Cambridge A Level Biology 9700 — 2014 Oct/Nov Paper 1 · Variant 1
9700/11/O/N/14 · 40 questions · 40 marks · ≈45 min
The question paper and its mark scheme, free to read here and free to download. This is Cambridge’s own paper, exactly as it was sat.
Question paper16 pages
















Mark scheme2 pages
Answers below. Sit the paper first if you are practising.


Questions as text
Q1 · When making measurements in experiments, which methods could have parallax errors?
1 When making measurements in experiments, which methods could have parallax errors? 1 using a calibrated eyepiece graticule to measure length 2 using a measuring cylinder to measure volume 3 using a ruler to measure length of a shoot A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3
Mark scheme: C
Q2 · Which part of the cell is often continuous with the rough endoplasmic reticulum?
2 Which part of the cell is often continuous with the rough endoplasmic reticulum? A cell surface membrane B Golgi apparatus C mitochondrion D nuclear envelope
Mark scheme: D
More questions on Cells as the basic units of living organisms
Q3 · Which structures are found in both chloroplasts and mitochondria?
3 Which structures are found in both chloroplasts and mitochondria? 1 70S ribsomes 2 80S ribsomes 3 circular DNA A 1 and 3 B 2 and 3 C 1 only D 3 only
Mark scheme: A
More questions on Cells as the basic units of living organisms
Q4 · Tay-Sachs disease occurs when cells are unable to produce an enzyme, leading to a build…
4 Tay-Sachs disease occurs when cells are unable to produce an enzyme, leading to a build up of certain lipids in cells. Which cell structure would not function correctly, resulting in the disease? A Golgi apparatus B lysosome C mitochondrion D smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Mark scheme: B
More questions on Cells as the basic units of living organisms
Q5 · Which structures are present in a cell of Plasmodium?
5 Which structures are present in a cell of Plasmodium? Golgi ribosomes apparatus B A C D mitochondria
Mark scheme: A
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Q6 · The diagram shows a triglyceride molecule that has been partially hydrolysed
6 The diagram shows a triglyceride molecule that has been partially hydrolysed. H H C OH H C OH O H H H H H H H H H H C O C C C C C C C C C H C H C H H H H H H H H H C H H C H H C H H C H H C H H C H C H H H What will be the products of the total hydrolysis of the molecule shown? A a molecule of glycerol and a saturated fatty acid molecule only B a molecule of glycerol and an unsaturated fatty acid molecule only C a molecule of water, a molecule of glycerol and a saturated fatty acid molecule D a molecule of water, a molecule of glycerol and an unsaturated fatty acid molecule
Mark scheme: B
Question 7
7 Which shows α-glucose? A B CH2OH CH2OH H C O OH H C O H H H C C C C OH H OH H HO C C H HO C C OH H OH H OH C D H CH2OH H C O CH2OH HO C O OH H H C C C C H H OH H HO C C OH H C C H OH OH H OH
Mark scheme: B
Q8 · Which correctly matches the functional and structural features of cellulose, collagen…
8 Which correctly matches the functional and structural features of cellulose, collagen, glycogen or triglyceride? structure molecule held function fibrous together by branched chains hydrogen bonds A cellulose support J Jv x triglyceride | energy source x x x B collagen strengthening Jv Jv x cellulose support v x J Cc collagen strengthening Jv Jv Jv glycogen storage x x v D glycogen storage x Jv Jv triglyceride | energy source x Jv x key /=true xX = false
Mark scheme: A
Q9 · The diagram shows the relationship between the levels of protein structure and bonds
9 The diagram shows the relationship between the levels of protein structure and bonds. 1 2 3 4 5 Which row is correct? 1 2 3 4 5 A primary peptide secondary ionic tertiary B secondary hydrogen tertiary peptide primary C tertiary ionic primary peptide quaternary D quaternary ionic tertiary ionic secondary
Mark scheme: D
Q10 · How many molecules of oxygen are bound to one molecule of haemoglobin, when it is fully…
10 How many molecules of oxygen are bound to one molecule of haemoglobin, when it is fully saturated with oxygen? A 1 B 2 C 4 D 8
Mark scheme: C
Q11 · Why do large increases in the temperature or pH alter enzyme activity?
