Cambridge A Level Thinking Skills 9694 — 2025 May/June Paper 1 · Variant 1

This document has 16 pages. Any blank pages are indicated. [Turn over Cambridge International AS & A Level THINKING SKILLS 9694/11 Paper 1 Problem Solving May/June 2025 1 hour 30 minutes You must answer on the question paper. No additional materials are needed. INSTRUCTIONS ● Answer all questions. ● Use a black or dark blue pen. ● Write your name, centre number and candidate number in the boxes at the top of the page. ● Write your answer to each question in the space provided. ● Do not use an erasable pen or correction fluid. ● Do not write on any bar codes. ● You may use a calculator. ● Show your working. Where a final answer is incorrect or missing, you may still be awarded marks for correct steps towards a solution. In some questions, if you do not show your working, full marks will not be awarded. INFORMATION ● The total mark for this paper is 50. ● The number of marks for each question or part question is shown in brackets [ ]. DC (KS) 344375/1 © UCLES 2025 * 9 9 1 8 9 1 3 8 7 1 * ,










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2 9694/11/M/J/25 © UCLES 2025 1 My usual train to work leaves at 08:16 and arrives at Alton railway station at 08:46. I then catch a bus from Alton railway station, which leaves every 10 minutes from 08:00 onwards, and which takes 23 minutes to get to my office. Today, my train arrived at Alton railway station 6 minutes late, but the buses ran on time. How much later than usual did I arrive at work? [2] … … … … … … … … 2 Reshma is starting a small business making and selling soap. She makes the soap in large 1 kg blocks and will sell them in either 100 g or 250 g pieces, cutting all the pieces across the block in the same direction. It takes Reshma 10 seconds to accurately position the soap and make each cut and a further 30 seconds to wrap and box each cut piece. (a) How long would it take Reshma to cut and wrap 1 kg of soap if she cuts it all into 250 g pieces? [1] … … … … (b) How much longer would it take to cut and wrap the 1 kg block if Reshma cut it into 100 g pieces instead of 250 g pieces? [1] … … … … * 0000800000002 * ,










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3 9694/11/M/J/25 © UCLES 2025 [Turn over 3 A cinema has 200 seats. The price of a ticket is $15 for a screening that begins at 18:00 or later and $9 for a screening that begins before 18:00. This week’s film has screenings that begin at 11:40, 13:55, 16:10, 18:25 and 20:40 each day. (a) What is the maximum possible income from ticket sales for any day this week? [2] … … … … … … … … The manager of the cinema is sorting out next week’s screening times. Next week’s film has a running time of 125 minutes. He wants the last screening of the day to finish at 22:30 and each screening (except the first of the day) will begin 20 minutes after the end of the previous one. There will be four screenings each day. (b) At what time each day next week will the first screening begin? [2] … … … … … … … … * 0000800000003 * ,










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4 9694/11/M/J/25 © UCLES 2025 4 Hetty is programming a robotic cart to work in a warehouse. The warehouse is set up with bays on a square grid with pathways between them. The cart starts facing North and is instructed to move to its target as follows: three bays forward then turn left three bays forward then turn left one bay forward then turn right two bays forward then turn left one bay forward then turn right. (a) What compass direction does the cart end up facing after following these instructions? [1] … … … … … … (b) Give a set of instructions that moves the cart from the original start point facing North to the same target using the fewest possible moves. [2] … … … … … … * 0000800000004 * ,










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5 9694/11/M/J/25 © UCLES 2025 [Turn over 5 Ten children were asked to name the two colours of a local football team. The responses from the ten children are given below: Red/Blue Yellow/Blue Purple/White Green/Blue Purple/Red Green/Red Blue/White Red/White Green/Red White/Red One child got both colours correct and another five children got one colour correct. (a) What are the colours of the local football team? [1] … … … … … … The children were also asked when the football team was established. Their answers are given below. 1962 1959 1980 1995 2000 1972 1991 1981 1969 1977 No child got the correct answer, but six children were within 10 years of the correct answer. (b) When was the football club established? [1] … … … … … … … … … * 0000800000005 * ,










