Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry (BES) 0439 — 2018 Oct/Nov Paper 2 · Variant 1

0439/21/O/N/18 · 40 marks · ≈45 min

The question paper and its mark scheme, free to read here and free to download. This is Cambridge’s own paper, exactly as it was sat.

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Question paper16 pages

Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry (BES) 0439 2018 Oct/Nov Paper 2 · Variant 1 question paper, page 1 of 16
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Mark scheme3 pages

Answers below. Sit the paper first if you are practising.

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Paper as text

Question paper, page 1

This document consists of 15 printed pages and 1 blank page. IB18 11_0439_21/FP © UCLES 2018 [Turn over *7577787940* Cambridge International Examinations Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education CHEMISTRY (US) 0439/21 Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) October/November 2018 45 minutes Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet Soft clean eraser Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended) READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST Write in soft pencil. Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid. Write your name, Center number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided unless this has been done for you. DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES. There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet. Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully. Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer. Any rough working should be done in this booklet. A copy of the Periodic Table is printed on page 16. Electronic calculators may be used.

Question paper, page 2

2 © UCLES 2018 0439/21/O/N/18 1 When smoke particles are observed with a microscope they are seen to move around randomly. This is called Brownian motion. What causes Brownian motion? A diffusion of the smoke particles B molecules in the air hitting the smoke particles C sublimation of the smoke particles D the smoke particles hitting the walls of the container 2 The diagrams show four pieces of laboratory equipment. thermometer stop-watch pipet balance Which equipment is essential to find out if dissolving a salt in water is an exothermic process? balance pipet stop-watch thermometer A     B     C     D    

Question paper, page 3

3 © UCLES 2018 0439/21/O/N/18 [Turn over 3 Iodine, I, has a lower relative atomic mass than tellurium, Te, but is placed after it in the Periodic Table. Te I Which statement explains why iodine is placed after tellurium in the Periodic Table? A Iodine has fewer neutrons than tellurium. B Iodine has fewer protons than tellurium. C Iodine has more neutrons than tellurium. D Iodine has more protons than tellurium. 4 Which statement about the isotopes of an element is correct? A Their physical properties are different because they have different proton numbers. B Their atomic masses are different because they have different numbers of electron shells. C They have the same chemical properties because they have the same number of electrons in their outer shells. D They have the same physical properties because they have the same number of neutrons in their nuclei. 5 Which two molecules contain the same number of electrons? A Cl 2 and SO2 B CH4 and H2O C CO and NH3 D CO2 and HCl 6 Which statement describes the lattice structure of a metal? A The lattice consists of alternating positive ions and negative ions. B The lattice consists of neutral atoms arranged in layers. C The lattice consists of positive ions in a ‘sea of electrons’. D The lattice consists of neutral atoms in a ‘sea of electrons’.

Question paper, page 4

4 © UCLES 2018 0439/21/O/N/18 7 Which gas sample contains the most molecules? A 24 dm3 of carbon dioxide, CO2 B 4 g of hydrogen, H2 C 36 dm3 of hydrogen chloride, HCl D 14 g of nitrogen, N2 8 A student mixed together 25.0 cm3 of 1.00 mol / dm3 hydrochloric acid and 25.0 g of calcium carbonate. 2HCl (aq) + CaCO3(s) → CaCl 2(aq) + H2O(l) + CO2(g) What is the maximum volume of carbon dioxide gas that could be collected at room temperature and pressure? A 300 dm3 B 6.00 dm3 C 0.600 dm3 D 0.300 dm3 9 Iron can react with sulfur to form two ionic compounds. The iron is present as Fe2+ in one compound and as Fe3+ in the other compound. The sulfur ion is present as S2– in both compounds. What are the formulae of the two compounds? A FeS and Fe2S3 B FeS and Fe3S2 C FeS2 and Fe3S2 D FeS2 and Fe2S3 10 Aqueous copper(II) sulfate is electrolyzed using carbon electrodes. What is the product at each electrode? product at the positive electrode product at the negative electrode A copper oxygen B hydrogen oxygen C oxygen copper D oxygen hydrogen

Question paper, page 5

5 © UCLES 2018 0439/21/O/N/18 [Turn over 11 The diagram shows a circuit used to electrolyze aqueous copper(II) sulfate. + – 2 1 3 4 copper electrodes aqueous copper(II) sulfate power supply + – Which arrows indicate the movement of the copper ions in the electrolyte and of the electrons in the external circuit? copper ions electrons A 1 3 B 1 4 C 2 3 D 2 4 12 Methane burns in an excess of oxygen. The equation is shown. CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(g) The bond energies are shown in the table. bond bond energy in kJ / mol C–H +410 C=O +805 O–H +460 O=O +496 What is the energy change for the reaction? A +818 kJ / mol B +102 kJ / mol C –359 kJ / mol D –818 kJ / mol

