Cambridge A Level Biology 9700 — 2004 Oct/Nov Paper 1 · Variant 1

9700/11/O/N/04 · 40 questions · 40 marks · ≈45 min

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Questions as text

Q1 · The diagram shows the ultrastructure of a eukaryotic cell

1 The diagram shows the ultrastructure of a eukaryotic cell. Which organelle does not contain nucleic acid? A D C B

Mark scheme: A

More questions on Cells as the basic units of living organisms

Q2 · Which cell structure can be seen only with an electron microscope?

2 Which cell structure can be seen only with an electron microscope? A cell surface membrane B cell wall C chromosome D nucleolus

Mark scheme: A

More questions on The microscope in cell studies

Q3 · When not involved in protein synthesis, ribosomes exist as separate subunits

3 When not involved in protein synthesis, ribosomes exist as separate subunits. What do these subunits consist of? A mRNA and lipid B mRNA and tRNA C rRNA and lipid D rRNA and protein

Mark scheme: D

More questions on Protein synthesis

Q4 · Which components are present in prokaryotic cells?

4 Which components are present in prokaryotic cells? A chloroplasts, DNA, nuclear envelope B chromosomes, mitochondria, nuclear envelope C cytoplasm, DNA, mitochondria D cytoplasm, DNA, ribosomes

Mark scheme: D

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Q5 · The diagram is a plan of a transverse section through a leaf, drawn using a x 5 eyepiece…

5 The diagram is a plan of a transverse section through a leaf, drawn using a x 5 eyepiece and a x 8 objective lens of a microscope. 150 mm The actual distance across the leaf section is 7.5 mm. What is the magnification of the diagram? A x 5 B x 8 C x 20 D x 40

Mark scheme: C

More questions on The microscope in cell studies

Q6 · What describes the features of an electron microscope and its use?

6 What describes the features of an electron microscope and its use? maximum resolution / nm specimen used magnification A x 2 500 250 dead B x 25 000 0.5 living C x 250 000 0.5 dead D x 500 000 250 living

Mark scheme: C

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Q7 · Food tests are carried out on four solutions

7 Food tests are carried out on four solutions. Which solution contains only sucrose and protein? Benedict’s acid hydrolysis iodine in biuret solution test then potassium test Benedict's test iodide solution A Xx v x v B Jv v Xx v Cc Xx v v x D Jv Xx v x key ¥ = positive result X = negative result

Mark scheme: A

More questions on Testing for biological molecules

Q8 · During the production of apple juice, enzymes are used to break down the components of…

8 During the production of apple juice, enzymes are used to break down the components of the cell walls. Which carbohydrate will be produced by this hydrolysis? A amylose B cellulose C glucose D glycogen

Mark scheme: C

More questions on Carbohydrates and lipids

Q9 · What are the features of glycogen?

9 What are the features of glycogen? . . branched structural role in contains nitrogen molecule cell A Jv Jv x B Jv x Jv Cc x J x D x x Jv

Mark scheme: C

More questions on Carbohydrates and lipids

Q10 · What is the name of the bond joining glycerol and a fatty acid in the formation of a…

10 What is the name of the bond joining glycerol and a fatty acid in the formation of a monoglyceride? A ester B glycosidic C hydrogen D peptide

Mark scheme: A

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Q11 · Certain insects are able to stand on the surface of ponds

11 Certain insects are able to stand on the surface of ponds. Which property of water allows them to do this? A adhesion with other molecules B cohesion between water molecules C low viscosity D maximum density at 4 oC

Mark scheme: B

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Q12 · Which term describes the type of bonding responsible for stabilising the secondary…

12 Which term describes the type of bonding responsible for stabilising the secondary structure of a protein? A disulphide B hydrogen C hydrophobic D ionic

Mark scheme: B

More questions on Proteins

Q13 · How many different polypeptides, each consisting of r amino acids, can be made if the…

13 How many different polypeptides, each consisting of r amino acids, can be made if the number of different amino acids available is n ? n r r n n A B C n x r D r

Mark scheme: A

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Q14 · The curve X shows the activity of an enzyme at 20 oC

14 The curve X shows the activity of an enzyme at 20 oC. Curves A to D show the effect of different conditions on the activity of the enzyme. Which curve shows the effect of increasing the temperature by 10 oC and adding extra substrate? A B amount of product C D X time

Mark scheme: B

More questions on Factors that affect enzyme action

Q15 · What is the effect of increasing substrate concentration on the degree of inhibition of…

15 What is the effect of increasing substrate concentration on the degree of inhibition of an enzyme-controlled reaction? competitive inhibition non-competitive inhibition A decreased increased B decreased no change C increased decreased D no change increased