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6 9694/11/M/J/25 © UCLES 2025 6 Milly runs a small business making clay models of animals. She works on Thursdays, Fridays, Saturdays and Sundays from 09:00 to 17:00 with a lunch break from 13:00 to 14:00. Her son Donny helps by making models on Saturdays and Sundays from 09:00 to 13:00. The times taken to make models of cats and giraffes are given in the table. Animal Time taken per animal by Milly Time taken per animal by Donny Cat 20 minutes 30 minutes Giraffe 25 minutes 45 minutes Last week, Milly and Donny made only cats. (a) What is the total number of cats that they made last week? [2] … … … … … … … On Saturday this week, Milly and Donny will make only cats. Each person will start making a new model at 09:00. (b) Who will complete the 13th cat on Saturday, and at what time will it be complete? [2] … … … … … … … … … … * 0000800000006 * ,










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7 9694/11/M/J/25 © UCLES 2025 [Turn over Next week, Milly will make only giraffes. She will only start making a giraffe before lunch if she can complete it by 13:00 and she will only start making a giraffe after lunch if she can complete it by 17:00. (c) What is the greatest number of giraffes that Milly can make in a day? [1] … … … … … Milly realises that she could make an extra giraffe each day if she both reduces her lunch break to 55 minutes and starts lunch at a different time between 12:00 and 13:30. (d) List all the possible times at which Milly could start her lunch break. [1] … … … … … … … … … * 0000800000007 * ,










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8 9694/11/M/J/25 © UCLES 2025 7 Quinty is a computer word game in which points are scored for creating five‑letter words. The five vowels, A, E, I, O and U, are always worth 1 point each. However, at the start of every new game the computer randomly gives each of the other letters of the alphabet a value between 2 and 8 inclusive. In the game currently being played, the words created so far and their scores are: PAINT 15 points STONE 11 points PLANT 19 points CURRY 14 points STAND 16 points (a) What is the value of the letter L in this game? [1] … … … … … (b) How many points would the word ADDED score in this game? [2] … … … … … (c) What is the greatest value the letter R might have in this game? [2] … … … … … * 0000800000008 * ,










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9 9694/11/M/J/25 © UCLES 2025 [Turn over 8 Every Monday, Tamsin receives some pocket money from her parents, which she adds to her savings. The amount she receives is the same every week. Every Monday, Caroline receives some pocket money from her parents, which she adds to her savings. Caroline receives three times as much pocket money each week as Tamsin. After they had received their pocket money this Monday, Tamsin’s savings were $30 more than Caroline’s, but they will have exactly the same amount in their savings after another 5 weeks. How much pocket money does Tamsin receive each week? [2] … … … … … … … … … … … … * 0000800000009 * ,










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10 9694/11/M/J/25 © UCLES 2025 9 The computer game Bolandian Escape has 90 levels numbered 1 to 90. Levels 1 to 30 are classed as Easy, levels 31 to 60 are Medium and levels 61 to 90 are Hard. A player starts at level 1 and progresses through the levels in turn. Each level has a time limit (in minutes) and a maximum number of attempts allowed. If a player runs out of time, they make another attempt at that level. If they fail at all the attempts, they still progress to the next level, but score no points. Levels Maximum attempts per level Time limit (minutes) for each attempt per level Minimum possible completion time (minutes) per level Points scored for successful completion per level 1–30 (Easy) 10 15 5 4 31–60 (Medium) 20 25 8 6 61–90 (Hard) 40 45 12 9 (a) Show that a player who successfully completes every level of the game scores 570 points. [1] … … (b) What is the greatest amount of time that it could take to successfully complete every level of the game? [2] … … … … … … Rahim started playing the game on Monday and played for two hours each day, starting at 19:00. Each day, he was able to leave the game at the point he had reached at the end of the two hours and start from that same point on the following day. Rahim successfully completed every level of the game. (c) What is the earliest day and time at which Rahim could have finished playing the game? [2] … … … … … * 0000800000010 * ,










