Cambridge A Level Biology 9700 — 2018 May/June Paper 1 · Variant 1
9700/11/M/J/18 · 40 questions · 40 marks · ≈45 min
The question paper and its mark scheme, free to read here and free to download. This is Cambridge’s own paper, exactly as it was sat.
Question paper20 pages




















Mark scheme3 pages
Answers below. Sit the paper first if you are practising.



Questions as text
Q1 · Which statements about resolution and magnification are correct?
1 Which statements about resolution and magnification are correct? resolution magnification A the ability to distinguish between two the number of times larger an image is separate objects that are very close compared with the real size of the object together B the clarity of the image formed the power of the microscope to focus by the microscope on very small objects C the number of times larger an image is the ability to distinguish between two compared with the real size of the object separate objects that are very close together D the power of the microscope to focus the clarity of the image formed on very small objects by the microscope
Mark scheme: A
Q2 · An eyepiece graticule has a scale with 100 divisions
2 An eyepiece graticule has a scale with 100 divisions. A stage micrometer has a scale with 50 divisions, each of which is 0.040 mm apart. Using a ×40 objective lens, the whole length of this stage micrometer scale lines up with 15 divisions of the eyepiece graticule. What is the actual length of the 100 division scale of the eyepiece graticule? A 1.3 mm B 13 mm C 75 µm D 750 µm
Mark scheme: B
Q3 · A prokaryotic cell which is 1 µm in diameter, is magnified 50 000 times in an electron…
3 A prokaryotic cell which is 1 µm in diameter, is magnified 50 000 times in an electron micrograph. What is the diameter of the cell in the electron micrograph? A 5 × 10–1 mm B 5 × 100 mm C 5 × 101 mm D 5 × 102 mm
Mark scheme: C
Q4 · A scientist carried out an experiment to separate cell structures in animal cells
4 A scientist carried out an experiment to separate cell structures in animal cells. The cells were broken open to release the cell structures. This extract was filtered into a centrifuge tube and then spun in a centrifuge. The heaviest cell structure sank to the bottom forming pellet 1, as shown in the diagram. liquid above pellet pellet 1 The liquid above pellet 1 was poured into a clean centrifuge tube and spun in the centrifuge at a higher speed to separate the next heaviest cell structure. This cell structure sank to the bottom, forming pellet 2. This procedure was repeated twice more to obtain pellet 3 and pellet 4, each containing a single type of cell structure. Which row shows the order in which the cell structures were collected? pellet 1 pellet 2 pellet 3 pellet 4 A nucleus lysosomes mitochondria ribosomes B nucleus mitochondria lysosomes ribosomes C ribosomes lysosomes mitochondria nucleus D ribosomes mitochondria lysosomes nucleus
Mark scheme: B
More questions on Cells as the basic units of living organisms
Q5 · Radioactively-labelled nucleotides are introduced into a cell
5 Radioactively-labelled nucleotides are introduced into a cell. 1 2 3 4 In which cell structures will the radioactivity first become concentrated? A 1 and 2 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4
Mark scheme: C
More questions on Cells as the basic units of living organisms
Q6 · What is the general formula for amylose?
6 What is the general formula for amylose? A (C5H10O5)n B (C5H10O6)n C (C6H10O5)n D (C6H12O6)n
Mark scheme: C
Q7 · The diagram shows relationships between some important molecules and bonds
7 The diagram shows relationships between some important molecules and bonds. 1 peptide glycosidic 3 ester 2 triglyceride cellulose vegetable oil amylopectin What is represented by circles numbered 1, 2 and 3? 1 2 3 A bonds formed carbohydrates lipids by condensation B bonds formed lipids carbohydrates by condensation C bonds formed carbohydrates lipids by hydrolysis D bonds formed lipids carbohydrates by hydrolysis
Mark scheme: A
Q8 · In unsaturated lipid molecules, where are double bonds located?
8 In unsaturated lipid molecules, where are double bonds located? A between fatty acids and glycerol B within fatty acids and within glycerol C within fatty acids only D within glycerol only
Mark scheme: C
Q9 · Phospholipids and triglycerides are important biological molecules
9 Phospholipids and triglycerides are important biological molecules. Which properties are correct for these molecules? non-polar partially hydrophobic A phospholipid phospholipid B phospholipid triglyceride C triglyceride phospholipid D triglyceride triglyceride
Mark scheme: C
Q10 · The diagrams show two arrangements of amino acids in a protein
10 The diagrams show two arrangements of amino acids in a protein. T S Which row correctly names the bonds at S or T? ionic bond hydrogen bond A absent S and T B S only T only C S and T absent D T only S and T
Mark scheme: A
Q11 · Students were asked to highlight only the R groups of two ring-shaped amino acids
11 Students were asked to highlight only the R groups of two ring-shaped amino acids. Which pair of diagrams are correct for both amino acids? H O H O H3N+ C C H2N+ C C A O– O– C NH H2C CH2 C CH2 C NH+ H O H O H3N+ C C H2N+ C C B O– O– C NH H2C CH2 C CH2 C NH+ H O H O H3N+ C C H2N+ C C C O– O– C NH H2C CH2 C CH2 C NH+ H O H O H3N+ C C H2N+ C C D O– O– C NH H2C CH2 C CH2 C NH+
Mark scheme: D
Q12 · Which words from the table correctly complete the paragraph about enzymes?
