is 75. ● The number of marks for each question or part question is shown in brackets [ ]. ● The insert contains additional resources referred to in the questions. LEDCs – Less Economically Developed Countries MEDCs – More Economically Developed Countries DC (DE/SW) 336925/4 © UCLES 2024 ,










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2 0460/11/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 Section A Answer one question from this section. 1 (a) Study Fig. 1.1, information about changes in the population structure of China, a country in Asia, between 1960 and 2040 (estimated). 1960 0% 25% 50% 75% 100% percentage of total population 0% 25% 50% 75% 100% percentage of total population years 0–14 age (years) Key 1980 2000 2020 2040 15–64 65+ Fig. 1.1 (i) What percentage of China’s population in 1960 were 0–14 years old? …% [1] (ii) Complete Fig. 1.1, using the following estimates for the population in 2040. 0–14 years old = 15% 15–64 years old = 60% 65 years old and over = 25% [2] * 0000800000002 * ,










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3 0460/11/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 [Turn over (iii) Describe the changes which occurred in the percentage of people aged 0–14 years in China between 1960 and 2020. Use statistics to support your answer. … … … … … … [3] (iv) Suggest reasons for the expected increase in the percentage of people aged 65 years and over in China by 2040. … … … … … … … … [4] * 0000800000003 * ,










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4 0460/11/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 (b) Study Fig. 1.2, information about the population structure of rural areas and urban areas in China in 2020. female male 0 Urban number of people (millions) 20 40 0 to 4 5 to 9 10 to 14 15 to 19 20 to 24 25 to 29 30 to 34 35 to 39 40 to 44 45 to 49 50 to 54 55 to 59 60 to 64 65 to 69 70 to 74 75 to 79 80 to 84 85 to 89 90 and above number of people (millions) 0 to 4 5 to 9 10 to 14 15 to 19 20 to 24 25 to 29 30 to 34 35 to 39 40 to 44 45 to 49 50 to 54 55 to 59 60 to 64 65 to 69 70 to 74 75 to 79 80 to 84 85 to 89 90 and above 0 Rural 20 20 40 40 0 female male young dependants economically active old dependants young dependants economically active old dependants 20 40 0 Fig. 1.2 * 0000800000004 * ,










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5 0460/11/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 [Turn over (i) Compare the population structures of rural areas and urban areas in China in 2020. Do not use statistics in your answer. … … … … … … [3] (ii) There have been large increases in the numbers of old dependants in China. Explain why this may cause problems. … … … … … … … … … … [5] * 0000800000005 * ,










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6 0460/11/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 (c) For a named country you have studied, describe the causes of under-population. Name of country … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … [7] [Total: 25] * 0000800000006 * ,










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7 0460/11/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 [Turn over 2 (a) Study Figs. 2.1, 2.2 and 2.3 (Insert), photographs of different urban land-use zones. (i) Identify the land-use zone shown in Fig. 2.1. Underline the correct answer from the following list. industrial residential retailing open space [1] (ii) Describe one similarity and one difference between the buildings shown in Figs. 2.2 and 2.3. similarity … … difference … … [2] (iii) Suggest reasons why traffic congestion may occur in the areas shown in Figs. 2.2 and 2.3. … … … … … … [3] (iv) Describe the problems which traffic congestion may cause in urban areas. … … … … … … … … [4] * 0000800000007 * ,










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8 0460/11/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 (b) Study Fig. 2.4 (Insert), a map of land use in Milan, an urban area in Italy (an MEDC in Europe). (i) Using evidence from Fig. 2.4 only, describe the distribution of areas of low-density housing. … … … … … … [3] (ii) Lack of good-quality housing is a problem for large numbers of people in Milan. The following three strategies are being considered to reduce the problem. Strategy A: build high-rise housing on derelict industrial land close to the main railway line Strategy B: build low-rise apartments on areas of open space in the inner suburbs Strategy C: renovate areas of old, low-quality housing near industrial zones Which of the strategies do you consider to be the best one to reduce housing problems in Milan? Justify your answer by referring to the advantages of the strategy you have chosen and the disadvantages of those you rejected. strategy chosen … justification … … … … … … … … … … [5] * 0000800000008 * ,










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9 0460/11/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 [Turn over (c) For a named urban area you have studied, describe the problems caused by urban sprawl for people and the natural environment. Name of urban area … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … [7] [Total: 25] * 0000800000009 * ,










