Cambridge IGCSE English - Second Language (count-in oral) 0511 — 2024 Oct/Nov Paper 1 · Variant 3

[Turn over Cambridge IGCSE™ This document has 16 pages. Any blank pages are indicated. DC (EV) 347919 © UCLES 2024 * 3 9 1 6 2 6 2 0 4 0 * ENGLISH AS A SECOND LANGUAGE 0511/13 Paper 1 Reading and Writing October/November 2024 2 hours You must answer on the question paper. No additional materials are needed. INSTRUCTIONS ● Answer all questions. ● Use a black or dark blue pen. ● Write your name, centre number and candidate number in the boxes at the top of the page. ● Write your answer to each question in the space provided. ● Do not use an erasable pen or correction fluid. ● Do not write on any bar codes. ● Dictionaries are not allowed. INFORMATION ● The total mark for this paper is 60. ● The number of marks for each question or part question is shown in brackets [ ]. ,










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2 0511/13/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 Exercise 1 Read the article about an animal called the fruit bat, and then answer the questions. Fruit bats Fruit bats are flying mammals named because of their habit of living on a diet of various tropical fruits and plants. There are over 170 different species around the world. Although mainly found in Africa, some can also be found in sites in Southeast Asia and Central and South America. While most bats measure only a few centimetres in length, fruit bats are, on average, the largest bat species in the world. They range in size from the flying fox, which has wings up to 1.7 metres across when fully extended, down to the spotted-winged fruit bat, whose open wings measure around 28 centimetres from end to end. Fruit bats are nocturnal, which means they usually only come out at night to feed. The most likely explanation for this is that the bat is trying to avoid dangerous animals such as rats. In island locations especially, these can seriously reduce numbers. Despite sharing certain types of behaviour with other bat species, fruit bats are unique in some respects. When it comes to flying at night, fruit bats regularly use smell to work out where they are going, whereas most bat species use sound to achieve this. It is unclear whether fruit bats simply lost that ability at some time in the past or just never developed it in the first place. Fruit bats are among the most social of all mammals. With a few exceptions, they usually live in large groups of up to 200 000 individuals. They gather at the end of the night when they have finished feeding and remain together until the next night. They do this in a variety of places including caves, bushes and even empty buildings, although more than half of all species are found in trees, sometimes in such large numbers that the branches can break under their weight. The size of the groups may be related to the availability of local food. In places where there is plenty, the bats will form even bigger groups. Female fruit bats are responsible for almost all the care of their young bats, known as pups. Research has shown that these remain with their mothers for around the first four months of their lives, receiving both milk and protection. It takes about two years for young bats to become adults. They can then live for up to 30 years. While fruit bats are not yet an endangered species, they are increasingly at risk, for example from humans clearing land for farming. It is unclear at the moment exactly how much impact climate change is having on fruit bats, but it appears to be significant. * 0000800000002 * ,










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3 0511/13/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 [Turn over Question 1 Where in the world do most species of fruit bat live? … [1] Question 2 Which is the largest type of fruit bat? … [1] Question 3 What do fruit bats use to help them find their way in the dark? … [1] Question 4 Where do the majority of fruit bats tend to spend the daylight hours? … [1] Question 5 How long do female fruit bats look after their young for? … [1] Question 6 What factors does the writer say affect fruit bat populations? Give three details. … … … [3] [Total: 8] * 0000800000003 * ,