12 Which words from the table correctly complete the paragraph about enzymes? When the pH of an environment is decreased below the optimum pH of an enzyme, ««1«« bonds between adjacent ««2«« groups, holding the ««3«« structure, are disrupted. 1 2 3 A hydrogen and ionic R tertiary B hydrogen hydroxyl secondary C ionic and peptide R primary and tertiary D peptide amine primary
Mark scheme: A
Q13 · The effect of substrate concentration on an enzyme-catalysed reaction was measured in…
13 The effect of substrate concentration on an enzyme-catalysed reaction was measured in three different conditions: ● with no inhibitor ● with a competitive inhibitor ● with a non-competitive inhibitor. The graph shows the results. enzyme with no inhibitor inhibitor X rate of reaction inhibitor Y 0 0 substrate concentration Which statement is correct? A X is a competitive inhibitor which binds to a site other than the active site of the enzyme. B X is a non-competitive inhibitor which has a similar shape to the active site of the enzyme. C Y is a competitive inhibitor which has a similar shape to the active site of the enzyme. D Y is a non-competitive inhibitor which binds to a site other than the active site of the enzyme.
Mark scheme: D
Q14 · Which statements about the cell surface membrane are correct?
14 Which statements about the cell surface membrane are correct? 1 Channel proteins allow water soluble ions and molecules across the membrane. 2 Glucose can pass into the cell via carrier proteins. 3 Oxygen passes freely through the membrane as it is soluble in lipids. 4 Some glycoproteins act as antigens. A 1, 2, 3 and 4 B 1, 3 and 4 only C 1 and 2 only D 2, 3 and 4 only
Mark scheme: A
Q15 · Which of these features increase the efficiency of ion uptake by a root hair cell?
15 Which of these features increase the efficiency of ion uptake by a root hair cell? 1 many mitochondria in the cell 2 high concentration of ions in the vacuole 3 protein carriers in the cell surface membrane A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 3 only C 1 only D 2 and 3 only
Mark scheme: B
Q16 · What can increase the fluidity of the cell surface membrane at low temperatures?
16 What can increase the fluidity of the cell surface membrane at low temperatures? 1 double bonds between carbon atoms in the fatty acid chains 2 cholesterol 3 fatty acids having shorter chains A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 3 only C 1 only D 2 and 3 only
Mark scheme: A
Q17 · The diagrams show the shape and size of two types of cell
17 The diagrams show the shape and size of two types of cell. 50 μm 45 μm 10 μm 5 μm 10 μm 10 μm palisade mesophyll cell columnar epithelial cell surface area = 2200 μm2 volume = 2250 μm3 Which statement is correct about the palisade cell and epithelial cell shown in the diagrams? A An increase in surface area reduces the distance for gases to reach the centre of the cell. B The surface area of the palisade mesophyll cell is 500 µm2 greater than the columnar epithelial cell. C The surface area to volume ratio is greater in the columnar epithelial cell than the palisade mesophyll cell. D The volume of the palisade mesophyll cell is 2500 µm3 greater than that of the columnar epithelial cell.
Mark scheme: C
Q18 · A student observed the cells in the growing region (meristem) of an onion root and…
18 A student observed the cells in the growing region (meristem) of an onion root and obtained the data shown. stage number of cells interphase 886 prophase 73 metaphase 16 anaphase 14 telophase 11 Which percentage of cells contains chromosomes that appear as two chromatids? A 7.3 B 8.9 C 95.9 D 97.5
Mark scheme: B
Q19 · Which of these events are part of mitosis?
19 Which of these events are part of mitosis? 1 interphase 2 telophase 3 cytokinesis A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 3 only C 1 only D 2 only
Mark scheme: D
More questions on Replication and division of nuclei and cells
Q20 · During which phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication take place?
20 During which phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication take place? A G1 B G2 C M D S
Mark scheme: D
More questions on Replication and division of nuclei and cells
Q21 · Which row is correct for guanine?