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10 0460/11/ O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 Section B Answer one question from this section. 3 (a) Study Fig. 3.1, information about a drainage basin. Fig. 3.1 (i) What is a drainage basin? … … [1] (ii) Put the following processes in order according to their speed of flow. groundwater flow overland flow throughflow first … fastest second … third … slowest [2] * 0000800000010 * ,










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11 0460/11/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 [Turn over (iii) Explain why large amounts of overland flow may result in flooding in a drainage basin. … … … … … … [3] (iv) Explain how the following two strategies reduce flooding in a drainage basin. planting more trees on valley sides … … … … building reservoirs in upland areas … … … … [4] (b) Study Fig. 3.2 (Insert), a photograph showing a river and its valley. (i) Describe the features of the valley shown in Fig. 3.2. … … … … … … [3] * 0000800000011 * ,









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12 0460/11/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 (ii) Explain how the river shown in Fig. 3.2 will be eroding its bed and banks. You should refer to different erosional processes. … … … … … … … … … … [5] * 0000800000012 * ,









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13 0460/11/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 [Turn over (c) Explain how a waterfall is formed. You should include a labelled diagram or diagrams. … … … … … … … … … … … … … … [7] [Total: 25] * 0000800000013 * ,









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14 0460/11/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 4 (a) Study Fig. 4.1, a graph showing the climate of the Simpson Desert in Australia. Fig. 4.1 (i) Complete Fig. 4.1, using the following information. The Simpson Desert has an average rainfall in December of 7 mm. [1] (ii) Calculate the range of temperature for the Simpson Desert in January. You should show your calculations. = … °C [2] (iii) Suggest reasons why the Simpson Desert has a wide range of temperature. … … … … … … [3] * 0000800000014 * ,









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15 0460/11/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 [Turn over (iv) Explain why rainfall amounts are low in hot deserts. … … … … … … … … [4] * 0000800000015 * ,









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16 0460/11/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 (b) Study Fig. 4.2, a diagram showing different types of hot desert vegetation. 1 2 3 4 5 water table groundwater rainfall water date palms depth below ground surface (m) bushes cacti grasses Fig. 4.2 (i) Using Fig. 4.2 only, describe three differences between the bushes and cacti. 1 … … 2 … … 3 … … [3] * 0000800000016 * ,









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17 0460/11/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 [Turn over (ii) Explain how the vegetation which grows in hot deserts can survive for a long time without any rainfall. … … … … … … … … … … [5] * 0000800000017 * ,









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18 0460/11/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 (c) For a named area of tropical rainforest you have studied, describe the impacts of deforestation on the local natural environment. Name of area … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … [7] [Total: 25] * 0000800000018 * ,









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19 0460/11/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 [Turn over BLANK PAGE * 0000800000019 * ,









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20 0460/11/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 Section C Answer one question from this section. 5 (a) Study Fig. 5.1 (Insert), a map showing the HDI of India’s states. India is an LEDC in south Asia. (i) What do the initials HDI mean? H… D… I… [1] (ii) Using Fig. 5.1, name an Indian state with an HDI of 0.551–0.600 … a state in the east of India with an HDI of 0.651–0.700. … [2] (iii) Name the three indicators which are used to calculate the HDI. 1 … 2 … 3 … [3] (iv) Suggest why some states in India have a higher HDI than other states. … … … … … … … … [4] * 0000800000020 * ,










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21 0460/11/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 [Turn over (b) Study Fig. 5.2 (Insert), a photograph taken in Mumbai, India. (i) Using evidence from Fig. 5.2, suggest what inequalities exist in Mumbai. … … … … … … [3] (ii) Many transnational corporations (TNCs) are located in the major urban areas in India. Suggest the advantages and disadvantages of these transnational corporations for people who live in cities such as Mumbai. … … … … … … … … … … [5] * 0000800000021 * ,









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22 0460/11/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 (c) Describe the features and global links of a named transnational corporation (TNC) that you have studied. Name of transnational corporation (TNC) … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … [7] [Total: 25] * 0000800000022 * ,









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23 0460/11/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 [Turn over 6 (a) Study Fig. 6.1 (Insert), a map of the Meru National Park in Kenya, an LEDC in east Africa. (i) Estimate the area of Meru National Park in square kilometres. Underline the correct answer from the following list. 500 km2 1000 km2 3000 km2 10 000 km2 [1] (ii) What is the straight line distance and direction from Ura Gate to the National Park Headquarters? distance … km compass direction … [2] (iii) Using Fig. 6.1 only, identify three tourist attractions that have been provided in Meru National Park. 1 … … 2 … … 3 … … [3] (iv) Suggest what problems the tourist industry may cause for local Kenyan people. … … … … … … … … [4] * 0000800000023 * ,