11 Why do large increases in the temperature or pH alter enzyme activity? 1 They change the three-dimensional shape of the enzyme. 2 They disrupt hydrogen and ionic bonds in the enzyme. 3 They increase hydrophobic interactions in the enzyme. A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 3 D 1 only
Mark scheme: A
Q12 · Ethylene glycol is a chemical used to prevent water from freezing
12 Ethylene glycol is a chemical used to prevent water from freezing. If ethylene glycol is swallowed accidentally, it is metabolised by an enzyme found in liver cells to produce a toxic product. The enzyme normally catalyses the oxidation of ethanol to a harmless product. People who have swallowed ethylene glycol are treated with large doses of ethanol. This prevents formation of a toxic product and allows the body to excrete the ethylene glycol. Which statement describes why this treatment works? A Ethanol binds near the active site on the enzyme, altering its shape. B Ethanol binds permanently to the active site of the enzyme, blocking it. C Ethanol changes the tertiary structure of the enzyme, denaturing it. D Ethanol is more likely to bind to the active site on the enzyme.
Mark scheme: D
Q13 · Increasing which type of bond helps to increase the fluidity of the cell surface membrane?
13 Increasing which type of bond helps to increase the fluidity of the cell surface membrane? A C — O — C B C — N C C C D hydrogen
Mark scheme: C
Q14 · The diagram shows three routes, X, Y and Z, through which substances can pass across a…
14 The diagram shows three routes, X, Y and Z, through which substances can pass across a cell surface membrane. X Y Z Which correctly shows the routes for vitamin D, which is fat soluble, and vitamin C, which is water soluble? vitamin D vitamin C A Y X B X Y C X Z D Z Y
Mark scheme: C
Q15 · In plants adapted to cold conditions, their cell surface membranes change as the weather…
15 In plants adapted to cold conditions, their cell surface membranes change as the weather gets colder, allowing the plants to carry out exocytosis. Which change occurs in their cell surface membranes? A a decrease in the ratio of proteins to saturated phospholipids B a decrease in the ratio of unsaturated phospholipids to saturated phospholipids C an increase in the ratio of proteins to unsaturated phospholipids D an increase in the ratio of unsaturated phospholipids to saturated phospholipids
Mark scheme: D
Q16 · Which statement about a diploid cell is not correct?
16 Which statement about a diploid cell is not correct? A It can undergo a mitotic division to allow growth to occur. B It can undergo a mitotic division to repair a cell. C It can undergo a reduction division to form haploid cells. D It is one that possesses two complete sets of chromosomes.
Mark scheme: B
More questions on Replication and division of nuclei and cells
Q17 · Laboratory mice whose p53 genes had been switched off developed tumours
17 Laboratory mice whose p53 genes had been switched off developed tumours. When their p53 genes were switched on again, the tumour cells stopped dividing and died within a few days. Healthy cells in the mice were unaffected. What do these observations suggest? A p53 protein speeds up the mitotic cell cycle B p53 protein causes all cells to die C the p53 gene acts as a tumour suppressor gene D the p53 gene encourages the growth of tumours
Mark scheme: C
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Q18 · The diagram shows part of a DNA molecule
18 The diagram shows part of a DNA molecule. 2 3 1 4 Which regions contain phosphate groups? A 1 and 2 B 1 and 4 C 3 and 4 only D 2, 3 and 4
Mark scheme: C
More questions on Structure of nucleic acids and replication of DNA
Q19 · Some antibiotics work by binding to ribosomes and preventing protein synthesis
19 Some antibiotics work by binding to ribosomes and preventing protein synthesis. Which statement explains why these antibiotics kill bacterial cells but not human cells? A In bacterial cells mRNA is formed in the cytoplasm from naked DNA. B Ribosomes in human cells have a different structure from those in bacterial cells. C The antibiotics cannot pass through human cell surface membranes. D The tRNA molecules in bacterial cells are different from those in human cells.
Mark scheme: B
Q20 · Which statements about tRNA are correct?
20 Which statements about tRNA are correct? 1 contains base pairing 2 contains hydrogen bonds 3 is single stranded A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only
Mark scheme: A
Q21 · What is the main function of a companion cell in phloem tissue?
