Cambridge A Level Physical Science 8780 — 2016 Oct/Nov Paper 1 · Variant 1

8780/11/O/N/16 · 30 marks · ≈34 min

The question paper and its mark scheme, free to read here and free to download. This is Cambridge’s own paper, exactly as it was sat.

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Question paper12 pages

Cambridge A Level Physical Science 8780 2016 Oct/Nov Paper 1 · Variant 1 question paper, page 1 of 12
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Mark scheme2 pages

Answers below. Sit the paper first if you are practising.

Mark scheme, page 1 of 2
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Mark scheme, page 2 of 2
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Paper as text

Question paper, page 1

This document consists of 12 printed pages. IB16 11_8780_01/4RP © UCLES 2016 [Turn over *0789981312* Cambridge International Examinations Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary Level PHYSICAL SCIENCE 8780/01 Paper 1 Multiple Choice October/November 2016 40 minutes Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet Soft clean eraser Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended) Data Booklet READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST Write in soft pencil. Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid. Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided unless this has been done for you. DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES. There are thirty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet. Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully. Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer. Any rough working should be done in this booklet. Electronic calculators may be used.

Question paper, page 2

2 © UCLES 2016 8780/01/O/N/16 Relevant data, formulae and the Periodic Table are provided in the Data Booklet. Section A For each question there are four possible answers, A, B, C, and D. Choose the one you consider to be correct. 1 The vector diagram shows three coplanar forces acting at a point P. P 5 N 4 N 3 N The three forces are in equilibrium. The direction of the 3 N force is shown. What are the directions of the 4 N and 5 N forces? 4 N force 5 N force A away from P away from P B away from P towards P C towards P away from P D towards P towards P

Question paper, page 3

3 © UCLES 2016 8780/01/O/N/16 [Turn over 2 Two students R and S investigated how the potential difference (p.d.) V across a fixed resistor varied with the current I through it. The graphs show the students’ results. 12 10 8 6 4 2 0 0 0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4 student R 0.5 0.6 0.7 I / A V / V 12 10 8 6 4 2 0 0 0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4 student S 0.5 0.6 0.7 I / A V / V Which statement correctly compares the measurements made by the students? A The measurements of student R show a bigger systematic error and bigger random errors. B The measurements of student R show a bigger systematic error and smaller random errors. C The measurements of student R show a smaller systematic error and bigger random errors. D The measurements of student R show a smaller systematic error and smaller random errors. 3 An electric motor lifts a mass of 50 kg vertically upwards at a steady speed of 2.5 m s–1. The motor is connected to a 625 V supply and the current in the motor is 7.5 A. What is the efficiency of the motor? A 2.7% B 10% C 26% D 78% 4 A parallel beam of X-rays has amplitude A and intensity I. The beam passes through a block of aluminium. The intensity of the beam after passing through the block is 4 I . What is the amplitude of the beam after passing through the block? A 16 A B 8 A C 4 A D 2 A

Question paper, page 4

4 © UCLES 2016 8780/01/O/N/16 5 The diagram shows the diffraction of water waves in a ripple tank when they pass through a gap. θ Which pair of changes would always cause the angle θ to increase? A Decrease the frequency of the waves and make the gap narrower. B Decrease the frequency of the waves and make the gap wider. C Increase the frequency of the waves and make the gap narrower. D Increase the frequency of the waves and make the gap wider. 6 Two horizontal metal plates are in a vacuum. The plates are 4.0 cm apart and connected to a 5000 V supply as shown. + – 5000 V 4.0 cm metal plate metal plate oil drop A charged oil drop of mass 8.2 × 10–15 kg is placed between the plates. The gravitational and electrical forces on the oil drop hold it in equilibrium. What is the charge on the oil drop? A –1.0 × 10–8 C B –1.0 × 10–10 C C –6.4 × 10–19 C D –6.4 × 10–21 C 7 The power of a lamp is 36 W when there is a potential difference of 12 V across its terminals. What is the charge that passes through this lamp in one minute when it is operating normally? A 0.05 C B 3.0 C C 20 C D 180 C

Question paper, page 5

5 © UCLES 2016 8780/01/O/N/16 [Turn over 8 Kirchhoff’s laws can be derived from two laws of conservation. On which laws of conservation do Kirchhoff’s laws depend? Kirchhoff’s first law Kirchhoff’s second law A charge current B charge energy C current charge D energy charge 9 In Rutherford’s α-particle scattering experiment one of the observations was that most of the α-particles passed through the gold foil undeviated. What was inferred from this observation? A Atoms contain a positively charged nucleus. B Electrons orbit around the nucleus. C Most of the atom is empty space. D The nucleus is at the centre of the atom. 10 The air pressure in a car tyre is reduced on cold days. Which statement helps to explains this observation? A The air particles lose potential energy and move closer together. B The air particles lose kinetic energy and hit the inside surface of the tyre less frequently. C The air particles have less space and hit the inside surface of the tyre more frequently. D The air particles have less space and hit the inside surface of the tyre with more force. 11 Which sample contains one mole of the named particle? sample named particle A 16.0 g of methane gas hydrogen atoms B 16.0 g of oxygen gas oxygen molecules C 28.0 g of nitrogen gas nitrogen molecules D 44.0 g of carbon dioxide gas oxygen atoms