21 Which row is correct for guanine? has a joins its double ring is a purine complementary base with structure three hydrogen bonds A WA J WA B J x WA Cc x Jv x D x x JY key Y = correct X = incorrect
Mark scheme: A
More questions on Structure of nucleic acids and replication of DNA
Q22 · Meselsohn and Stahl investigated DNA in bacteria
22 Meselsohn and Stahl investigated DNA in bacteria. They grew bacteria in a medium with only heavy nitrogen, 15N, until all of the bacterial DNA was heavy. These bacteria were moved from a heavy nitrogen medium and cultured in a medium with only light nitrogen, 14N. A sample of bacteria was collected from the first generation in the medium containing light nitrogen and their DNA was analysed. Hybrid DNA contains both heavy and light DNA. Which row shows the percentage of heavy DNA strands and the percentage of hybrid DNA molecules in the first generation produced in the medium containing light nitrogen? percentage of heavy percentage of hybrid DNA strands DNA molecules A 25 50 B 50 50 C 50 100 D 75 100
Mark scheme: C
More questions on Structure of nucleic acids and replication of DNA
Q23 · Which is the correct DNA triplet on the original DNA template that codes for the amino…
23 Which is the correct DNA triplet on the original DNA template that codes for the amino acid histidine (His)? amino acid anticodon Ala CGU His GUA Ser UCA A CAU B CGT C GTA D GUA
Mark scheme: C
Q24 · The photomicrograph shows tissues in a stained transverse section of a plant stem
24 The photomicrograph shows tissues in a stained transverse section of a plant stem. Students are asked to draw four adjacent xylem vessel elements. Which drawing, all drawn to the same scale, is correct? A B C D
Mark scheme: D
Q25 · What is a function of the hairs (trichomes) on xerophytic leaves?
25 What is a function of the hairs (trichomes) on xerophytic leaves? A adding a waterproof layer B protecting the stomata C reducing the surface area D trapping a layer of moist air
Mark scheme: D
Q26 · Which features of companion cells are essential to their function?
26 Which features of companion cells are essential to their function? 1 They are connected by plasmadesmata to the sieve tube elements. 2 They have a thinner cell wall than a sieve tube element. 3 They contain a nucleus and mitochondria. A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only
Mark scheme: C
Q27 · The photomicrograph shows a human blood smear
27 The photomicrograph shows a human blood smear. 1 2 3 Which row identifies the labelled cells? 1 2 3 A lymphocyte monocyte neutrophil B lymphocyte neutrophil monocyte C monocyte lymphocyte neutrophil D monocyte neutrophil lymphocyte
Mark scheme: D
Q28 · The diagram shows the changes in electrical activity in the heart muscle during one…
28 The diagram shows the changes in electrical activity in the heart muscle during one cardiac cycle. This is called an electrocardiograph (ECG). sinoatrial node stimulated stimulates ventricular systole Which electrocardiogram shows a rate of 75 beats per minute? A B 0 1 2 3 4 0 1 2 3 4 time / s time / s C D 0 1 2 3 4 0 1 2 3 4 time / s time / s
Mark scheme: B
Q29 · Which effect could be due to a reduced concentration of carbonic anhydrase?
29 Which effect could be due to a reduced concentration of carbonic anhydrase? A Carbaminohaemoglobin concentrations will decrease. B Less oxygen is released from oxyhaemoglobin for active tissues. C The pH of the blood will be lowered. D The rate of dissociation of carbonic acid is increased.
Mark scheme: B
Q30 · Which statement correctly compares blood plasma and tissue fluid in a healthy person?
30 Which statement correctly compares blood plasma and tissue fluid in a healthy person? A Blood plasma contains more protein than tissue fluid. B Both blood plasma and tissue fluid contain red blood cells. C Tissue fluid contains white blood cells whereas blood plasma does not. D Tissue fluid is formed from blood plasma and is not returned to blood plasma.
Mark scheme: A
Q31 · The diagram shows three features found in tissues of the gas exchange system
31 The diagram shows three features found in tissues of the gas exchange system. ciliated epithelium cartilage Which tubes of the gas exchange system could be represented at position P in the diagram? bronchus bronchiole trachea v v v key v= yes 0 Oo WwW > J v x Jv x Jv X =no x v Jv
Mark scheme: C
Q32 · The diagram shows a magnified section of part of the lungs containing specialised tissues
32 The diagram shows a magnified section of part of the lungs containing specialised tissues. 1 2 3 4 5 6 Which row is correct for structures labelled 1 to 6? contains high proportion of carbonic – ions HCO3 lysosomes anhydrase A 1 3 4 B 2 4 5 C 3 5 6 D 4 6 1
Mark scheme: C
Q33 · A short-term effect of smoking is a decreased blood supply to the fingers and toes
33 A short-term effect of smoking is a decreased blood supply to the fingers and toes. Which component of cigarette smoke causes this effect? A carbon monoxide B carcinogens C nicotine D tar
Mark scheme: C
Q34 · The symptoms of two diseases are listed
34 The symptoms of two diseases are listed. disease 1 disease 2 coughing up blood shortness of breath pain when breathing difficulty breathing out loss of weight fatigue Which row identifies diseases 1 and 2? disease 1 disease 2 A chronic bronchitis emphysema B emphysema lung cancer C lung cancer chronic bronchitis D lung cancer emphysema
Mark scheme: D
Q35 · Which statements about a non-infectious disease may be correct?
