Cambridge A Level Environmental Management (AS only) 8291 — 2025 Oct/Nov Paper 1 · Variant 3

[Turn over Cambridge International AS Level This document has 20 pages. DC (CE) 361312 © UCLES 2025 * 6 4 3 8 2 3 1 4 2 8 * ENVIRONMENTAL MANAGEMENT 8291/13 Paper 1 Principles of Environmental Management October/November 2025 1 hour 45 minutes You must answer on the question paper. No additional materials are needed. INSTRUCTIONS ● Section A: answer all questions. ● Section B: answer one question. ● Use a black or dark blue pen. You may use an HB pencil for any diagrams or graphs. ● Write your name, centre number and candidate number in the boxes at the top of the page. ● Write your answer to each question in the space provided. ● Do not use an erasable pen or correction fluid. ● Do not write on any bar codes. ● You may use a calculator. ● You should show all your working and use appropriate units. INFORMATION ● The total mark for this paper is 80. ● The number of marks for each question or part question is shown in brackets [ ]. ,










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2 8291/13/O/N/25 © UCLES 2025 Section A Answer all questions in this section. 1 (a) Fig. 1.1 shows the population density of countries in 2023. Key 0–9 people per km2 population density 10–199 200–1500 low medium high Peru Brazil Equator Tropic of Capricorn Tropic of Cancer Fig. 1.1 (i) Describe the distribution of population density shown in Fig. 1.1. … … … … … … [3] * 0000800000002 * ,










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3 8291/13/O/N/25 © UCLES 2025 [Turn over (ii) A student concludes that the number of people per km2 in Peru and Brazil is the same. State one piece of evidence shown in Fig. 1.1 that supports this conclusion and one piece of evidence that does not support this conclusion. support … … does not support … … [2] (iii) Table 1.1 shows data for Botswana, Africa, in 2023. Table 1.1 population / number of people area of country / km2 population density / people per km2 population density as shown in the key on Fig. 1.1 2 384 246 581 730 Complete Table 1.1: • calculate the population density • use the key in Fig. 1.1 to determine the population density as low, medium or high. [2] (b) Environmental, economic and social factors influence population density within a country. State one example for each of these factors. environmental … economic … social … [3] * 0000800000003 * ,










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4 8291/13/O/N/25 © UCLES 2025 (c) Fig. 1.2 shows the population structure of a country in 2023. 0–4 125 100 75 50 25 0 population / thousand people 25 50 75 100 125 5–9 10–14 15–19 20–24 25–29 30–34 35–39 40–44 45–49 50–54 55–59 60–64 65–69 70–74 75–79 80–84 85–89 90–94 95–99 100+ female male age Fig. 1.2 (i) Circle the income group of the country in Fig. 1.2. LIC MIC HIC [1] (ii) Explain your choice of income group in (c)(i). … … … … [2] (d) Some countries have an ageing population. State three impacts of an ageing population on a country. 1 … … 2 … … 3 … … [3] [Total: 16] * 0000800000004 * ,










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5 8291/13/O/N/25 © UCLES 2025 [Turn over 2 (a) Many governments aim to improve long‑term energy security. (i) Describe what is meant by long‑term energy security. … … … … … … [3] (ii) Piracy affects energy security. Explain how piracy affects energy security. … … … … [2] (iii) Reliance on fossil fuels is one strategy for managing energy security. Describe benefits and limitations of this strategy for managing energy security. benefits … … … … … limitations … … … … … [4] * 0000800000005 * ,










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6 8291/13/O/N/25 © UCLES 2025 (b) Table 2.1 shows the percentage of the population of Papua New Guinea that had access to electricity for a minimum of four hours per day between 2000 and 2021. Table 2.1 year percentage of the population 2000 8 2003 15 2006 12 2009 17 2012 35 2015 2018 55 2021 60 (i) Plot a line graph of the data in Table 2.1. [4] (ii) Use your graph to estimate the percentage of the population of Papua New Guinea that had access to electricity for a minimum of four hours per day in 2015. … % [1] * 0000800000006 * ,