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24 0460/11/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 (b) Study Fig. 6.2 (Insert), a map showing national parks in Namibia, an LEDC in Africa. (i) Describe the location of the following three national parks in Namibia. Dorob … … Bwabwata … … Etosha … … [3] (ii) Explain how national parks help to reduce risks to the natural environment in areas where tourism is important. … … … … … … … … … … [5] * 0000800000024 * ,









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25 0460/11/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 (c) For a named example of a tourist area you have studied, describe the benefits of tourism for local people. Name of tourist area studied… … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … [7] [Total: 25] * 0000800000025 * ,









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26 0460/11/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 Additional page If you use the following page to complete the answer to any question, the question number must be clearly shown. … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … * 0000800000026 * ,









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27 0460/11/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 Additional page If you use the following page to complete the answer to any question, the question number must be clearly shown. … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … * 0000800000027 * ,









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28 0460/11/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 The boundaries and names shown, the designations used and the presentation of material on any maps contained in this question paper/insert do not imply official endorsement or acceptance by Cambridge Assessment International Education concerning the legal status of any country, territory, or area or any of its authorities, or of the delimitation of its frontiers or boundaries. Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity. To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series. Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge. BLANK PAGE * 0000800000028 * ,









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This document consists of 23 printed pages. © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 [Turn over Cambridge IGCSE™ GEOGRAPHY 0460/11 Paper 1 Geographical Themes October/November 2024 MARK SCHEME Maximum Mark: 75 Published This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have considered the acceptability of alternative answers. Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for Teachers. Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes. Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2024 series for most Cambridge IGCSE, Cambridge International A and AS Level components, and some Cambridge O Level components.

0460/11 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 2 of 23 Generic Marking Principles These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers. They should be applied alongside the specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptions for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these marking principles. GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 1: Marks must be awarded in line with: • the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question • the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question • the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts. GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 2: Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions). GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 3: Marks must be awarded positively: • marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit is given for valid answers which go beyond the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme, referring to your Team Leader as appropriate • marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do • marks are not deducted for errors • marks are not deducted for omissions • answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these features are specifically assessed by the question as indicated by the mark scheme. The meaning, however, should be unambiguous. GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 4: Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed instructions or in the application of generic level descriptors. GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 5: Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question (however; the use of the full mark range may be limited according to the quality of the candidate responses seen). GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 6: Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should not be awarded with grade thresholds or grade descriptors in mind.

0460/11 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 3 of 23 Each question carries 25 marks. Candidates cannot earn above the maximum marks available within each sub section. The marking scheme attempts to give guidance about the requirements of each answer and lists a number of responses, which will earn marks along with the general principles to be applied when marking each question. It should be noted that candidates can earn marks if their answers are phrased differently provided they convey the same meaning as those in the mark scheme. THE CANDIDATES DO NOT NEED TO USE THE SAME WORDING TO EARN MARKS. The notation ‘etc.’ at the end of an answer in the mark scheme signifies that there may well be other correct responses or examples that can be given credit. Providing the statement is true, relevant to the question asked and not repetition of a previous point made credit should be given. A point made within one sub-section which is an answer to the question set in a different sub-section should not be given credit as each sub-section asks different questions which require independent answers. The mark scheme uses semi colons (;) to separate marks and diagonals to separate alternative answers. During coordination the mark scheme is modified to add points agreed after discussion or to delete any points not allowed. All examiners should ensure that their modified scheme is fully up-to-date before marking begins. Marking Mechanics. Point marking is used for sections (a) and (b) of each question, although marks are available in specified questions for development of appropriate points. Ticks should be used to clearly indicate where a mark has been allowed. Where a development point has been allowed the symbol “DEV” should be placed adjacent to the tick. The number of ticks should always be equal to the total number of marks awarded. Only one development mark for each mark scheme point please. Where a candidate makes a point which is not quite sufficient for credit an upturned ‘V’ insert symbol should be used. If after careful consideration a mark is awarded which gives ‘benefit of doubt’ to the candidate, the letter ‘J’ should be placed adjacent to the tick (i.e. the candidate has ‘just’ achieved the mark). Crosses are acceptable to signify wrong answers and the letters ‘IR/IRRL’ should be used to indicate those which are irrelevant. Levels of response marking is used for section (c) of each question. Thus, it is the quality of the response that determines which level an answer has achieved rather than the quantity of statements contained within it. However, once assigned to a level the mark achieved within that level is determined by the number of points made. Levels 1 and 2 are distinguished by whether statements are simple (level 1) or developed/elaborated (level 2). A candidate can immediately enter L2 by making developed points without making any L1 statements. In order to achieve L3 a candidate must have already reached the top end of L2 – in addition their answer should have a clear example and if the answer is place specific as well (7 marks). Highlight place specific detail. Where statements are assigned levels by the examiner this should be indicated by the use of L1 and L2 next to the statements. Ticks should not be used on answers that are marked using levels of response marking. L1 annotation should be removed once a L2 is awarded for an answer. L3 annotation is not used. There is no need for a summary level at the end of a response.