Question paper, page 6

6 © UCLES 2016 8780/01/O/N/16 12 Equal masses of four gases, CH4, C2H2, C2H4 and C2H6, are burnt separately to completion in excess oxygen. Which one produces the greatest mass of carbon dioxide? A CH4 B C2H2 C C2H4 D C2H6 13 There is a trend in the first ionisation energy values of aluminium, silicon and phosphorus. Which factor does not contribute to this trend? A atomic radius B attractive force exerted by the nucleus C proton number D shielding by inner shells 14 Four experiments are carried out in which equal small amounts of potassium dichromate are added to 10 cm3 of a mixture of acidified ethanol and water. The time t for the reaction to be completed can be measured. For which row is the value of t the largest? acidified ethanol volume / cm3 water volume / cm3 temperature / °C A 5 5 25 B 5 5 35 C 9 1 25 D 9 1 35

Question paper, page 7

7 © UCLES 2016 8780/01/O/N/16 [Turn over 15 Molecules of ozone, O3, and atoms of oxygen, O, exist in the upper atmosphere. They react together slowly to form oxygen, O2, as shown in reaction 1. reaction 1 O3 + O → 2O2 Chlorine atoms, Cl, increase the rate at which ozone is removed from the atmosphere. Chlorine atoms do this by causing a new reaction route to occur. This route involves reactions 2 and 3. reaction 2 Cl + O3 → Cl O + O2 reaction 3 Cl O + O → Cl + O2 Which statement explains why Cl atoms increase the rate of removal of ozone? A Cl atoms act as a catalyst and the O3 and O particles are given more energy. B Cl atoms get used up by providing a new route. C More O3 and O particles have energy greater than the activation energy for the reactions in which chlorine atoms are involved. D There are more collisions between O3 and O particles when Cl atoms are present. 16 Which statement is true for both the manufacture of ammonia by the Haber process and the manufacture of sulfuric acid by the Contact process? A A catalyst containing an s-block element is used. B A gas obtained from the air is involved in one of the stages. C The final product is collected by cooling a gas in order to liquefy it. D The process involves the use of a pressure greater than 3 × 107 Pa (300 atmospheres). 17 Bromoethane, CH3CH2Br, can be converted to propanoic acid, CH3CH2CO2H by the reaction scheme shown. reaction 1 reaction 2 CH3CH2Br X CH3CH2CO2H Which row gives the correct reagents and conditions for reaction 1 and reaction 2 in this reaction scheme? reaction 1 reaction 2 A heat with ethanolic KCN heat with aqueous acid B heat with ethanolic KCN heat with acidified potassium dichromate C heat with ethanolic KOH heat with aqueous acid D heat with aqueous KOH heat with acidified potassium dichromate

Question paper, page 8

8 © UCLES 2016 8780/01/O/N/16 18 Many alcohols are oxidised by heating with acidified potassium dichromate. Which alcohol is not oxidised by these conditions? CH2 HO CH3 CH3 H3C OH CH2 H3C H3C H3C CH2 OH CH2 CH CH2 H2C H2C A C B D CH3 H3C CH OH CH H3C C C 19 The diagram shows the structure of propanone. H3C CH3 C O Which row gives the correct observations when propanone has reacted separately with each of the reagents? warm K2Cr2O7 / H+ 2,4-DNPH A green solution an orange precipitate B green solution a silver mirror C orange solution an orange precipitate D orange solution a silver mirror 20 But-2-ene can be polymerised to form an addition polymer. The structural formula of but-2-ene is CH3CH=CHCH3. What is a correct equation for the addition polymerisation of but-2-ene? A 2CH3CH=CHCH3 → CH3CH2C(CH3)=C(CH3)CH2CH3 B nCH3CH=CHCH3 → CH2CH2CH2CH2 n C nCH3CH=CHCH3 → CH3CH=CHCH3 n D nCH3CH=CHCH3 → CH(CH3)CH(CH3) n

Question paper, page 9

9 © UCLES 2016 8780/01/O/N/16 [Turn over Section B For each of the questions in this section, one or more of the four numbered statements 1 to 4 may be correct. Decide whether each of the statements is or is not correct (you may find it helpful to put a tick against the statements that you consider to be correct). The responses A to D should be selected on the basis of A B C D 1, 2 and 3 only are correct 1 and 3 only are correct 2 and 4 only are correct 4 only is correct No other combination of statements is used as a correct response. 21 Four statements using prefixes to change the size of units are listed. Which statements are correct? 1 1 ps is equal to 1 × 10–6 µs 2 1 ms is equal to 1 × 10–3 µs 3 1 Ms is equal to 1 × 1012 µs 4 1 Gs is equal to 1 × 109 µs 22 A raindrop is formed in a cloud in the upper atmosphere. The raindrop falls vertically through the air from rest. Which statements are correct? 1 The acceleration of the raindrop is always 9.81 m s–2. 2 The speed of the raindrop increases and then becomes constant. 3 The resultant force on the raindrop increases and then becomes constant. 4 The force on the raindrop due to air resistance increases and then becomes constant.