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4 0511/13/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 Exercise 2 Read the article about four young people (A–D) who are planning a career as a pilot. Then answer Questions 7(a)–(i). Young pilots Four young people talk about their love of flying A Sally I fell in love with planes at high school. I always knew I wanted to work for an airline in some way, but it wasn’t until I completed a school project on how planes fly that I decided I wanted to become a pilot. I really enjoyed being able to make even just a model plane fly, so much so that I asked for flying lessons for my 16th birthday. I was lucky. My instructor was really positive about my abilities and, if he hadn't encouraged me, I’d never have applied to pilot school. I’m still fascinated by the physics of flying, and without the knowledge of how it all works, I’m convinced that I wouldn’t be able to achieve my ambition. I also pay special attention to new types of aircraft. I hope that’s something that will help me stand out from the crowd when I start applying for jobs. B Chuck I come from a family of pilots. My father and grandfather both flew planes in the army, and I grew up seeing their medals and going to aeroplane museums with them. Their bravery has always impressed me, and made me want to follow the same path in my flying career. Although they never said so, I think they felt very proud. After a while, though, I realised I was much more interested in commercial airlines than joining the army. At first, I worried how my family might feel about this, but then I saw how delighted my parents were after I landed my first flight when I was just 17. I’m now focused on getting the qualifications I need as an airline pilot. I believe it’ll mean I can both please my family by partly following tradition as well as do something that matters to me. C Alicia I first went on a small plane when I was eight. I was so worried that I cried during take-off, but once we were up, I was fascinated. The advantage of flying in a small plane is that kids can sometimes go up and meet the pilots, and I was so impressed by their abilities. One of them gave me a tiny aeroplane badge, which I’ve worn every time I’ve flown since. It reminds me of the high standards I want to maintain when I become a pilot. I loved how those pilots sounded confident and calm, which is something I’ll admit I need to work on. Every time I heard the pilot’s voice through the speakers, it felt like a friend telling me I didn’t need to worry about safety. I’d love to be able to give others that same feeling, which is why I’m drawn to a career as a pilot. D Gary Despite being born into a family with a history of producing pilots, it took me a while to appreciate the appeal, and I really wasn’t into science to begin with. But I remember when Dad got his pilot’s licence. Seeing his happiness was when everything started making sense, and I finally realised what I wanted to do. I started taking flying lessons soon afterwards. For me, flying provides an escape from the stresses of things like studying – nothing else really compares. That’s why flying isn’t just another career option for me – it’s the only one – and it’s why I’ll keep working at it until I’m the best pilot I can be. When flying, you’re always learning, there’s always something you can improve – that’s a huge reason for being a pilot. One thing that makes a great pilot is good communication, and despite a slow start, I think I’ve made that one of my main strengths. * 0000800000004 * ,










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5 0511/13/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 [Turn over For each statement, write the correct letter, A, B, C or D, on the line. Question 7 Which person … (a) admits they were concerned about causing disappointment? … [1] (b) emphasises how important it is for them to understand the science of flight? … [1] (c) refers to an encounter that still inspires them today? … [1] (d) thinks their choice of career represents a good compromise? … [1] (e) suggests they would struggle to find satisfaction in any other job? … [1] (f) mentions something that could provide them with an advantage over competitors? … [1] (g) talks about their initial lack of interest in following a tradition? … [1] (h) appreciates the support that gave them the confidence to continue with their plans? … [1] (i) mentions an ability they recognise is in need of improvement? … [1] [Total: 9] * 0000800000005 * ,










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6 0511/13/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 Exercise 3 Read the article about building houses under the ground, and then complete the notes. Why don’t we live underground? It may surprise you to learn that living below ground has a very long history. Ancient underground cities have been found in several locations, such as Derinkuyu in Turkey, which dates back over 1000 years and had up to 20 000 inhabitants. Such places were constructed in times of danger because they provided good security, especially when compared to above-ground communities. While safety is less of a consideration today, there are still many advantages to choosing an underground lifestyle. Nowadays, a new generation has recognised this and people are constructing homes either completely underground, or more commonly underground on three sides. There are a number of reasons for this. Firstly, underground homes are constructed so as to fit in with the natural landscape, and secondly, the builders of underground houses use fewer building materials. Also, if the fourth side of the building has windows and doors that can be opened to let sunlight in, this addresses a risk commonly associated with underground living: we humans need sunlight if we are to avoid a lack of vitamin D – the only vitamin we require that we get from the sun – which is vital for our health. Finally, underground houses remain at an almost constant temperature throughout the year. Aside from this being a bonus in itself, it allows the homeowner to save energy. The main concern for owners of underground houses is probably water leaking in. However, most modern underground houses are very effective at preventing this as their walls include a waterproof layer. In fact, underground houses can even be designed to collect water in special underground tanks. As we know, water is a precious resource, so no one can deny that this is a clear advantage of underground living. One of the biggest issues for the owners of normal, above-ground houses is the fact that they require regular maintenance. This can be less of a worry for the owners of modern underground houses. Provided that the construction of their houses is strong enough to resist damage from tree roots, the owners will save money on repair costs. Also, improved construction techniques in the latest generation of underground houses have helped overcome most potential risks from earth movement. In fact, underground houses are generally much safer than tall buildings as they shake far less. Thousands of people in Europe and America now live in underground homes, and countries like Japan and China are particularly keen to build underground living places as they enable people to make more efficient use of land. In other countries, such as the UK, progress is currently much slower. This is partly due to mistaken beliefs that underground homes are dark and damp. As it is predicted that the world’s population could reach nine billion by 2050, such prejudices could become a thing of the past in the search for living space. * 0000800000006 * ,