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11 9694/11/M/J/25 © UCLES 2025 [Turn over Jai played Bolandian Escape. He successfully completed 24 Easy levels, at least 11 Medium levels and at least 9 Hard levels. He scored a total of 285 points. (d) What are the possible numbers of Medium and Hard levels that Jai could have completed? [3] … … … … … … … … … … … … * 0000800000011 * ,









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12 9694/11/M/J/25 © UCLES 2025 10 Yutu is a pleasure boat that takes passengers for a 50‑minute trip around Lake Bonneau during the summer months. There are 6 trips every day. Trips start and finish at the landing stage. The first departure of the day is at 10:15, followed by departures at regular 90‑minute intervals. (a) At what time does the last trip of the day return to the landing stage? [2] … … … … … … The maximum number of passengers the boat is allowed to carry is 48. There must be at least one adult for every two children. Fares for each trip are as follows: Adult $12 Child $7 Family $40 (2 adults and up to 3 children) (b) What is the smallest possible income from fares for any trip that has 48 passengers on board? [2] … … … … … … … … … … * 0000800000012 * ,









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13 9694/11/M/J/25 © UCLES 2025 [Turn over 11 An astronaut is exploring a planet that has an unbreathable atmosphere. On every trip, she does some walking and some running. She never stops while she is outside the spaceship. When walking, she consumes 1 litre of oxygen per minute. When running, she consumes 2 litres of oxygen per minute. Her walking speed is 2 km/hour and her running speed is 6 km/hour. She must be back at her spaceship by the time there is no more oxygen left in her tank. She leaves her spaceship at 09:16 with a tank containing 50 litres of oxygen. (a) If she runs for 1 km, what is the latest time that she can arrive back at the spaceship? [2] … … … … (b) If she walks for only 0.4 km, what is the latest time that she can arrive back at the spaceship? [2] … … … … … … … (c) What is the greatest distance she can run if she wants to return to the spaceship at exactly 10:00? [2] … … … … … … * 0000800000013 * ,









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14 9694/11/M/J/25 © UCLES 2025 12 Jared visits a pizza shop and, whilst looking at the toppings available, he realises he could have a different combination of toppings every night for a week with just three toppings: Ham (H), Mushroom (M) and Tomato (T). H, M, T, HM, HT, MT, HMT What is the smallest number of toppings that would be needed for Jared to be able to have a different combination every night for a month of 31 days? [2] … … … … … … … … … … … … * 0000800000014 * ,









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15 9694/11/M/J/25 © UCLES 2025 13 Some multiple‑choice exam questions have three statements (labelled i, ii and iii), at least one of which is true. The candidate must select one answer from: A only i is true B only ii is true C only iii is true D i and ii are true (but iii is false) E ii and iii are true (but i is false) On average, the answers A to E are all equally likely. (a) What is the chance that ii is true? [1] … … … … (b) What is the chance that iii is true? [1] … … … … It is not always necessary for the candidate to consider all three statements. For example, if the candidate considers statement i and finds that it is true, then they only need to consider statement ii to determine whether the answer is A or D. (c) Give the other two examples where considering a second statement is certain to determine the answer. [2] … … … … … … … * 0000800000015 * ,









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16 9694/11/M/J/25 © UCLES 2025 Permission to reproduce items where third‑party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity. To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer‑related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series. Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge. BLANK PAGE * 0000800000016 * ,









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This document consists of 9 printed pages. © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2025 [Turn over Cambridge International AS & A Level THINKING SKILLS 9694/11 Paper 1 Problem Solving May/June 2025 MARK SCHEME Maximum Mark: 50 Published This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have considered the acceptability of alternative answers. Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for Teachers. Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes. Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the May/June 2025 series for most Cambridge IGCSE, Cambridge International A and AS Level components, and some Cambridge O Level components.