21 What is the main function of a companion cell in phloem tissue? A providing cytoplasmic contact with the sieve tube element for loading B providing structural support for the sieve tube element C providing the nucleus for cell division in the phloem D providing the source of assimilates for storage
Mark scheme: A
Q22 · How does sucrose move from chloroplasts to the phloem?
22 How does sucrose move from chloroplasts to the phloem? 1 mass flow 2 apoplast pathway 3 symplast pathway A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only
Mark scheme: D
Q23 · A large number of aphids were used to collect samples of the contents of the sieve tube…
23 A large number of aphids were used to collect samples of the contents of the sieve tube elements of a tomato plant. sieve tube element sample taken micropipette tomato plant stem (aphid and stem are not drawn to the same scale) Different samples of the sieve tube solution were tested. Which was the correct result? Benedict’s test iodine solution before hydrolysis after hydrolysis A blue blue blue - black B blue red orange C red blue blue - black D red red orange
Mark scheme: B
Q24 · Which row is correct for the pulmonary vein?
24 Which row is correct for the pulmonary vein? blood carried muscle in walls lumen size A deoxygenated thick small B deoxygenated thin large C oxygenated thick small D oxygenated thin large
Mark scheme: D
Q25 · Which statement describes the Bohr effect?
25 Which statement describes the Bohr effect? A In high partial pressure of oxygen and high partial pressure of carbon dioxide, the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen increases. B In high partial pressure of oxygen and low partial pressure of carbon dioxide, the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen decreases. C In low partial pressure of oxygen and high partial pressure of carbon dioxide, the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen decreases. D In low partial pressure of oxygen and low partial pressure of carbon dioxide, the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen is unchanged.
Mark scheme: C
Q26 · What is produced by the action of carbonic anhydrase?
26 What is produced by the action of carbonic anhydrase? A carbaminohaemoglobin B haemoglobinic acid C hydrogencarbonate ions D oxyhaemoglobin
Mark scheme: C
Q27 · During the cardiac cycle, the movement of the valves causes sounds that can be heard…
27 During the cardiac cycle, the movement of the valves causes sounds that can be heard using a stethoscope. What causes the first sound after atrial systole in the cardiac cycle? 1 closing of the atrioventricular valves 2 opening of the semilunar valves 3 closing of the semilunar valves A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 1 only D 3 only
Mark scheme: C
Q28 · The following are all parts of the heart that control the heart action
28 The following are all parts of the heart that control the heart action. 1 sinoatrial node (SAN) 2 atrioventricular node (AVN) 3 Purkyne tissue Which row for atrial contraction and ventricular contraction is correct? atrial contraction ventricular contraction AVN produces wave of SAN produces wave of A excitation excitation B Purkyne tissue carries AVN produces wave of wave of excitation excitation C SAN and AVN node Purkyne tissue carries the produce wave of excitation wave of excitation D SAN produces wave of Purkyne tissue carries wave excitation of excitation
Mark scheme: D
Q29 · The photomicrograph shows a cross-section through a bronchus
29 The photomicrograph shows a cross-section through a bronchus. X Y What is the function of the tissues X and Y? X Y A secrete mucus prevent collapse of the airway B support the airway dilate airway C trap dust and dirt secrete mucus D waft dust and dirt upwards constrict airway
Mark scheme: D
Q30 · Which component(s) of tobacco smoke cause an increase in blood pressure and clot…
30 Which component(s) of tobacco smoke cause an increase in blood pressure and clot formation? 1 carcinogens 2 nicotine 3 tar A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 2 only
Mark scheme: D
Q31 · Peak Flow is used in hospitals to diagnose some lung diseases
31 Peak Flow is used in hospitals to diagnose some lung diseases. It measures the maximum rate at which air can be breathed out from the lungs. How will the Peak Flow for a person with emphysema differ from that for a healthy person? A It falls as carbon monoxide reduces oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. B It falls as elastic fibres are damaged in the alveoli. C It remains constant as the damage to the lungs does not affect the lung volume. D It rises as larger air spaces make it easier for the air to flow.