Question paper, page 6

6 © UCLES 2018 0439/21/O/N/18 13 The equation for the formation of ammonia is shown. N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3 The energy level diagram for the reaction is shown. energy progress of reaction energy change N2 + 3H2 2NH3 total energy released = –342 kJ / mol activation energy = +250 kJ / mol What is the energy change for the reaction? A –592 kJ / mol B –92 kJ / mol C +92 kJ / mol D +592 kJ / mol 14 The effects of a change in conditions on a chemical reaction are listed. 1 The total number of collisions per minute increased. 2 The number of effective collisions per minute increased. 3 The average energy of the particles increased. Which change in conditions caused all of these effects? A addition of a catalyst B increasing the concentration of a solution of a reactant C increasing the surface area of a solid reactant D increasing the temperature

Question paper, page 7

7 © UCLES 2018 0439/21/O/N/18 [Turn over 15 When BiCl 3 reacts with water, a white precipitate of BiOCl is formed. The equation for the reaction is shown. BiCl 3(aq) + H2O(l) BiOCl (s) + 2HCl (aq) Which statements are correct? 1 The reaction is reversible. 2 When dilute hydrochloric acid is added to the reaction mixture, more of the white precipitate forms. 3 When aqueous sodium hydroxide is added to the reaction mixture, more of the white precipitate forms. A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only 16 An excess of iron(II) chloride is added to acidified potassium manganate(VII). Which statements are correct? 1 The purple color disappears. 2 Iron(II) is reduced to iron(III). 3 Manganate(VII) ions are oxidized to manganese(II) ions. 4 Potassium manganate(VII) is an oxidizing agent. A 1 and 2 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4 17 Part of the Periodic Table is shown. Which element forms an oxide that reacts with dilute acid to form a salt and water? I II III IV V VI VII VIII C D A B

Question paper, page 8

8 © UCLES 2018 0439/21/O/N/18 18 Aqueous sodium hydroxide is added to solid Q in a test-tube. A gas is produced which turns damp red litmus blue. What is Q? A aluminum B ammonia C ammonium chloride D sodium nitrate 19 Potassium hydroxide is a base. Which statement describes a reaction of potassium hydroxide? A Chlorine is formed when it is heated with ammonium chloride. B It turns Universal Indicator green. C It reacts with an acid to produce a salt and water. D It turns methyl orange red. 20 Some general rules for the solubility of salts in water are listed. ● Carbonates are insoluble (except ammonium carbonate, potassium carbonate and sodium carbonate). ● Chlorides are soluble (except lead(II) chloride and silver chloride). ● Nitrates are soluble. ● Sulfates are soluble (except barium sulfate, calcium sulfate and lead(II) sulfate). Which substances produce an insoluble salt when aqueous solutions of them are mixed? A barium chloride and magnesium nitrate B calcium chloride and ammonium nitrate C silver nitrate and zinc chloride D sodium carbonate and potassium sulfate

Question paper, page 9

9 © UCLES 2018 0439/21/O/N/18 [Turn over 21 Elements in Group I of the Periodic Table react with water. Which row describes the products made in the reaction and the trend in reactivity of the elements? products trend in reactivity A metal hydroxide and hydrogen less reactive down the group B metal hydroxide and hydrogen more reactive down the group C metal oxide and hydrogen less reactive down the group D metal oxide and hydrogen more reactive down the group 22 The equation shows the reaction between a halogen and aqueous bromide ions. X2 + 2Br– → 2X– + Br2 …1… …2… …3… Which words complete gaps 1, 2 and 3? 1 2 3 A chlorine brown colorless B chlorine colorless brown C iodine brown colorless D iodine colorless brown 23 An inert gas R is used to fill weather balloons. Which descriptions of R are correct? number of outer shell electrons in atoms of R structure of gas R A 2 diatomic molecules B 2 single atoms C 8 diatomic molecules D 8 single atoms

Question paper, page 10

10 © UCLES 2018 0439/21/O/N/18 24 A student heated copper(II) carbonate and copper(II) nitrate in separate test-tubes. Both compounds decomposed. Which row shows the gases produced from each reaction? copper(II) carbonate copper(II) nitrate A carbon dioxide nitrogen dioxide only B carbon dioxide oxygen only C carbon dioxide oxygen and nitrogen dioxide D oxygen oxygen and nitrogen dioxide 25 Metal X reacts with steam but not with cold water. What is X? A calcium B copper C sodium D zinc 26 Which row shows uses of the metals listed? aluminum copper mild steel A aircraft manufacture food containers cutlery B cutlery electrical wiring chemical plant C electrical wiring aircraft manufacture cooking utensils D food containers cooking utensils car bodies 27 Aluminum objects do not need protection from corrosion. Iron objects must be protected from corrosion. Why does aluminum resist corrosion? A Aluminum does not form ions easily. B Aluminum does not react with water or air. C Aluminum has a protective oxide layer. D Aluminum is below iron in the reactivity series.