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7 0511/13/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 [Turn over Imagine you are going to give a talk about living underground to your classmates. Use words from the article to help you write some notes. Make short notes under each heading. Question 8 Environmental benefits of underground houses: Example: fit in with the natural landscape ● … ● … ● … ● … [4] Question 9 Possible problems with living underground: ● … ● … ● … [3] [Total: 7] * 0000800000007 * ,










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8 0511/13/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 Exercise 4 Read the article by Taylor Clark, whose family bought part of a forest to manage, and then answer the questions. Our forest story There are many reasons why you may want your own area of forest – perhaps to prevent it from being destroyed by extensive building work, or maybe just as somewhere to get firewood from. They often think it’s best if nature is left completely alone to get on with things in its own way, but it’s important to understand that nature sometimes needs a helping hand. * 0000800000008 * ,










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9 0511/13/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 [Turn over Question 10 In the first paragraph, what does Taylor say about her family’s decision to buy their own part of a forest? A They agreed without hesitation. B They wanted to move to the countryside. C They were bored with their existing way of life. [1] Question 11 When describing how the family found their area of forest, Taylor suggests she was A excited by her father’s plans. B surprised by what actually happened. C uncertain about how realistic they were being. [1] Question 12 Why does Taylor mention outdoor cooking? A to demonstrate how much research they still need to do B to explain a benefit of taking time to learn about nature C to show the main challenges of an outdoor lifestyle [1] Question 13 What does Taylor say about the cabin the family built in the woods? A It was located to make the most of its surroundings. B Everyone was involved in its construction. C Most of the ideas for its design came from the children. [1] * 0000800000009 * ,










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10 0511/13/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 Question 14 What does ‘It’ refer to in line 29? A appreciating your surroundings more B finishing a hard day’s work in the forest C giving yourself a complete break [1] Question 15 What is Taylor doing in the final paragraph? A questioning the need for tree cutting B correcting a popular belief about tree cutting C explaining why tree cutting assists the forest [1] [Total: 6] * 0000800000010 * ,










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11 0511/13/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 [Turn over Please turn over for Exercise 5. * 0000800000011 * ,









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12 0511/13/ O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 Exercise 5 Question 16 You have recently decided to start writing your own blog. Write an email to a friend about this. In your email you should: ● explain why you would like to start writing your own blog ● say how you will make your blog different from others you have read ● describe what might be challenging about writing your blog. Write about 120 to 160 words. You will receive up to 6 marks for the content of your email, and up to 9 marks for the language used. * 0000800000012 * ,









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13 0511/13/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 [Turn over … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … [Total: 15] * 0000800000013 * ,









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14 0511/13/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 Exercise 6 Question 17 You recently had a class discussion about the effects of playing computer games on young people. Your teacher has asked everyone in the class to write an essay on the subject. In your essay, write about the effects of playing computer games on young people. Here are some comments from your classmates: Computer games are bad for your health. Some computer games are very entertaining. Computer games teach useful skills. I spend too much time playing computer games. Now write an essay for your class teacher, giving your opinions. The comments above may give you some ideas, and you should also use some ideas of your own. Write about 120 to 160 words. You will receive up to 6 marks for the content of your essay, and up to 9 marks for the language used. * 0000800000014 * ,









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15 0511/13/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … [Total: 15] * 0000800000015 * ,









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16 0511/13/O/N/24 © UCLES 2024 Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity. To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series. Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge. BLANK PAGE * 0000800000016 * ,









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This document consists of 10 printed pages. © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 [Turn over Cambridge IGCSE™ ENGLISH AS A SECOND LANGUAGE 0511/13 Paper 1 Reading and Writing October/November 2024 MARK SCHEME Maximum Mark: 60 Published This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have considered the acceptability of alternative answers. Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for Teachers. Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes. Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2024 series for most Cambridge IGCSE, Cambridge International A and AS Level components, and some Cambridge O Level components.

0511/13 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 2 of 10 Generic Marking Principles These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers. They should be applied alongside the specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptions for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these marking principles. GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 1: Marks must be awarded in line with: • the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question • the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question • the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts. GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 2: Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions). GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 3: Marks must be awarded positively: • marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit is given for valid answers which go beyond the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme, referring to your Team Leader as appropriate • marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do • marks are not deducted for errors • marks are not deducted for omissions • answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these features are specifically assessed by the question as indicated by the mark scheme. The meaning, however, should be unambiguous. GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 4: Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed instructions or in the application of generic level descriptors. GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 5: Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question (however; the use of the full mark range may be limited according to the quality of the candidate responses seen). GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 6: Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should not be awarded with grade thresholds or grade descriptors in mind.