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7 8291/13/O/N/25 © UCLES 2025 [Turn over (iii) Suggest two ways that the change in access to electricity from 2000 to 2021 will impact the people of Papua New Guinea. 1 … … 2 … … [2] [Total: 16] * 0000800000007 * ,










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8 8291/13/O/N/25 © UCLES 2025 3 A hydroponic system is a controlled environment for growing food. (a) Fig. 3.1 shows a hydroponic system for growing strawberry plants. Fig. 3.1 (i) The strawberry plants in this hydroponics system compete with each other. Suggest how this hydroponics system reduces competition between strawberry plants. … … … … … … … … [4] * 0000800000008 * ,










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9 8291/13/O/N/25 © UCLES 2025 [Turn over (ii) Reducing competition is a benefit of hydroponics systems. Describe other benefits and limitations of hydroponics systems. benefits … … … … … limitations … … … … … [4] (b) Hydroponics is one strategy for managing food security. (i) Define food security. … … … [2] (ii) State three strategies, other than hydroponics, for managing food security. 1 … … 2 … … 3 … … [3] [Total: 13] * 0000800000009 * ,










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10 8291/13/O/N/25 © UCLES 2025 4 (a) Fig. 4.1 shows the structure of the Earth’s atmosphere. 50 altitude / km 100 0 troposphere A B C Fig. 4.1 (i) Use Fig. 4.1 to determine the maximum altitude of the troposphere. … km [1] (ii) Identify the letter, A, B or C, on Fig. 4.1 that contains the ozone layer. … [1] * 0000800000010 * ,










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11 8291/13/O/N/25 © UCLES 2025 [Turn over (b) A student says: Ozone can be harmful to human health but it can also prevent harm. (i) Describe how ozone harms human health. … … … … … … [3] (ii) Explain how ozone prevents harm to humans. … … … … … … [3] * 0000800000011 * ,









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12 8291/13/O/N/25 © UCLES 2025 (c) An ozone hole is an area where the mean concentration of ozone is below 100 Dobson Units. Fig. 4.2 shows the mean area of the Antarctic ozone hole between 1980 and 2022. 1980 1985 1990 1995 2000 2005 2010 2015 2020 2025 year 0 5 10 15 20 25 30 mean area of ozone hole / million km2 Fig. 4.2 (i) Describe the overall trend in the mean area of the Antarctic ozone hole between 1980 and 2022. … … … … [2] (ii) Calculate the percentage increase in the mean area of the Antarctic ozone hole between 1980 and 2000. … [2] * 0000800000012 * ,









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13 8291/13/O/N/25 © UCLES 2025 [Turn over (d) Describe how ozone depletion occurs. … … … … … … [3] [Total: 15] * 0000800000013 * ,









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14 8291/13/O/N/25 © UCLES 2025 Section B Answer one question. EITHER 5 ‘Local human activities have a greater impact on tropical rainforests than the impact of global climate change on tropical rainforests.’ To what extent do you agree with this statement? Give reasons and include information from relevant examples to support your answer. [20] OR 6 Evaluate the success of legislation and protocols as methods of conserving biodiversity. Give reasons and include information from relevant examples to support your answer. [20] … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … * 0000800000014 * ,









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20 8291/13/O/N/25 © UCLES 2025 … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … The boundaries and names shown, the designations used and the presentation of material on any maps contained in this question paper/insert do not imply official endorsement or acceptance by Cambridge Assessment International Education concerning the legal status of any country, territory, or area or any of its authorities, or of the delimitation of its frontiers or boundaries. Permission to reproduce items where third‑party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity. To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer‑related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series. Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge. * 0000800000020 * ,










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This document consists of 20 printed pages. © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2025 [Turn over Cambridge International AS Level ENVIRONMENTAL MANAGEMENT 8291/13 Paper 1 Principles of Environmental Management October/November 2025 MARK SCHEME Maximum Mark: 80 Published This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have considered the acceptability of alternative answers. Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for Teachers. Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes. Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2025 series for most Cambridge IGCSE, Cambridge International A and AS Level components, and some Cambridge O Level components.