Question paper, page 10

10 © UCLES 2016 8780/01/O/N/16 The responses A to D should be selected on the basis of A B C D 1, 2 and 3 only are correct 1 and 3 only are correct 2 and 4 only are correct 4 only is correct No other combination of statements is used as a correct response. 23 Two identical spheres move towards each other along a horizontal, frictionless surface in a vacuum. m m v v Each sphere has mass m and speed v. The spheres undergo a head-on elastic collision. Which statements are correct? 1 The total momentum of the spheres before the collision is 2mv. 2 The total momentum of the spheres after the collision is zero. 3 The total kinetic energy of the spheres after the collision is zero. 4 The total kinetic energy of the spheres before the collision is mv 2. 24 A student makes four comments regarding energy changes for changes of state. Which statements are correct? 1 When ice at 0 °C changes to water at 0 °C the molecules gain kinetic energy. 2 When water boils it transfers more energy to the surroundings than it absorbs from its surroundings. 3 When liquid water at 0 °C changes to ice at 0 °C the molecules gain potential energy. 4 When water vapour condenses the molecules lose potential energy. 25 Which statements about a positively charged particle moving in a uniform electric field are correct? 1 The force on the particle due to the field is always opposite to the direction of its velocity. 2 The force on the particle is always opposite to the direction of the field. 3 The force on the particle is always in the direction of the velocity. 4 The force on the particle due to the field is always in the direction of the field.

Question paper, page 11

11 © UCLES 2016 8780/01/O/N/16 [Turn over 26 Which statements are correct? 1 Nitrogen is an unreactive gas due to the high strength of the triple covalent bond in a nitrogen molecule. 2 The ammonium ion, NH4 +, is tetrahedral with a bond angle of 109.5 °. 3 Excessive use of nitrate fertilisers can result in eutrophication. 4 Ammonia is released when solid ammonium sulfate is heated with hydrochloric acid. 27 Rain is polluted by acidic gases released from an old power station. This old power station burns coal which has a sulfur content of 1.5% by weight. The old power station is to be replaced by a new power station. Which design feature of a new power station would lead to the rain being less acidic? 1 It burns 100% pure methane instead of coal. 2 It passes its exhaust gases through calcium hydroxide. 3 It burns coal with a sulfur content of 0.2% by weight. 4 It burns coal with a sulfur content of 3.0% by weight. 28 Blister copper is an impure form of copper obtained from the ore chalcopyrite, CuFeS2. Blister copper is converted into pure copper by electrolysis. Which statements about the purification of blister copper are correct? 1 Valuable metals such as gold may be recovered from anode sludge. 2 Blister copper is used as the cathode of the electrolysis cell. 3 Aqueous CuSO4 can be used as the electrolyte in the electrolysis cell. 4 The mass of the anode increases as copper metal is deposited. 29 The structural formula of a compound is shown. CH3CH2CHO Which statements about the compound are correct? 1 It can be reduced to propan-1-ol by NaBH4. 2 It can be oxidised to propanoic acid. 3 It reacts with Tollens’ reagent to form a silver mirror. 4 It can be formed from propan-2-ol by oxidation.

Question paper, page 12

12 Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity. To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series. Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge. © UCLES 2016 8780/01/O/N/16 The responses A to D should be selected on the basis of A B C D 1, 2 and 3 only are correct 1 and 3 only are correct 2 and 4 only are correct 4 only is correct No other combination of statements is used as a correct response. 30 Which statements are correct? 1 Poly(ethene) is formed when many C2H4 molecules link together into a chain. 2 Used PVC may be safely disposed of by burning on a domestic fire. 3 Polymerisation of the monomer CH2=CHCl produces PVC. 4 The polymer of propene, CH3CH=CH2, is biodegradable.

Mark scheme, page 1

® IGCSE is the registered trademark of Cambridge International Examinations. This document consists of 2 printed pages. © UCLES 2016 [Turn over Cambridge International Examinations Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary Level PHYSICAL SCIENCE 8780/01 Paper 1 Multiple Choice October/November 2016 MARK SCHEME Maximum Mark: 30 Published This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have considered the acceptability of alternative answers. Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for Teachers. Cambridge will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes. Cambridge is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2016 series for most Cambridge IGCSE®, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level components.

Mark scheme, page 2

Page 2 Mark Scheme Syllabus Paper Cambridge International AS Level – October/November 2016 8780 01 © UCLES 2016 Question Number Key Question Number Key 1 B 16 B 2 B 17 A 3 C 18 D 4 D 19 C 5 A 20 D 6 C 21 B 7 D 22 C 8 B 23 C 9 C 24 D 10 B 25 D 11 C 26 A 12 B 27 A 13 D 28 B 14 A 29 A 15 C 30 B

What you needed in this session

Cambridge’s own grade thresholds for 2016 Oct/Nov, Paper 1 · Variant 1. A higher threshold means an easier paper — the bar moves with how the cohort did.

A20/30
B18/30
C15/30
D13/30
E11/30