0460/11 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 4 of 23 Summary: Level 1 (1 to 3 marks): 1 simple statement (1 mark) 2 simple statements (2 marks) 3 simple statements (3 marks) Level 2 (4 to 6 marks): 1 developed statement (4 marks) 2 developed statements (5 marks) 3 or more developed statements with e.g. (6 marks) Level 3 (7 marks) 3 or more developed statements + named example with at least one piece of place specific detail. Note. The following guidelines apply when case studies are required in part (c) questions: 1 Level 2 statements must be developed/elaborated or related relevant ideas need to be linked. 2 The use of statistics is not an acceptable form of development, thus a simple statement with statistics is a Level 1 statement. The use of statistics alone can be credited as an alternative to a L1 written statement. 3 Place specific information is required as part of the criteria to achieve a Level 3 answer. This could relate to the location of the case study chosen or aspects of the study which make it authentic rather than simply generic (e.g. named places within the area, other specific factual detail, relevant statistics etc.). Requirements of each study will vary and your Team Leader will provide guidance. Please note that: – if the case study requires a country name the name of the continent in which it is located is not sufficient for the place specific requirement, however with more precision it would be acceptable (e.g. ‘Nigeria, located in Africa…’ is not sufficient but ‘Nigeria, located in West Africa’ is sufficient.) – if the case study requires the name of an area/town or city the name of the country in which it is located is not sufficient for the place specific requirement, however with more precision it would be acceptable (e.g. ‘Mumbai, located in India…’ is not sufficient but ‘Mumbai, located in Western India’ is sufficient.)

0460/11 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 5 of 23 Marking annotations Examiners must use the following annotations: Annotation Meaning Correct point Incorrect point Level 2 Level 1 Highlight Creditworthy part of an extended response or place specific detail Omission or further development/detail needed to gain credit J The point has ‘just’ been allowed / benefit of the doubt given Developed point LNK Linking 2 or more ideas or paired data together to gain a mark Appropriate example or case study given IR/IRRL Irrelevant Material that does not answer the question REP Idea has been repeated { } Brackets used to show where a point has or has not been awarded within a longer answer Highlighting a significant part of an extended response – can be used with another annotation e.g. or 1. Response has been seen but no credit given 2. Additional page has been checked

0460/11 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 6 of 23 Question Answer Marks 1(a)(i) 39 (%) 1 mark 1 1(a)(ii) Completion of Fig. 1.1: • Dividing line at 15% (1 mark) • Dividing line at 75% (1 mark) NOTE If both points are correctly marked but lines/shading are incomplete = 1 Max 2 @ 1 mark 2 1(a)(iii) Ideas such as; Decreased overall (between 1960 and 2020); Constant between 1960/2–1977; OR Slight increase 1960–61/2 and levels off up to 1977/78; Decreases 1978/1979/1980–2005/6; Levels off after 2005/6/7; Supporting statistics e.g. 39% in 1960 to 16–18% in 2020/by 21–23% etc (1 mark RES); 3 @ 1 mark 3 1(a)(iv) Ideas such as: Falling/low death rates/less die; Longer life expectancy; Improving medical/health care; More doctors/medicines/hospitals/vaccinations; Improved water supply/sanitation/hygiene; Improved food supply; Knowledge about healthy lifestyle/exercising more; People can survive diseases/treat diseases; Less babies born/have fewer children/birth rate decreases/anti natal policies/One Child Policy; Pensions/care/retirement homes, etc. 4 @ 1 mark 4 1(b)(i) Ideas such as rural areas have: More young dependents/children/0–19; More old dependents/elderly/65+; OR more dependents = 1 mark; Less 20–40/younger economically active; More older economically active 40–64; OR smaller proportion of economically active; NOTE Accept reference to urban areas but no double credit. Needs to be comparative 3 @ 1 mark 3