8291/13 Cambridge International AS Level – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2025 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2025 Page 2 of 20 Generic Marking Principles These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers. They should be applied alon gside the specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptions for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these marking principles. GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 1: Marks must be awarded in line with: • the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question • the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question • the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts. GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 2: Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions). GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 3: Marks must be awarded positively: • marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit is given for valid answers which go beyond the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme, referring to your Team Leader as appropriate • marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do • marks are not deducted for errors • marks are not deducted for omissions • answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these features are specifically assessed by the question as indicated by the mark scheme. The meaning, however, should be unambiguous. GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 4: Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed instructions or in the application of generic level descriptors.

8291/13 Cambridge International AS Level – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2025 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2025 Page 3 of 20 GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 5: Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question (however; the use of the full mark range may be limited according to the quality of the candidate responses seen). GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 6: Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should not be awarded with grade thre sholds or grade descriptors in mind. Science-Specific Marking Principles 1 Examiners should consider the context and scientific use of any keywords when awarding marks. Although keywords may be present, marks should not be awarded if the keywords are used incorrectly. 2 The examiner should not choose between contradictory statements given in the same question part, and credit should not be awarded for any correct statement that is contradicted within the same question part. Wrong science that is irrelevant to the question should be ignored. 3 Although spellings do not have to be correct, spellings of syllabus terms must allow for clear and unambiguous separation fro m other syllabus terms with which they may be confused (e.g. ethane / ethene, glucagon / glycogen, refraction / reflection). 4 The error carried forward (ecf) principle should be applied, where appropriate. If an incorrect answer is subsequently used in a scientifically correct way, the candidate should be awarded these subsequent marking points. Further guidance will be included in the mark scheme where necessary and any exceptions to this general principle will be noted. 5 ‘List rule’ guidance For questions that require n responses (e.g. State two reasons …): • The response should be read as continuous prose, even when numbered answer spaces are provided. • Any response marked ignore in the mark scheme should not count towards n. • Incorrect responses should not be awarded credit but will still count towards n. • Read the entire response to check for any responses that contradict those that would otherwise be credited. Credit should not be awarded for any responses that are contradicted within the rest of the response. Where two responses contradict one another, this should be treated as a single incorrect response. • Non-contradictory responses after the first n responses may be ignored even if they include incorrect science.

8291/13 Cambridge International AS Level – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2025 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2025 Page 4 of 20 6 Calculation specific guidance Correct answers to calculations should be given full credit even if there is no working or incorrect working, unless the question states ‘show your working’. For questions in which the number of significant figures required is not stated, credit should be awarded for correct answers when rounded by the examiner to the number of significant figures given in the mark scheme. This may not apply to measured values. For answers given in standard form (e.g. a  10n) in which the convention of restricting the value of the coefficient (a) to a value between 1 and 10 is not followed, credit may still be awarded if the answer can be converted to the answer given in the mark scheme. Unless a separate mark is given for a unit, a missing or incorrect unit will normally mean that the final calculation mark is not awarded. Exceptions to this general principle will be noted in the mark scheme. 7 Guidance for chemical equations Multiples / fractions of coefficients used in chemical equations are acceptable unless stated otherwise in the mark scheme. State symbols given in an equation should be ignored unless asked for in the question or stated otherwise in the mark scheme.

8291/13 Cambridge International AS Level – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2025 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2025 Page 5 of 20 Annotations guidance for centres Examiners use a system of annotations as a shorthand for communicating their marking decisions to one another. Examiners are trained during the standardisation process on how and when to use annotations. The purpose of annotations is to inform the standard isation and monitoring processes and guide the supervising examiners when they are checking the work of examiners within their team. The meaning of annotations and how they are used is specific to each component and is understood by all examiners who mark the component. We publish annotations in our mark schemes to help centres understand the annotations they may see on copies of scripts. Note that there may not be a direct correlation between the number of annotations on a script and the mark awarded. Similarly, the use of an annotation may not be an indication of the quality of the response. The annotations listed below were available to examiners marking this component in this series. Annotations Annotation Meaning correct point or mark awarded incorrect point or mark not awarded benefit of the doubt given response is too vague or there is insufficient detail in response error carried forward applied information missing or insufficient for credit incorrect or insufficient point ignored while marking the rest of the response incorrect point or mark not awarded two statements are linked point has been noted, but no credit has been given or blank page seen