Mark scheme: B

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Q16 · Which part of a phospholipid molecule makes up most of the thickness of a cell surface…

16 Which part of a phospholipid molecule makes up most of the thickness of a cell surface membrane? A glycerol B hydrocarbon chains C hydrophilic head D phosphate group

Mark scheme: B

More questions on Fluid mosaic membranes

Q17 · The diagram shows a plant cell

17 The diagram shows a plant cell. The plant cell is put into a solution with a water potential less negative (higher) than the cell contents. What will happen to the appearance of the cell? A B C D

Mark scheme: C

More questions on Movement into and out of cells

Q18 · Which structures are present in large numbers at sites of active transport?

18 Which structures are present in large numbers at sites of active transport? A Golgi bodies B lysosomes C mitochondria D rough endoplasmic reticulum

Mark scheme: C

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Q19 · The graph shows measurements taken during one mitotic cell cycle

19 The graph shows measurements taken during one mitotic cell cycle. X 2 distance 1 0 5 10 15 20 25 time / minutes Which stage of mitosis begins at X and which measurements are shown by curves 1 and 2? distance between distance between stage centromeres of centromeres of beginning at X chromosomes and sister chromatids poles of spindle A anaphase 1 2 B anaphase 2 1 C metaphase 1 2 D metaphase 2 1

Mark scheme: A

More questions on Chromosome behaviour in mitosis

Q20 · Human cells contain 46 chromosomes

20 Human cells contain 46 chromosomes. The diagram shows a human cell in prophase of mitosis (cell 1) and the daughter cells just after telophase (cells 2 and 3). cell 1 cell 2 cell 3 How many DNA molecules are there in the nucleus of cell 1 and cell 2? cell 1 cell 2 A 46 23 B 46 46 C 92 23 D 92 46

Mark scheme: D

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Q21 · Which process occurs during prophase of mitosis in an animal cell?

21 Which process occurs during prophase of mitosis in an animal cell? A division of centromeres B formation of chromosomes C replication of DNA D separation of centrioles

Mark scheme: D

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Q22 · In the DNA sequence for sickle cell anaemia, adenine replaces thymine in a CTT triplet…

22 In the DNA sequence for sickle cell anaemia, adenine replaces thymine in a CTT triplet, forming the triplet CAT. During synthesis of the sickle cell haemoglobin molecule, the amino acid valine is incorporated instead of glutamic acid. What is the anticodon in the transfer RNA molecule carrying this valine? A CAT B CAU C GTA D GUA

Mark scheme: B

More questions on Protein synthesis

Q23 · In transcription, what is transcribed and what is the product?

23 In transcription, what is transcribed and what is the product? transcribed product A DNA mRNA B DNA polypeptide C mRNA DNA D mRNA polypeptide

Mark scheme: A

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Q24 · The table shows mRNA triplets and their corresponding amino acids

24 The table shows mRNA triplets and their corresponding amino acids. mRNA triplet GCA GCG GAA GAG AAA AAG amino acid ala ala glu glu lys lys A tripeptide is glu-lys-ala. Which sequence of bases in DNA could code for this tripeptide? A CTCCGTTTT B CTTTTCCGT C TTCCGTCTT D TTTCTCCGC

Mark scheme: B

More questions on Protein synthesis

Q25 · Analysis of DNA produced the following ratios of nitrogenous bases

25 Analysis of DNA produced the following ratios of nitrogenous bases. ratio of purines source of DNA to pyrimidines bean seeds 0.99 cow heart 1.01 human liver 1.02 rat bone marrow 1.00 Which statement explains the difference in the ratios? A Animal DNA contains more purines than pyrimidines. B Different parts of organisms contain different proportions of purines and pyrimidines. C DNA contains thymine instead of uracil. D There are variations in the accuracy of analytical techniques.

Mark scheme: D

More questions on Structure of nucleic acids and replication of DNA

Q26 · Which structures are found in both arteries and capillaries?

26 Which structures are found in both arteries and capillaries? A collagen fibres B elastic fibres C endothelial cells D smooth muscle cells

Mark scheme: C

More questions on The circulatory system

Q27 · Which function can be carried out by a mature red blood cell?

27 Which function can be carried out by a mature red blood cell? A active transport B cell division C phagocytosis D protein synthesis

Mark scheme: A

More questions on Transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide

Q28 · What is the function of the Purkyne (Purkinje) tissue in the mammalian heart?