9694/11 Cambridge International AS & A Level – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED May/June 2025 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2025 Page 2 of 9 Generic Marking Principles These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers. They should be applied alongside the specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptions for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these marking principles. GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 1: Marks must be awarded in line with: • the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question • the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question • the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts. GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 2: Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions). GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 3: Marks must be awarded positively: • marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit is given for valid answers which go beyond the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme, referring to your Team Leader as appropriate • marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do • marks are not deducted for errors • marks are not deducted for omissions • answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these features are specifically assessed by the question as indicated by the mark scheme. The meaning, however, should be unambiguous. GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 4: Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed instructions or in the application of generic level descriptors. GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 5: Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question (however; the use of the full mark range may be limited according to the quality of the candidate responses seen). GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 6: Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should not be awarded with grade thresholds or grade descriptors in mind.

9694/11 Cambridge International AS & A Level – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED May/June 2025 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2025 Page 3 of 9 Annotations guidance for centres Examiners use a system of annotations as a shorthand for communicating their marking decisions to one another. Examiners are trained during the standardisation process on how and when to use annotations. The purpose of annotations is to inform the standardisation and monitoring processes and guide the supervising examiners when they are checking the work of examiners within their team. The meaning of annotations and how they are used is specific to each component and is understood by all examiners who mark the component. We publish annotations in our mark schemes to help centres understand the annotations they may see on copies of scripts. Note that there may not be a direct correlation between the number of annotations on a script and the mark awarded. Similarly, the use of an annotation may not be an indication of the quality of the response. The annotations listed below were available to examiners marking this component in this series.

9694/11 Cambridge International AS & A Level – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED May/June 2025 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2025 Page 4 of 9 Annotations Where the answer is underlined in the mark scheme, and a candidate’s correct final answer is both clear and clearly identified (encircled, underlined etc.), it is not necessary to annotate that item; nor is it necessary to annotate when there is No Response. Where there is a response that scores 0, either SEEN should be used, or some other annotation(s) to indicate why no marks can be awarded (Caret, TE, NGE, Cross). Partial credit should be indicated with a 1 (or, occasionally, a 2) at the point at which that mark has been earned. The highlighter should be used anywhere it is helpful to clarify the marking. Annotation Meaning Correct item Incorrect item Individual mark of partial credit Double mark of partial credit Essential element of answer/working missing Judged to be not good enough to earn the relevant credit Benefit of doubt Correct follow through Transcription error Special case Working seen but no credit awarded; blank page checked Highlighter Use anywhere it is helpful to clarify the marking

9694/11 Cambridge International AS & A Level – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED May/June 2025 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2025 Page 5 of 9 NOTES FOR MARKERS Working Where a final answer is underlined in the mark scheme, full marks are awarded for a correct answer, regardless of whether there is any supporting working, unless an exception is noted in the mark scheme. For partial credit, the evidence needed to award the mark will usually be shown on its own line in the mark scheme, or else will be defined in italic text. For explanations and verbal justifications, apply the principle of ‘words to that effect’. Units Unless required by the question or mark scheme, units such as $ do not need to be seen to award the marks. No response If there is any attempt at a solution award 0 marks not NR. “-” or “?” constitute no attempt at a solution. Abbreviations The following abbreviations may be used in a mark scheme: AG answer given (on question paper) awrt answer which rounds to dep mark depends on earlier, asterisked (*), mark ft follow through (from earlier error) oe or equivalent SC special case soi seen or implied

9694/11 Cambridge International AS & A Level – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED May/June 2025 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2025 Page 6 of 9 Question Answer Marks 1 Normal arrival time at office is 09:13 OR new arrival time is 09:23 [1] so later by 10 min If 0 scored, award 1 mark for final answer ’10 minutes earlier’ 2 Question Answer Marks 2(a) 150 seconds or 2.5 minutes 1 2(b) 240 seconds or 4 minutes 1 Question Answer Marks 3(a) $11 400 1 mark for $6000 OR $5400 OR $57 OR final answer of $79 800 2 3(b) 13:10 oe 1 mark for sight of 560 (minutes) or 9h 20 m OR final answer 12:50 OR final answer 15:15 OR for sight of 13:10 not identified as the final answer 2 Question Answer Marks 4(a) West 1 4(b) One forward then turn left [1] Five forward [1] OR Turn left then five forward [1] Turn right then one forward [1] 2 Question Answer Marks 5(a) Green/Blue 1 5(b) 1971 1