0460/11 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 7 of 23 Question Answer Marks 1(b)(ii) Ideas such as: Reduction in size of workforce/not enough workers/not enough economically active; More pressure on economically active; Many people are not contributing to economy/producing/farming; Skills lost/less innovative workforce; Need for immigration; Immigration could cause tension; Increased dependency ratio; People have to care for elderly; Less taxpayers/less tax collected by government; Workforce needs to pay higher taxes; Spending on pensions/government payments for elderly; More pressure/higher spending/need to improve on health care/care homes/hospitals/not enough doctors/or e.g. (wheelchair), etc.; More difficult to defend country/recruit forces; Etc. 5 @ 1 mark or development 5

0460/11 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 8 of 23 Question Answer Marks 1(c) Levels marking Level 1 (1–3 marks) Statements including limited detail which describe the causes of under- population. Level 2 (4–6 marks) Uses named example. More developed statements which describe the causes of under-population. (NOTE Max 5 if no named or inappropriate example) Level 3 (7 marks) Uses named example. Comprehensive and accurate statements which describe the causes of under- population, including some place specific reference. Content Guide: Candidates are likely to refer to causes such as: Physical constraints on settlement e.g. climate/relief Emigration Disease War Famine Excess/lack of exploitation of resources Example: L1 – fewer people than resources Place specific reference is likely to consist of: Named places within the country Specific details of causes Statistics etc. 7

0460/11 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 9 of 23 Question Answer Marks 2(a)(i) Industrial 1 mark 1 2(a)(ii) Similarities such as: Businesses/shops/stalls; Buildings along road etc. Differences such as: Fig. 2.2 is low level/smaller, Fig. 2.3 is high rise/bigger; Fig. 2.3 has housing/office space, Fig. 2.2 is just retail/shops etc. 2 @ 1 mark 2 2(a)(iii) Ideas such as: Many people travel by car/own cars/people are reluctant to use/don`t use public transport/areas are poorly served by public transport/no public transport; Most workers are travelling at the same time/workplaces start and finish at same time; Many workplaces/businesses/services/shops are concentrated in certain areas of city; Road network is not designed to cope with volume of traffic/narrow roads; Roadworks; Lack of traffic control or e.g.; Many lorries/vans/deliveries/products moved by road; On street parking/not enough off-street parking etc. 3 @ 1 mark 3 2(a)(iv) Ideas such as: Delays/cause people to be late for work/school/to destination/time wasted; Results in loss of revenue for businesses/goods delivery delayed/decreases productivity; Cause road rage/frustration/stress; Uses more fuel; Increased accidents/danger to children; Delays emergency services; Result in atmospheric pollution/or named gas/asthma/lung disease; Increase noise levels etc. 4 @ 1 mark 4

0460/11 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 10 of 23 Question Answer Marks 2(b)(i) Ideas such as: Uneven; Clustered; Widespread; In large blocks; In a ring/circle/in all directions from centre; Except in NE; Around the outer part/outskirts of Milan/away/far from CBD/rural urban fringe; 5–20 km from centre etc. 3 @ 1 mark 3

0460/11 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 11 of 23 Question Answer Marks 2(b)(ii) Answer will depend on strategy selected (no mark for selection). Marks to be awarded for advantages of chosen strategy and disadvantages of those rejected. Advantages E.g. Strategy A – build high-rise housing: Many people can be housed in a small area; Land is not currently being used; Will clear up derelict land/improve the area aesthetically; Location close to railway will enable residents to travel to work/CBD; Removal of unused land prevents its use for illegal activity e.g. gangs/drug taking etc. Strategy B Land currently not being used; People don’t need to travel long distances to work; New buildings will have utilities or e.g.; Benefits associated with low rise living or e.g.; Removal of unused land prevents its use for illegal activity e.g. gangs/drug taking etc. Strategy C People don’t need to travel long distances to work; People not displaced/stay in their homes; Retaining character of area/tidying up area; Social cohesion not destroyed etc. Disadvantages Strategy A Air/Noise pollution from railway/industrial land; Problems associated with high rise living or e.g.; Visual impact; Possibility of criminal activity; Lack of social community etc. Strategy B Would lead to loss of open space/amenity value; Loss of nature/wildlife/habitats; Takes up larger area of land than high rise; Houses fewer people (than high rise) etc. Strategy C Would still leave many people without homes; Original residents may not be able to afford and be displaced; Disruption during construction; Still close to noisy or air polluting industry etc. NOTE Max 2 on advantages of chosen method and disadvantages of each rejected method 5 @ 1 mark or development 5