Mark scheme: B
Q32 · The following are all methods of transmission of infectious diseases
32 The following are all methods of transmission of infectious diseases. 1 droplet 2 food 3 contact 4 vector Which row shows the correct organism and method of transmission of each disease? malaria TB HIV A bacterium virus virus 4 1 and 2 3 and 4 B protoctist bacterium virus 4 1 and 2 3 C protoctist virus bacterium 3 1 3 D bacterium protoctist bacterium 3 1 1 and 3
Mark scheme: B
Q33 · 40% of the world’s population live in an area where malaria is a threat to health
33 40% of the world’s population live in an area where malaria is a threat to health. In recent years there have been many more cases of malaria in Africa. What is the social factor that is letting the spread of malaria get out of control? A an increase in drug resistant forms of malaria B climate change C difficulty in producing a vaccine D migration of people because of wars
Mark scheme: D
Q34 · Which diseases are treated with antibiotics?
34 Which diseases are treated with antibiotics? cholera A B D TB measles C
Mark scheme: A
Q35 · Which are specific immune responses?
35 Which are specific immune responses? 1 phagocytosis 2 production of antibodies 3 effect of histamine A 1 only B 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only
Mark scheme: B
Q36 · Why has vaccination failed to eradicate cholera?
36 Why has vaccination failed to eradicate cholera? A The pathogen exists in many strains which mutate. B The pathogen is present in the lumen of the gut. C The pathogen is waterborne. D There is a stage of the life cycle in other mammals.
Mark scheme: B
Q37 · A person’s blood group is determined by antigens present on the red blood cells
37 A person’s blood group is determined by antigens present on the red blood cells. Most people have antibodies in their blood plasma even if they have never received a blood transfusion. It is these antibodies in the plasma of the person who receives the blood which makes some blood transfusions unsafe. The table shows the antigens and antibodies in the blood of people with different blood groups. blood group antigens on red blood cells antibodies in plasma A A antibodies to B B B antibodies to A AB A and B no antibodies to A and B O neither A nor B antibodies to A and B Which are the blood groups of people who can safely receive blood from a person who has blood group A? A A and AB B A and O C B and O D AB only
Mark scheme: A
Q38 · The diagram shows the flow of energy between organisms in an ecosystem
38 The diagram shows the flow of energy between organisms in an ecosystem. 1 2 3 4 Which correctly identifies each organism in the ecosystem? 1 2 3 4 A primary decomposers secondary producers consumers consumers B primary secondary producers decomposers consumers consumers C secondary decomposers producers primary consumers consumers D secondary primary decomposers producers consumers consumers
Mark scheme: C
Q39 · In a freshwater food chain, which involves the least efficient energy transfer?
39 In a freshwater food chain, which involves the least efficient energy transfer? A Large fishes feed on the small fishes. B Small fishes feed on the water fleas. C Unicellular algae trap sunlight. D Water fleas feed on the unicellular algae.
Mark scheme: C
Q40 · Which statement concerning events occurring in the nitrogen cycle is not correct?
40 Which statement concerning events occurring in the nitrogen cycle is not correct? A Free-living nitrogen-fixing bacteria release organic nitrogen compounds into the soil where bacteria convert these to nitrites and nitrates. B Nitrifying bacteria cause an increase in nitrate ions which are used by plants to make proteins. C Nitrogen-fixing bacteria use atmospheric nitrogen which is replaced by the action of denitrifying bacteria in waterlogged soil. D Saprophytic bacteria and fungi decompose organic nitrogen compounds excreted and egested by producers and consumers.
Mark scheme: D
What was in this paper
The subtopics covered by these 40 questions, and how many questions each got. Open one in a new tab to see every Cambridge question on it.
4Carbohydrates and lipids3The gas exchange system3Transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide3Energy2Factors that affect enzyme action2Fluid mosaic membranes2Infectious diseases2Protein synthesis2Replication and division of nuclei and cells2The heart2The immune system2Transport mechanisms2Antibiotics1Antibodies and vaccination1Conservation1Movement into and out of cells1Proteins1Structure of nucleic acids and replication of DNA1Structure of transport tissues1The circulatory system1The microscope in cell studies1What you needed in this session
Cambridge’s own grade thresholds for 2014 Oct/Nov, Paper 1 · Variant 1. A higher threshold means an easier paper — the bar moves with how the cohort did.