0511/13 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 3 of 10 Cambridge IGCSE English as a Second Language Paper 1 Reading and Writing tests the following Assessment Objectives: Reading R1 demonstrate understanding of specific factual information R2 demonstrate understanding of the connections between the ideas, opinions and attitudes R3 identify and select details for a specific purpose R4 demonstrate understanding of implied meaning Writing W1 communicate information, ideas and opinions W2 organise ideas into coherent text using a range of linking devices W3 use a range of appropriate grammatical structures and vocabulary W4 use appropriate register and style for the given purpose and audience

0511/13 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 4 of 10 Exercise 1 Any text in brackets ( ) may be included, but is not essential in order for the mark to be awarded. Question Answer Marks 1 Africa 1 Question Answer Marks 2 flying fox 1 Question Answer Marks 3 smell 1 Question Answer Marks 4 (in) trees / tree branches 1 Question Answer Marks 5 (about) (the first) four months 1 Question Answer Marks 6 Award one mark for each detail up to a maximum of three marks: 1) dangerous animals / rats 2) availability of (local) food 3) (humans) clearing land (for farming) 4) climate change 3

0511/13 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 5 of 10 Exercise 2 Question Answer Marks 7(a) B 1 7(b) A 1 7(c) C 1 7(d) B 1 7(e) D 1 7(f) A 1 7(g) D 1 7(h) A 1 7(i) C 1

0511/13 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 6 of 10 Exercise 3 Any text in brackets ( ) may be included, but is not essential in order for the mark to be awarded. Question Answer Marks 8 Award one mark for each acceptable response, up to a maximum of four marks: Environmental benefits of underground houses: 1 (use) fewer building materials 2 (remain at an almost) constant temperature 3 save energy 4 collect water 5 (make more) efficient use of land 4 Question Answer Marks 9 Award one mark for each acceptable response, up to a maximum of three marks: Possible problems with living underground: 1 lack of vitamin D / need sunlight 2 water leaking (in) 3 damage from tree roots 4 (potential risks from) earth movement 3

0511/13 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 7 of 10 Exercise 4 Question Answer Marks 10 A 1 Question Answer Marks 11 C 1 Question Answer Marks 12 B 1 Question Answer Marks 13 A 1 Question Answer Marks 14 C 1 Question Answer Marks 15 B 1

0511/13 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 8 of 10 Question Answer Marks 16 Award up to a total of 15 marks. Up to 6 marks to be awarded for Content. Plus up to 9 marks to be awarded for Language. See marking criteria for Questions 16 and 17. 15 Question Answer Marks 17 Award up to a total of 15 marks. Up to 6 marks to be awarded for Content. Plus up to 9 marks to be awarded for Language. See marking criteria for Questions 16 and 17. 15

0511/13 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 9 of 10 Marking criteria for Questions 16 and 17 Table A: Content Marks Description 5–6 Task fulfilment • Task is fulfilled. • Content is fully relevant throughout. • Consistently appropriate style for the text type. • Excellent sense of purpose and audience. Development of ideas • Content is very well developed. 3–4 Task fulfilment • Task is generally fulfilled. • Content is generally relevant. • Generally appropriate style for the text type. • Generally good sense of purpose and audience. Development of ideas • Content is generally developed. 1–2 Task fulfilment • Task is only partially fulfilled. • Content is only partially relevant. • Style for the text type is inconsistent or inappropriate. • Insufficient sense of purpose and audience. Development of ideas • Limited attempt to develop content. 0 No creditable response

0511/13 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2024 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2024 Page 10 of 10 Table B: Language Marks Description 7–9 Range and accuracy • Content is communicated skilfully and appropriately. • Uses a wide range of common and less common vocabulary appropriately. • Uses a wide range of simple and complex structures. • High level of accuracy of language. Occasional errors may be present, but these do not impede communication. Organisation • Effectively organised and sequenced. • Uses a wide range of linking words and/or other cohesive devices appropriately. 4–6 Range and accuracy • Content is communicated clearly. • Uses a range of common vocabulary appropriately, and attempts to use some less common vocabulary. • Uses a range of simple structures, and attempts to use some complex structures. • Generally good level of accuracy of language. Errors do not generally impede communication. Organisation • Generally well organised and sequenced. • Uses a range of linking words and/or other cohesive devices generally appropriately. 1–3 Range and accuracy • Content is communicated but lacks clarity. • Uses only common vocabulary. • Uses only simple structures. • Lack of control of language. Errors impede communication. Organisation • Limited attempt at organisation and sequencing. • Limited attempt to use linking words and/or other cohesive devices. 0 No creditable content.