8291/13 Cambridge International AS Level – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2025 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2025 Page 6 of 20 Annotation Meaning key point attempted / working towards marking point / incomplete answer / response seen but not credited / blank page seen blank page Assessment Objective (AO), number corresponds to AO1, AO2 etc. Level of Response. Number indicates the level awarded to the response (mark scheme details mark ranges for each level) correct awarding one mark from marking point or marking group 1. similar numbered ticks are used for marking point or marking groups 2, 3, 4 etc. response has not answered question contradiction in response, mark not awarded

8291/13 Cambridge International AS Level – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2025 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2025 Page 7 of 20 Question Answer Marks 1(a)(i) one mark per high, medium, low description: high population density: M1 high density mainly in southern Asia / India; M2 some high density in Europe / Africa / Caribbean; medium population density: M3 medium density mainly in the Americas / South America; M4 some medium density in Africa / Europe / Asia; M5 majority of world / countries has medium density; low population density: M6 low density mainly in Oceania / northern Asia / northern North America / Canada; M7 some low density in Africa / South America; M8 low density tends to be at high latitudes; 3 1(a)(ii) support: M1 both countries are shaded the same / both countries are medium density; does not support: M2 density ranges from 10 to 199 people per km2 / medium covers a range of densities; 2 1(a)(iii) M1 4(.1); M2 low; 2

8291/13 Cambridge International AS Level – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2025 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2025 Page 8 of 20 Question Answer Marks 1(b) any one from each of: environmental: M1 soil fertility / topography / climate / availability of resources e.g. food or water / ref. to natural disasters; economic: M2 wages / job opportunities; social: M3 healthcare / infrastructure / schools / politics / culture / religion; 3 1(c)(i) MIC circled; 1 1(c)(ii) any two from: M1 wide base / mostly young people / large number of young children; M2 idea of gradual taper / getting narrower / decreasing number of older people; M3 some in highest age categories; 2 1(d) any three from: M1 less people in work force / employment; M2 lower tax revenue; M3 economy decreases / economic recession; M4 higher pension spending; M5 pressure on health care; M6 pressure to raise retirement age; M7 ageing population can share experience with younger population; 3

8291/13 Cambridge International AS Level – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2025 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2025 Page 9 of 20 Question Answer Marks 2(a)(i) any three from: M1 reliable availability of energy; M2 at an affordable price; M3 consideration for environmental impacts; M4 allows economic developments; 3 2(a)(ii) any two from: M1 decreases energy security / increases energy insecurity; M2 pirates take control of tankers / pipelines; M3 disrupts supply; M4 increases prices; 2

8291/13 Cambridge International AS Level – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2025 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2025 Page 10 of 20 Question Answer Marks 2(a)(iii) any four from: (max 3 from benefits or limitations) benefits: M1 fossil fuels are cheaper; M2 fossil fuels are widely available / abundant; M3 fossil fuels are energy dense; M4 simple / known technology available; limitations: M5 fossil fuels are finite / will run out / non-renewable; M6 increased emissions of carbon dioxide / greenhouse gases / ref. to increased enhanced greenhouse effect; M7 leads to climate change / description of climate change / global warming; M8 greater concentrations of smog / particulates; M9 not all countries have alternative technology / not all countries have access to renewables e.g. no suitable coast for tidal / no suitable rivers for hydroelectric / not all countries have nuclear technology; 4 2(b)(i) M1 line graph and both axes labelled as year and percentage of the population; M2 linear scale so that plotted points occupy at least half of the grid; M3 points plotted correctly  ½ small square;; 4 2(b)(ii) 45 (%); 1