0460/11 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 12 of 23 Question Answer Marks 2(c) Levels marking Level 1 (1–3 marks) Statements including limited detail which describe the problems caused by urban sprawl for people and/or natural environment. Level 2 (4–6 marks) Uses named example. More developed or linked statements which describe the problems caused by urban sprawl for people and/or natural environment. (NOTE Max 5 if no named or inappropriate example) Level 3 (7 marks) Uses named example. Comprehensive and accurate statements which describe the problems caused by urban sprawl for people and natural environment, with some place specific reference. Content Guide: Loss of rural amenity value Traffic congestion around edge of urban area Atmospheric pollution around edge of urban area Noise Loss of farmland/reduced food production Loss of habitat Threat to species Water pollution etc. Place specific reference is likely to consist of: Locational details/named areas around rural urban fringe Statistics etc. 7

0460/11 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 13 of 23 Question Answer Marks 3(a)(i) An area drained by a river (and its tributaries) 1 mark 1 3(a)(ii) Overland flow….throughflow……groundwater flow (correct order needed) 2 marks = all 3 correct 1 mark = 1 or 2 correct 2 3(a)(iii) Ideas such as: It flows towards river channels/increases the volume of rivers/raises river level; Water moves to rivers from a large area; Overland flow gets to rivers quickly; Much of the overland flow reaches the rivers at a similar time; It washes sediment/soil to rivers; Sediment in rivers causes river to rise/overflow banks; Etc. 3 @ 1 mark 3 3(a)(iv) Planting more trees on valley sides Water is used by/transpired by the trees (1) so it does not reach the river (2) The trees intercept the rainfall/rain lands on the leaves (1) so it slows down/spreads out the movement of water to the river/so it is then evaporated (2) The trees/roots hold soil together (1) so it is not washed into the river (2) Building reservoirs in upland areas Water is held/contained in the reservoir (1) so it does not increase the discharge to cause flooding/regulates the flow of the river/so people can use it rather than it causes flooding (2) NOTE Max 2 marks for each method. 1 mark for a simple idea with a 2nd mark for development of it. 4 @ 1 mark 4 3(b)(i) Ideas such as: Steep sides/steep slopes away from river; Deep; Wide; U shaped; Flat/gently sloping land by river/flat valley floor/floodplain; Etc. 3 @ 1 mark 3

0460/11 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 14 of 23 Question Answer Marks 3(b)(ii) Methods of erosion such as: Hydraulic action; Bed/banks removed by power/force of water/expansion of air in cracks; Abrasion/corrasion; Sandpaper action of load on bed/banks; Corrosion/solution; Carbonates/limestone chemically changed/dissolved by acidic water; Etc. 5 @ 1 mark or development 5 3(c) Levels marking Level 1 (1–3 marks) Statements including limited detail which explain how a waterfall is formed. Level 2 (4–6 marks) More developed or linked statements which explain how a waterfall is formed. Level 3 (7 marks) Comprehensive and accurate answer, including a labelled diagram, which explain how a waterfall is formed. Content Guide: Processes of erosion such as hydraulic action, abrasion and corrosion (linked to statement below) Hard rock overlies soft rock Soft rock eroded Undercutting Hard rock forms overhang Formation of plunge pool Further undercutting causes collapse of overhang Retreat of waterfall Gorge formation Etc. 7