Question paper, page 11

11 © UCLES 2018 0439/21/O/N/18 [Turn over 28 Which statement describes the role of iron in the Haber process? A It is used as a catalyst. B It is used as a reducing agent. C It is used to condense the ammonia gas into a liquid. D It is used to increase the yield of ammonia. 29 Which statement about air pollutants is not correct? A Carbon monoxide is formed from the complete combustion of petroleum. B Lead compounds are formed from some types of petrol. C Oxides of nitrogen are formed from the combustion reactions inside car engines. D Sulfur dioxide is formed from the combustion of coal. 30 Argon is a noble gas used to fill light bulbs. What is the approximate percentage of argon in air? A 1% B 20% C 79% D 99% 31 The diagrams show experiments involving the rusting of iron. water boiled to remove the air water anhydrous calcium chloride to dry the air oil iron nails tube Q tube R tube P A student predicted the following results. 1 In tube P, the iron nails rust. 2 In tube Q, the iron nails do not rust. 3 In tube R, the iron nails do not rust. Which predictions are correct? A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

Question paper, page 12

12 © UCLES 2018 0439/21/O/N/18 32 A diagram of the carbon cycle is shown. dead organisms animals plants carbon dioxide fossil fuels W X X Y Which processes are represented by the letters W, X and Y? W X Y A photosynthesis combustion respiration B photosynthesis respiration combustion C respiration combustion photosynthesis D respiration photosynthesis combustion 33 Which statement about sulfur or one of its compounds is correct? A Sulfur occurs naturally as the element sulfur. B Sulfur dioxide is used to kill bacteria in drinking water. C Sulfuric acid is a weak acid. D Dilute sulfuric acid is a dehydrating agent. 34 Which reaction is endothermic? A CaCO3 → CaO + CO2 B CaO + 2HCl → CaCl 2 + H2O C 2Ca + O2 → 2CaO D Ca + 2HCl → CaCl 2 + H2

Question paper, page 13

13 © UCLES 2018 0439/21/O/N/18 [Turn over 35 Which equation representing a reaction of methane is correct? A CH4 + Cl 2 → CH3Cl + HCl B CH4 + Cl 2 → CH4Cl 2 C CH4 + Cl 2 → CH2Cl 2 + H2 D 2CH4 + 2Cl 2 → 2CH3Cl + Cl 2 + H2 36 Which two compounds are molecules which both contain a double bond? A ethane and ethanoic acid B ethane and ethanol C ethene and ethanoic acid D ethene and ethanol 37 Ethanol can be formed by: 1 fermentation 2 reaction between steam and ethene. Which of these processes use a catalyst? 1 2 A   B   C   D   38 When the alcohol CH3CH2CH2OH reacts with the carboxylic acid CH3CH2CH2COOH an ester is formed. What is the name and structural formula of this ester? name structural formula A butyl propanoate CH3CH2COOCH2CH2CH2CH3 B butyl propanoate CH3CH2CH2COOCH2CH2CH3 C propyl butanoate CH3CH2COOCH2CH2CH2CH3 D propyl butanoate CH3CH2CH2COOCH2CH2CH3

Question paper, page 14

14 © UCLES 2018 0439/21/O/N/18 39 A solution of ethanol and water is left to stand in an open beaker in a warm room for three weeks. Which statement explains what happens to the ethanol in the solution? A The ethanol is dehydrated to ethene. B The ethanol is hydrolyzed to ethene. C The ethanol is oxidized to ethanoic acid. D The ethanol is reduced to ethanoic acid. 40 The structure of a polymer is shown. C H H C CH3 CH3 C H H C CH3 CH3 C H H C CH3 CH3 Which monomer is used to make this polymer? C CH3 CH3 C A H H C CH3 CH3 C B H H C CH3 CH3 C C H H C CH3 CH3 C D H H

Question paper, page 15

15 BLANK PAGE Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity. To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series. Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge. © UCLES 2018 0439/21/O/N/18