8291/13 Cambridge International AS Level – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2025 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2025 Page 11 of 20 Question Answer Marks 2(b)(iii) any two from: M1 increase jobs / increased working hours; M2 increase industry; M3 improved health care; M4 improved education; M5 improved / allows access to internet; M6 decrease poverty; M7 decrease civil unrest / conflict; 2 Question Answer Marks 3(a)(i) any four from any two methods: M1 water; M2 freely available through pipes / enough water supply / getting the same amount of water; M3 nutrients / mineral ions; M4 dissolved in water / supplied at optimum concentration; M5 space; M6 optimum spacing between plants / plants have enough space to thrive; M7 light; M8 plants on a slope prevents shading / maximises light; M9 weeds / other competing plants; M10 weeds can be removed / no weeds present; 4

8291/13 Cambridge International AS Level – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2025 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2025 Page 12 of 20 Question Answer Marks 3(a)(ii) any four from: (max 3 from benefits or limitations) benefits: M1 increased yield; M2 increased crop quality; M3 all year production / no seasonality; M4 high crop value; M5 reduced use of pesticides / pests can be controlled; M6 reduced use of fertilisers; limitations: M7 expensive infrastructure / not everyone can afford it; M8 requires expertise; M9 requires large workforce / labour intensive; M10 only useful for certain crops; M11 high energy cost / requires artificial light / requires heat; 4 3(b)(i) any two from: M1 all people at all times have access; M2 sufficient safe and nutritious food; M3 to meet dietary needs / for active / for healthy life; 2

8291/13 Cambridge International AS Level – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2025 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2025 Page 13 of 20 Question Answer Marks 3(b)(ii) any three from: M1 subsistence agriculture; M2 intensification; M3 extensification / expanding agriculture; M4 aquaculture; M5 selective breeding; M6 GM crops; M7 use of fertilisers; M8 use of pesticides / insecticides / fungicides; M9 reduction in livestock; M10 reducing food waste; M11 large-scale stockpiling; M12 improved transport / storage of food; M13 protecting pollinating insects; M14 food aid; M15 rationing / food equally distributed; 3

8291/13 Cambridge International AS Level – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2025 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2025 Page 14 of 20 Question Answer Marks 4(a)(i) 8 (km); 1 4(a)(ii) A; 1 4(b)(i) any three from: M1 ground level ozone; M2 forms photochemical smog; M3 eye irritation; M4 respiratory irritation / any named respiratory issue e.g. asthma, lung cancer; M5 damages crops and causes malnutrition; 3 4(b)(ii) any three from: M1 absorbs UV / shortwave radiation; M2 prevents UV reaching Earth surface; M3 prevents cataracts; M4 prevents cancer; 3 4(c)(i) M1 increases (1980 to 2022); M2 levels off / fluctuates (1998 to 2022); 2 4(c)(ii) M1 2 and 25 seen; M2 1150 / correct value from their values; 2

8291/13 Cambridge International AS Level – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2025 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2025 Page 15 of 20 Question Answer Marks 4(d) any three from: M1 CFCs; M2 from aerosols / refrigerants; M3 CFCs are unreactive / don’t react in lower atmosphere / accumulate in stratosphere or upper atmosphere; M4 (CFCs) broken down by UV; M5 releases chlorine (atom); M6 chlorine (atom) reacts with ozone / breaks down ozone; M7 chlorine (atom) remains; 3

8291/13 Cambridge International AS Level – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2025 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2025 Page 16 of 20 Question Answer Marks 5 ‘Local human activities have a greater impact on tropical rainforests than global climate change. ’ The question requirements are to: • describe the impacts of human activities on tropical rainforests • describe impacts of climate change on tropical rainforests • evaluate the statement with particular emphasis on ‘greater impact than’. Candidates may describe the impacts of human activities including: • deforestation • fragmentation • timber / fuel collection • mineral extraction • hydroelectric and reservoir projects • exploitation of species • agricultural development • urbanisation Candidates may describe the impacts of climate change on tropical rainforests including: • change in biodiversity / forest composition • spread of fungal diseases • species change • stated effect on photosynthesis • spread of pests Candidates are likely to be split about which will have the greatest impact but their reasoning should be balanced. Candidates may argue that climate change is a human activity so impacts are the same. Answers should be supported by case studies / relevant examples where this provides balanced evidence. 20