0460/11 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 15 of 23 Question Answer Marks 4(a)(i) 7 mm bar plotted for Dec on Fig. 4.1 1 mark 1 4(a)(ii) 36 – 21 (1 mark) = 15(C)(1 mark) 2 @ 1 mark 2 4(a)(iii) Ideas such as: Changing angle of overhead sun during the year; Variation in amount of insolation; Lack of cloud cover; Sun`s rays heat atmosphere during the day; Heat lost at night; NOTE Accept annual and diurnal range 3 @ 1 mark 3 4(a)(iv) Ideas such as: High pressure; Descending/sinking air; Air is heated/not cooled; No/little evaporation/transpiration; Lack of water bodies/rivers/far from oceans; Winds blow over large areas of land/offshore winds/dry winds; Cold ocean currents; Rain shadow/rain falls on mountains leaving the area behind them dry; Etc. 4 @ 1 mark 4 4(b)(i) Ideas such as bushes: Have longer roots/5m deep compared with 0.5m/cacti roots go sideways; Use ground water/water from deep underground but cacti only use water from rainfall/water from near surface; Bushes are taller/higher; Wider (top); Bushes have branches but cacti do not; Bushes have leaves but cacti have swollen stems/thorns/spikes/prickles; Thinner stems; NOTE answer must be comparative 3 @ 1 mark 3

0460/11 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 16 of 23 Question Answer Marks 4(b)(ii) Ideas such as: Seeds/plants remain dormant/lose leaves during long dry spells; Only flower for a short period of time/after rain; Narrow/spiky leaves; To reduce transpiration (dev); Waxy cuticles; To reduce transpiration (dev) Tap roots/long roots; To search for groundwater (dev); Wide spreading roots; To search for water from wider area (dev); Light colours; To reflect sunlight (dev); Thick/fleshy stems; To store water (dev); Stomata are small/closes at night/hidden underside of leaves; To avoid transpiration/shade (dev); Low level/short in height; To reduce photosynthesis/protect from wind (dev); Widely spaced; To avoid competition for water (dev); NOTE don’t double credit dev e.g. transpiration Dev can’t be credited alone Do not credit examples alone. 5 @ 1 mark or development 5

0460/11 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 17 of 23 Question Answer Marks 4(c) Levels marking Level 1 (1–3 marks) Statements including limited detail which describe the impacts of deforestation on the local natural environment. Level 2 (4–6 marks) Uses named example. More developed statements which describe the impacts of deforestation on the local natural environment. (NOTE Max 5 if no named or inappropriate example) Level 3 (7 marks) Comprehensive and accurate statements including some place specific reference. Content Guide: Answers are likely to refer to: Loss of biodiversity Loss of habitat Extinction of species Impacts on food chain/ecosystems Soil erosion Leaching Increased overland flow Flooding Etc. Place specific reference is likely to consist of: Locational details Named places Specific details of loss of species Statistics Etc. 7

0460/11 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 18 of 23 Question Answer Marks 5(a)(i) Human Development Index 1 mark 1 5(a)(ii) 0.551–0.600 Uttar Pradesh/Bihar/Jharkhand/Odisha/Chhattisgarh/Madhya Pradesh/New Delhi A state in the east 0.651 – 0.700 Nagaland/Manipur/Tripura/Mizoram/Arunachal Pradesh 2 @ 1 mark 2 5(a)(iii) Life expectancy (at birth); (Mean)/(expected) years of schooling; GNI (per capita/person) 3 @ 1 mark 3 5(a)(iv) Ideas such as they have: High GNI/high income/high GDP; High life expectancy; Good health care/clinics/hospitals/many doctors/ nurses/vaccination/medicines; High years of schooling/good education/schools/skills/literacy; Presence/absence of mineral/natural resources or example; Energy supplies or example; Availability of water supplies/drought/presence of rivers/sufficient rainfall; Mainly primary sector/agriculture/fishing low income; Development of manufacturing/secondary industry/TNCs increase wealth/industrialised; Development of business/commerce/tertiary employment increase wealth; Development of tourism; Good accessibility/roads/railways/transport; Historical development/impact of colonialism; Fertility of soils/efficiency of agriculture/availability of food supplies; Impacts of trade/exports; Government/corruption/variation in government funding; Whether state is landlocked or coastal; Civil war/conflict etc. NOTE No need for statements to be comparative 4 @ 1 mark 4