9694/11 Cambridge International AS & A Level – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED May/June 2025 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2025 Page 7 of 9 Question Answer Marks 6(a) 100 1 mark for Milly works 28 hours OR 1 mark for Milly makes 21 cats (per day) SC: 1 mark for final answer of 112 2 6(b) Milly at 11:40 1 mark for 11:40 OR 1 mark for Milly at 11:20 OR 1 mark for Milly made 3 and Donny made 2 by 10:00 OR 1 mark for 5 cats made in an hour 2 6(c) 16 1 6(d) 12:20, 12:45, 13:10 1 Question Answer Marks 7(a) 5 1 7(b) The value of D is 6 [1] ADDED scores 20 2 7(c) 4 Award 1 mark for: C + U + Y must be at least 5 OR the two Rs together cannot be more than 9 OR one example that satisfies all the conditions, except maximising R: • U = 1 • R = 2 or 3 • all digits sum to 14 with C and Y each between 2 and 8 inclusive SC: 2 marks for 4.5 as final answer 2 Question Answer Marks 8 $3 (per week) Award 1 mark for: Caroline must receive $6 more per week OR (If Tamsin receives $x per week:) 30 + 5x = 5  3x SC: 1 mark for final answer $9 2

9694/11 Cambridge International AS & A Level – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED May/June 2025 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2025 Page 8 of 9 Question Answer Marks 9(a) (4 + 6 + 9) × 30 = 570 oe AG 1 9(b) (30  10  15 =) 4500 (minutes) OR 75 hours (30  20  25 =) 15 000 (minutes) OR 250 hours (30  40  45 =) 54 000 (minutes) OR 900 hours 1 mark for any two correct, OR for 2450 (minutes) = 73 500 (minutes) OR 1225 hours 2 9(c) Minimum playing time is 750 [1] (minutes) Rahim could finish at 19:30 on Sunday SC: 1 mark for final answer 19:36 on Sunday 2 9(d) (12M, 13H) (15M, 11H) (18M, 9H) Award marks as follows: Number of answers given Number correct SC: 2 marks for 12, 15, 18 M and 9, 11, 13 H not paired (no extras) SC: 1 mark for (7M, 0H) (4M, 2H) (1M, 4H) 1 2 3 4 5 6+ 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 2 2 2 1 0 0 3 3 2 1 0 3 Question Answer Marks 10(a) 18:35 Award 1 mark for: last trip begins 7½ hours / 450 minutes after the first one OR last trip begins at 17:45 OR final answer of 17:45 OR final answer of 20:05 2 10(b) $376 1 mark for final answer of $381, $386 or $416 2

9694/11 Cambridge International AS & A Level – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED May/June 2025 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2025 Page 9 of 9 Question Answer Marks 11(a) (1 km run takes 10 minutes and uses) 20 litres [1] (Walk uses 30 litres, taking 30 minutes, total time 10 + 30, so) 9:56 2 11(b) (0.4 km walk takes 12 minutes and uses) 12 litres [1] (Run uses 38 litres, taking 19 minutes, total time 12 + 19, so) 9:47 2 11(c) (Total time 44 minutes) (38 minutes walking and) 6 minutes running [1] 0.6 km Alternative solution: 0.6 km Award 1 mark for correct algebraic equation(s) 10x + 50 – 20x = 44 OR W + 2r = 50 AND W + r = 44 2 Question Answer Marks 12 5 toppings 1 mark for: 4 toppings gives 15 combinations OR 6 toppings gives 63 combinations OR 5 + 10 + 10 + 5 + 1 seen Alternative solution: 1 topping on its own gives 1 combination Adding another topping gives 2 more combinations A third gives 4 more (so 7 toppings for 3 as stated in question) Adding a fourth gives 8 more [1] and adding a fifth 16 more Total 31 2 Question Answer Marks 13(a) 3/5 1 13(b) 2/5 1 13(c) iii true [1] ii false [1] SC: 1 mark for both correct and no more than 1 incorrect extra 2