8291/13 Cambridge International AS Level – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2025 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2025 Page 17 of 20 Question Answer Marks 6 Evaluate the success of legislation and protocols as methods of conserving biodiversity. Give reasons and include information from relevant examples to support your answer. The question requirements are to: • show an understanding of the importance of biodiversity • describe unsustainable and sustainable harvesting • describe legislations and protocols • evaluate the success of legislation and protocols. Candidates may describe the importance of biodiversity including: • genetic variation • preventing extinction • effects on food chains / food production • potential sources of medicines • resources of food and materials. Candidates may describe examples of sustainable and unsustainable harvesting in a local, national or global context. Candidates may describe legislations and protocols including CITES, IWC, EUCFP, ITTO, IUCN (detailed knowledge of policy details is not required). Candidates may describe other ways of maintaining biodiversity e.g. EDGE awareness programme, national parks etc. Candidates should evaluate the success of the legislations and protocols including relevant examples. Candidates are likely to be divided over the success of the strategies but their reasoning should be balanced. Answers should be supported by case studies / relevant examples where this provides balanced evidence. 20

8291/13 Cambridge International AS Level – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2025 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2025 Page 18 of 20 Question Answer Marks Mark levels for Question 5 and Question 6 This question assesses AO2 and AO3 skills. Award a mark for each AO separately. The mark awarded will be the total of the marks awarded for AO2 and AO3. Marks should be awarded based on a judgement of the overall quality of the response for that AO, rather than awarding marks for specific points. Indicative content is provided as a guide. Inevitably, the mark scheme cannot cover all responses that candidates may make for all of the questions. In some cases, candidates may make some responses which the mark scheme has not predicted. These answers should nevertheless be credited according to their quality. Instructions for using the levels Start from the top level for each AO and read down until you meet the level that ‘best fits’ the response. An answer needs to show evidence of most, but not necessarily all, of the qualities described in a level. Use the following guide to decide which mark to give within the level: • Consistently meets the level criteria mark at top of level. • Meets most of criteria but with some inconsistency mark at middle of level. • On the borderline of this level and the one below, mark at bottom of level. Award a mark for each AO separately. Then add the two marks together to arrive at the total mark for the response.

8291/13 Cambridge International AS Level – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2025 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2025 Page 19 of 20 Question Answer Marks Level AO2: Information handling and analysis Marks 3 Responses contain reasoned explanations with knowledge that indicates a strong conceptual understanding of the topic. Incorporates frequent use of directly relevant examples. 7–8 2 Responses contain explanations with some gaps or errors in the reasoning. Explanations may lack detail or accurate knowledge. Examples are included but some opportunities to include relevant examples are missed. 4–6 1 Responses contain a few general points, which are mainly descriptive, comprising a few simple points. Knowledge is basic and understanding may be poor and lack relevance to the question set. Irrelevant or no examples are given. 1–3 0 No creditable response. 0

8291/13 Cambridge International AS Level – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2025 © Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2025 Page 20 of 20 Question Answer Marks Level AO3: Investigation skills and making judgements Marks 4 Clearly presents and develops both sides of the argument. Judgements are fully supported with relevant qualitative and/or quantitative information. Clear, balanced conclusion which is consistent with the question and candidate response. 10–12 3 One side of the argument is better developed than the other. Judgements are partially supported with qualitative and/or quantitative information. Conclusion is consistent with the question and candidate response. 7–9 2 Describes only one side of the argument. Judgements have minimal support; qualitative or quantitative information lacks relevance. Conclusion may be inconsistent with the question and candidate response. 4–6 1 Response is descriptive. Minimal judgement is made, unsupported by qualitative or quantitative information. Conclusion is inconsistent with the question and candidate response, or no conclusion made. 1–3 0 No creditable response. 0