Question paper, page 16

16 © UCLES 2018 0439/21/O/N/18 Group The Periodic Table of Elements 1 H hydrogen 1 2 He helium 4 I II III IV V VI VII VIII 3 Li lithium 7 4 Be beryllium 9 atomic number atomic symbol Key name relative atomic mass 11 Na sodium 23 12 Mg magnesium 24 19 K potassium 39 20 Ca calcium 40 37 Rb rubidium 85 38 Sr strontium 88 55 Cs cesium 133 56 Ba barium 137 87 Fr francium – 88 Ra radium – 5 B boron 11 13 Al aluminum 27 31 Ga gallium 70 49 In indium 115 81 Tl thallium 204 6 C carbon 12 14 Si silicon 28 32 Ge germanium 73 50 Sn tin 119 82 Pb lead 207 22 Ti titanium 48 40 Zr zirconium 91 72 Hf hafnium 178 104 Rf rutherfordium – 23 V vanadium 51 41 Nb niobium 93 73 Ta tantalum 181 105 Db dubnium – 24 Cr chromium 52 42 Mo molybdenum 96 74 W tungsten 184 106 Sg seaborgium – 25 Mn manganese 55 43 Tc technetium – 75 Re rhenium 186 107 Bh bohrium – 26 Fe iron 56 44 Ru ruthenium 101 76 Os osmium 190 108 Hs hassium – 27 Co cobalt 59 45 Rh rhodium 103 77 Ir iridium 192 109 Mt meitnerium – 28 Ni nickel 59 46 Pd palladium 106 78 Pt platinum 195 110 Ds darmstadtium – 29 Cu copper 64 47 Ag silver 108 79 Au gold 197 111 Rg roentgenium – 30 Zn zinc 65 48 Cd cadmium 112 80 Hg mercury 201 112 Cn copernicium – 114 Fl flerovium – 116 Lv livermorium – 7 N nitrogen 14 15 P phosphorus 31 33 As arsenic 75 51 Sb antimony 122 83 Bi bismuth 209 8 O oxygen 16 16 S sulfur 32 34 Se selenium 79 52 Te tellurium 128 84 Po polonium – 9 F fluorine 19 17 Cl chlorine 35.5 35 Br bromine 80 53 I iodine 127 85 At astatine – 10 Ne neon 20 18 Ar argon 40 36 Kr krypton 84 54 Xe xenon 131 86 Rn radon – 21 Sc scandium 45 39 Y yttrium 89 57–71 lanthanoids 89–103 actinoids 57 La lanthanum 139 89 Ac lanthanoids actinoids The volume of one mole of any gas is 24 dm3 at room temperature and pressure (r.t.p.). actinium – 58 Ce cerium 140 90 Th thorium 232 59 Pr praseodymium 141 91 Pa protactinium 231 60 Nd neodymium 144 92 U uranium 238 61 Pm promethium – 93 Np neptunium – 62 Sm samarium 150 94 Pu plutonium – 63 Eu europium 152 95 Am americium – 64 Gd gadolinium 157 96 Cm curium – 65 Tb terbium 159 97 Bk berkelium – 66 Dy dysprosium 163 98 Cf californium – 67 Ho holmium 165 99 Es einsteinium – 68 Er erbium 167 100 Fm fermium – 69 Tm thulium 169 101 Md mendelevium – 70 Yb ytterbium 173 102 No nobelium – 71 Lu lutetium 175 103 Lr lawrencium –

Mark scheme, page 1

This document consists of 3 printed pages. © UCLES 2018 [Turn over Cambridge Assessment International Education Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education CHEMISTRY (US) 0439/21 Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) October/November 2018 MARK SCHEME Maximum Mark: 40 Published This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the examination. Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for Teachers. Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes. Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2018 series for most Cambridge IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level components.

Mark scheme, page 2

0439/21 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2018 © UCLES 2018 Page 2 of 3 Question Answer Marks 1 B 1 2 A 1 3 D 1 4 C 1 5 B 1 6 C 1 7 B 1 8 D 1 9 A 1 10 C 1 11 C 1 12 D 1 13 B 1 14 D 1 15 C 1 16 B 1 17 C 1 18 C 1 19 C 1 20 C 1 21 B 1 22 B 1 23 B 1 24 C 1 25 D 1 26 D 1 27 C 1 28 A 1

Mark scheme, page 3

0439/21 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2018 © UCLES 2018 Page 3 of 3 Question Answer Marks 29 A 1 30 A 1 31 A 1 32 B 1 33 A 1 34 A 1 35 A 1 36 C 1 37 A 1 38 D 1 39 C 1 40 D 1

What you needed in this session

Cambridge’s own grade thresholds for 2018 Oct/Nov, Paper 2 · Variant 1. A higher threshold means an easier paper — the bar moves with how the cohort did.

A28/40
B24/40
C21/40
D18/40
E15/40
F13/40
G11/40

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