0460/11 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 19 of 23 Question Answer Marks 5(b)(i) Ideas such as: Some people will live in luxury flats, but others will live in self-built shacks; Some will have well-paying jobs, but others will have no work/work in informal sector/low pay; Some will have running/clean water, others will have to use dirty water from tanks; Some will have waste disposal, others have litter/waste on ground; Some will have good sanitation, others will have poor sanitation; Some will have access to electricity, but others will not; Etc. NOTE answer needs to be comparative 3 @ 1 mark 3 5(b)(ii) Advantages such as: Employment/earn money; Regular/higher wage; Improved skills; Improvement of roads; Investment in electricity/water supply network; Building of schools/health care facilities/housing; Multiplier effect or example; Brings in money/foreign currency/economic development; Etc. Disadvantages such as: Exploitation/low wages/long hours; Child labour; Unsafe working conditions; Atmospheric/water/noise pollution; Loss of tribal lands/hunting grounds/homelands/farmland; May reduce profit of/force closure of smaller businesses; Pressure on water/electricity supply; Exhaustion/overuse of raw materials; Land degradation/land pollution; Dependence/loss of work if company leaves the country; Leakage of money/profits taken abroad; Influencing of government decision making; Traffic congestion; Etc. NOTE Max 3 marks for advantages/disadvantages 5 @ 1 mark or development 5

0460/11 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 20 of 23 Question Answer Marks 5(c) Levels marking Level 1 (1–3 marks) Statements including limited detail which describe the features of a transnational company and/or its global links. Level 2 (4–6 marks) Uses named example. More developed statements which describe the features of a transnational company and/or its global links. (NOTE Max 5 if no named or inappropriate example) Level 3 (7 marks) Uses named example. Comprehensive and accurate statements which describe the features of a transnational company and/or its global links, including some place specific reference. Content Guide: Answers are likely to refer to: Products produced/services offered Sources of raw materials Where production occurs Markets Transport of raw materials/products ‘Home’ country/base Etc. Place specific reference is likely to consist of: Locational details/named areas/countries Statistics Etc. 7

0460/11 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 21 of 23 Question Answer Marks 6(a)(i) 1000 (sq. km) 1 mark 1 6(a)(ii) Distance = 20–22 (km) Direction = North-east/NE 2 @ 1 mark 2 6(a)(iii) Ideas such as: Rhino Sanctuary; Campsite; Airstrip/airport; Viewpoint/boardwalk; Tourist roads; Elsa`s Grave; Etc. 3 @ 1 mark 3 6(a)(iv) Ideas such as: Seasonal unemployment/irregular income; Overcrowded roads/traffic congestion; Locals delayed when travelling to work; Atmospheric pollution; Noise; Anti-social behaviour/litter/graffiti/drunkenness or e.g.; Water rationing/priority given to tourists; Electricity may not be sufficient to meet demand/outages occur; Loss of tribal lands/hunting grounds/homelands/living areas/agricultural land; Increasing costs/inflation; Cultural dilution/clashes Shops/specified services or e.g. get busier; Visual impact; Leakages by TNCs; Etc. 4 @ 1 mark 4 6(b)(i) Dorob = Along the coast/in the west/west of Windhoek/200–300 km of Windhoek; Bwabwata = In the north-east/NNE/between Angola and Botswana/near Angola/Botswana border/NE/NNE of Windhoek/600–800 km of Windhoek; Etosha = in the north/central area/landlocked/around a lake/salt pan/to N/NNW of Windhoek/400–450 km of Windhoek; Etc. 3 @ 1 mark 3

0460/11 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 22 of 23 Question Answer Marks 6(b)(ii) Ideas such as: Protection/conservation of fauna/endangered species/animals; Protection/conservation of flora/plants/reduces deforestation; OR Protection/conservation of nature; Restricted access to/fencing certain areas; Restricted numbers of visitors/small size of tourist groups/limited accommodation/no wild camping; Ranger patrols; Education about littering/hunting/conservation; Information boards/leaflets; Bans on/fines for hunting/poaching; Fines for littering/provision of litter bins; Use of entry fees for environmental protection or e.g.; Etc. 5 @ 1 mark or development 5

0460/11 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 23 of 23 Question Answer Marks 6(c) Levels marking Level 1 (1–3 marks) Statements including limited detail which describe the benefits of tourism for local people. Level 2 (4–6 marks) Uses named example. More developed statements which describe the benefits of tourism for local people. (NOTE Max 5 if no named or inappropriate example) Level 3 (7 marks) Uses named example. Comprehensive and accurate statements which describe the benefits of tourism for local people, including some place specific reference. Content Guide: Ideas such as: Employment Communications/roads/railways constructed Development of airport; Tourists spend money locally/shops make more money Bigger market for farmers/fishermen etc. Multiplier effect Taxes raised from tourists Investment in schools/hospitals etc. Water supply network improved Electricity supply network improved Cultural exchange Etc. Place specific reference is likely to consist of: Locational details/named areas within country chosen Specific details of tourist attractions Etc. 7