28 What is the function of the Purkyne (Purkinje) tissue in the mammalian heart? A to conduct a wave of electrical excitation over the atria B to conduct a wave of electrical excitation over the ventricles C to reduce the spontaneous contraction rate of the heart D to separate oxygenated blood from deoxygenated blood

Mark scheme: B

More questions on The heart

Q29 · A region of a stem of a plant is heated to kill the cells in the living vascular tissues

29 A region of a stem of a plant is heated to kill the cells in the living vascular tissues. How will this treatment affect the transport between roots and leaves via xylem and phloem? xylem phloem v v J transport continues x transport stops 0 0O WD > v x x v x x

Mark scheme: B

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Q30 · Some soil-borne fungi cause wilting in crop plants by growing within the xylem vessels

30 Some soil-borne fungi cause wilting in crop plants by growing within the xylem vessels. Which process will be directly affected by these fungi? A conduction in the apoplast B development of root pressure C stomatal movement D uptake of water by root hairs

Mark scheme: A

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Q31 · Which tissues are present in a bronchus?

31 Which tissues are present in a bronchus? cartilage ciliated epithelium | smooth muscle A v v v B v v x Cc v x v D x v v

Mark scheme: A

More questions on The gas exchange system

Q32 · The diagram shows a record of a person’s breathing

32 The diagram shows a record of a person’s breathing. The person breathed normally at the start, breathed in as deeply as possible and then breathed out as much as possible. start { 1 dm3 30 seconds What is a valid conclusion from the graph? A The person was carrying out strenuous exercise for the first 30 seconds. B The tidal volume was 500 cm3, the vital capacity was 3 750 cm3. C The person breathed in 1 000 cm3 during the first 50 seconds. D The rate of breathing for the first 30 seconds was 15 breaths per minute.

Mark scheme: B

More questions on The gas exchange system

Q33 · A smoker secretes excess mucus from the epithelial lining of the respiratory system

33 A smoker secretes excess mucus from the epithelial lining of the respiratory system. Which disease is likely to develop? A asthma B bronchitis C emphysema D lung cancer

Mark scheme: B

More questions on Infectious diseases

Q34 · What are the causative agent and method of infection for cholera?

34 What are the causative agent and method of infection for cholera? causative agent method of infection A bacterium direct contact B bacterium food and water C virus inhalation D virus faeces

Mark scheme: B

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Q35 · Which description is correct for B-lymphocytes?

35 Which description is correct for B-lymphocytes? made from bone processed in release marrow stem cells the thymus antibodies Jv Jv Jv 0 Oo WwW > v v x v x v x x v

Mark scheme: C

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Q36 · An antiserum to a snake toxin can be obtained by injecting the toxin into a horse

36 An antiserum to a snake toxin can be obtained by injecting the toxin into a horse. The antiserum is made from plasma taken from the horse a few weeks later. The antiserum is used to treat a person who has been bitten by the same species of snake. What does the person’s treatment bring about? A artificial active immunity B artificial passive immunity C natural active immunity D natural passive immunity

Mark scheme: B

More questions on Antibodies and vaccination

Q37 · The diagram shows different elements concerned with the immune response in humans

37 The diagram shows different elements concerned with the immune response in humans. 4 1 3 2 What are the parts numbered 1 to 4? 1 2 3 4 A lymphocyte antigen pathogen phagocyte B phagocyte antibody pathogen lymphocyte C phagocyte antibody lymphocyte pathogen D pathogen antigen lymphocyte phagocyte

Mark scheme: A

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Q38 · A square metre of grassland receives about 1 047 000 kJ of solar light energy each year

38 A square metre of grassland receives about 1 047 000 kJ of solar light energy each year. The table shows what happens to this energy. used in evaporation of water 523 500 kJ transmitted to the ground 335 000 kJ reflected by the leaves 165 000 kJ used for growth 21 500 kJ used for other life processes 1 500 kJ respiratory heat losses 500 kJ How much energy is used by the grass in photosynthesis? A 2000 kJ B 19 500 kJ C 21 500 kJ D 23 500 kJ

Mark scheme: D

More questions on Photosynthesis as an energy transfer process

Q39 · Why does the application of nitrate fertilisers cause an increase in crop production?

39 Why does the application of nitrate fertilisers cause an increase in crop production? A Green plants manufacture more protein. B More nitrogen is fixed in leguminous plants. C The fertiliser adds energy to the ecosystem. D The number of denitrifying bacteria decreases.

Mark scheme: A

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Q40 · What name is given to all the organisms of different species living in an area?

40 What name is given to all the organisms of different species living in an area? A community B ecosystem C niche D population

Mark scheme: A

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