35 Which statements about a non-infectious disease may be correct? 1 It can result from a mutation. 2 It can be transmitted by an insect vector. 3 It can be transmitted from mother to child. A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only
Mark scheme: C
Q36 · The diagram shows one way of testing the effect of an antibiotic on bacteria
36 The diagram shows one way of testing the effect of an antibiotic on bacteria. colonies of bacteria diameter of zone petri dish with measured every nutrient agar day for 5 days grown for containing 5 days bacteria disc of filter paper soaked in antibiotic The table shows the results of testing five different types of bacteria. Zones of less than 13.0 mm show the presence of resistant bacteria. type of diameter of zone / mm bacteria day 1 day 2 day 3 day 4 day 5 1 24.1 21.9 19.0 17.6 14.3 2 18.6 15.4 12.2 9.0 2.0 3 17.9 12.8 12.4 11.1 10.9 4 19.4 15.3 13.2 8.1 2.0 5 22.0 21.0 20.5 20.4 20.4 Which statement can be supported by this data? A All the types of bacteria become resistant to antibiotics over time. B Only types 2, 3 and 4 of the bacteria show resistance to the antibiotic. C The antibiotic can be used to treat types 1 and 3 only. D Type 5 of the bacteria can never become resistant to the antibiotic.
Mark scheme: B
Q37 · Some animals have genes that code for small peptides called cathelicidins
37 Some animals have genes that code for small peptides called cathelicidins. These peptides kill a wide range of bacteria by attaching to lipids in bacterial membranes, so weakening or disrupting them. Scientists have produced a synthetic version of the cathelicidin that kills bacteria that are resistant to a number of antibiotics such as tetracycline. Which pair of statements explain how this synthetic cathelicidin might help with the problem of antibiotic resistance? 1 It is synthetic so bacteria can never become resistant to it. 2 It could be used instead of tetracycline, allowing tetracycline resistance to be reduced. 3 The only way a bacterium could develop resistance to it is by altering all the lipids in its membranes. 4 It could be used to kill multidrug-resistant strains of bacteria for which there is no effective antibiotic. A 1 and 3 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 2 and 4
Mark scheme: D
Q38 · Hybridomas are used as a basis for the production of large numbers of monoclonal…
38 Hybridomas are used as a basis for the production of large numbers of monoclonal antibodies. Which statement describes how hybridomas are made? A fusing activated T-lymphocytes with cancer cells B fusing B-lymphocytes with cancer cells C fusing memory cells with cancer cells D fusing T-lymphocytes with cancer cells
Mark scheme: B
Q39 · Which statement about the properties of the antigen binding sites in antibody molecules…
39 Which statement about the properties of the antigen binding sites in antibody molecules is correct? A They are located on the light chains only. B They have a hinge region to give flexibility for different antigens. C They have binding sites for receptors on phagocytes. D They have variable amino acid sequences for different antigens.
Mark scheme: D
Q40 · The statements describe ways in which different types of monoclonal antibodies can work
40 The statements describe ways in which different types of monoclonal antibodies can work. 1 binding to proteins on cell surfaces and triggering the immune system 2 blocking molecules on cell surfaces that inhibit T-cells 3 blocking cell signalling receptors that trigger cell division 4 blocking cell signalling receptors that trigger the immune response Which types of monoclonal antibody could be used to treat cancer? A 1, 2, 3 and 4 B 1, 2 and 3 only C 1 and 4 only D 2, 3 and 4 only
Mark scheme: B
What was in this paper
The subtopics covered by these 40 questions, and how many questions each got. Open one in a new tab to see every Cambridge question on it.
4The gas exchange system4The microscope in cell studies3Antibiotics2Antibodies and vaccination2Cells as the basic units of living organisms2Factors that affect enzyme action2Fluid mosaic membranes2Movement into and out of cells2Proteins2Replication and division of nuclei and cells2Structure of nucleic acids and replication of DNA2The circulatory system2Transport mechanisms2Chromosome behaviour in mitosis1Genetic technology applied to medicine1Infectious diseases1Protein synthesis1Structure of transport tissues1The heart1Transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide1What you needed in this session
Cambridge’s own grade thresholds for 2018 May/June, Paper 1 · Variant 1. A higher threshold means an easier paper — the bar moves with how the cohort did.